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  • Strange File Upload issue with asp.net site on a web farm

    - by Coov
    I have a basic asp.net file upload page. When I test file uploads from my local machine, it works fine. When I test file uploads from our dev machine, it works fine. When I deploy the site to our production webfarm, it behaves strangely. If I access the site from off the network, I can load file-after-file without issue. If I access the site from within our network, I can load the first file just fine but any subsequent files result it a bad sequence of commands error. I'm not sure if this is web farm issue, a network issue, or something else. It feels like a connection is not being disposed of properly but it doesn't make sense why everything works fine remotely. Markup: <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload1" runat="server" Width="350px" /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Upload" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> Code: if (FileUpload1.HasFile) { FtpWebRequest ftpRequest; FtpWebResponse ftpResponse; ftpRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri("ftp://ftp.myftpsite.com/" + FileUpload1.FileName)); ftpRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; ftpRequest.Proxy = null; ftpRequest.UseBinary = true; ftpRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); ftpRequest.KeepAlive = false; byte[] fileContents = new byte[FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength]; using (Stream fr = FileUpload1.PostedFile.InputStream) { fr.Read(fileContents, 0, FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength); } using (Stream writer = ftpRequest.GetRequestStream()) { writer.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); } ftpResponse = (FtpWebResponse)ftpRequest.GetResponse(); Response.Write(ftpResponse.StatusDescription); }

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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  • What are practical guidelines for evaluating a language's "Turing Completeness"?

    - by AShelly
    I've read "what-is-turing-complete" and the wikipedia page, but I'm less interested in a formal proof than in the practical implications of being Turing Complete. What I'm actually trying to decide is if the toy language I've just designed could be used as a general-purpose language. I know I can prove it is if I can write a Turing machine with it. But I don't want to go through that exercise until I'm fairly certain of success. Is there a minimum set of features without which Turing Completeness is impossible? Is there a set of features which virtually guarantees completeness? (My guess is that conditional branching and a readable/writeable memory store will get me most of the way there) EDIT: I think I've gone off on a tangent by saying "Turing Complete". I'm trying to guess with reasonable confidence that a newly invented language with a certain feature set (or alternately, a VM with a certain instruction set) would be able to compute anything worth computing. I know proving you can building a Turing machine with it is one way, but not the only way. What I was hoping for was a set of guidelines like: "if it can do X,Y,and Z, it can probably do anything".

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  • How to access SQL CE 3.5 from VB6

    - by Masterfu
    We have a .NET 3.5 SP1 application written in C# that stores data in an SQL CE 3.5 Database. We also need to access (read only) this very data from a legacy VB6 application. I don't know if this is at all possible. There are several approaches to this problem that I can think of. 1) I have read about ADOCE Connections, but this seems to be an option for embedded Visual Basic only 2) I can't seem to get a connection working using ADODB.Connection Objects like so Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.CE.OLEDB.3.5 ' Microsoft.SQLSERVER.MOBILE.OLEDB.3.0 MyConnObj.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=c:\test.sdf" MyConnObj.Open Maybe this is just a bad choice of providers? I also tried the providers that appear as comments above and different connection strings, but to no avail. Both providers are not installed on my dev machine and won't be installed on my customer's machine. 3) Maybe there is a way to use a more generic approach like ODBC? But I believe this would result in setup / deployment work, right? Does anyone have any experience with this scenario? As you can see, I am really looking for some good starting points. I also accept answers like "This is drop dead simple and so are you" as long as they come with some guiding directions ;-)

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  • Steps to Investigate Cause of Web.Config Duplicate Section

    - by pauly
    Symptoms In IIS Dot Net 2.0 Integrated app pool: double clicking to view any web.config section results in a the following error dialog. "There was an error while performing this operation.... Fielname... web.config... Error: There is a duplicate..." Browsing to the URL displays: "Http 500.19" internal server error.. There is a duplicate... 'system.web.extensions/scripting/scriptResourceHandler' section defined...." Running the app from VS 2008 an "Unable to start debugging on the web server..." dialog is displayed. Things Tried Looked at other application directories on same IIS server. No problem view web.config contents or serving up the app. Removed and re-added the application in IIS. Checked out a new version of the source code. Reverted to prior versions of the web.config file. Looked for web.config files that might have duplicate sections in: Inetpub root. "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config" The "Views" subfolder of the ASP.Net MVC app. Checked out source code to another dev machine. Setup IIS 7 app folder. No problem with Web.config. Question If the reason for this error is another web.config file where else should I look? Are there other reasons for these symptoms?

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  • Unknown user 'app' with capistrano

    - by trobrock
    This is my first time trying to set up capistrano to deploy a rails application. I am deploying from my local machine to my remote server that has the repo, web, app, and mysql servers all on the same machine. I am following this walk through: http://www.capify.org/index.php/From_The_Beginning I get to the command cap deploy:start Then I get this error: *** [err :: example.com] sudo: unknown user: app command finished failed: "sh -c 'cd /var/www/example/current && sudo -p '\\''sudo password: '\\'' -u app nohup script/spin'" on example.com Am I supposed to add an 'app' user, or is there a way of changing what user the command runs as? This is my deploy.rb: set :application, "example" set :repository, "[email protected]:example.git" set :user, "trobrock" set :branch, 'master' set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example" set :scm, :git # Or: `accurev`, `bzr`, `cvs`, `darcs`, `git`, `mercurial`, `perforce`, `subversion` or `none` role :web, "example.com" # Your HTTP server, Apache/etc role :app, "example.com" # This may be the same as your `Web` server role :db, "example.com", :primary => true # This is where Rails migrations will run And obviously everywhere it says example.com is my servers hostname and every it just says example is the app name.

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  • Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

    - by user30997
    I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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  • What does flushing thread local memory to global memory mean?

    - by Jack Griffith
    Hi, I am aware that the purpose of volatile variables in Java is that writes to such variables are immediately visible to other threads. I am also aware that one of the effects of a synchronized block is to flush thread-local memory to global memory. I have never fully understood the references to 'thread-local' memory in this context. I understand that data which only exists on the stack is thread-local, but when talking about objects on the heap my understanding becomes hazy. I was hoping that to get comments on the following points: When executing on a machine with multiple processors, does flushing thread-local memory simply refer to the flushing of the CPU cache into RAM? When executing on a uniprocessor machine, does this mean anything at all? If it is possible for the heap to have the same variable at two different memory locations (each accessed by a different thread), under what circumstances would this arise? What implications does this have to garbage collection? How aggressively do VMs do this kind of thing? Overall, I think am trying to understand whether thread-local means memory that is physically accessible by only one CPU or if there is logical thread-local heap partitioning done by the VM? Any links to presentations or documentation would be immensely helpful. I have spent time researching this, and although I have found lots of nice literature, I haven't been able to satisfy my curiosity regarding the different situations & definitions of thread-local memory. Thanks very much.

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  • Getting started with massive data

    - by Max
    I'm a math guy and occasionally do some statistics/machine learning analysis consulting projects on the side. The data I have access to are usually on the smaller side, at most a couple hundred of megabytes (and almost always far less), but I want to learn more about handling and analyzing data on the gigabyte/terabyte scale. What do I need to know and what are some good resources to learn from? Hadoop/MapReduce is one obvious start. Is there a particular programming language I should pick up? (I primarily work now in Python, Ruby, R, and occasionally Java, but it seems like C and Clojure are often used for large-scale data analysis?) I'm not really familiar with the whole NoSQL movement, except that it's associated with big data. What's a good place to learn about it, and is there a particular implementation (Cassandra, CouchDB, etc.) I should get familiar with? Where can I learn about applying machine learning algorithms to huge amounts of data? My math background is mostly on the theory side, definitely not on the numerical or approximation side, and I'm guessing most of the standard ML algorithms don't really scale. Any other suggestions on things to learn would be great!

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  • Java OutOfMemoryError message changes when trying to create Arrays of different sizes

    - by Gordon
    In the question by DKSRathore How to simulate the Out Of memory : Requested array size exceeds VM limit some odd behavior was noted when creating an arrays. When creating an array of size Integer.MAX_VALUE an exception with the error java.lang.OutOfMemoryError Requested array size exceeds VM limit was thrown. However when an array was created with a size less than the max but still above the virtual machine memory limit the error message read java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space. Testing further I managed to narrow down where the error messages changes. long[] l = new long[2147483645]; exceptions message reads - Requested array size exceeds VM limit long[] l = new long[2147483644]; exceptions message reads - Java heap space errors I increased my virtual machine memory and still produced the same result. Has anyone any idea why this happens? Some extra info: Integer.MAX_VALUE = 2147483647. Edit: Here's the code I used to find the value, might be helpful. int max = Integer.MAX_VALUE; boolean done = false; while (!done) { try { max--; // Throws an error long[] l = new long[max]; // Exit if an error is no longer thrown done = true; } catch (OutOfMemoryError e) { if (!e.getMessage().contains("Requested array size exceeds VM limit")) { System.out.println("Message changes at " + max); done = true; } } }

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  • How to allow the user to select an input file for my SQL AdventureWorks web application?

    - by salvationishere
    I have a SQL and VS 2008 web application that I need to capture the full file path (directories and file name) from the selected file on the client computer. So user selects a file and then clicks on one of the buttons which transfers control to my code for processing. So how do I get its file path? I can get the file name, but not the path. Maybe problem is that while testing this web app, I am using the server instead of client machine. And I learned that on a server you cannot read the full file path due to security concerns. Is this true? If I just want this to work on client machine, which method/class do you recommend? And then how can I test it? My web app allows the user to select an input file and then map columns from the input .MDF file with columns from the selected Adventureworks table. Finally, after they click on the "Append" button, it adds rows from the input file to that table. So I want to capture the path info after they click this button.

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  • C++ error: expected initializer before ‘&’ token

    - by Werner
    Hi, the following piece of C++ code compiled two years ago in a suse 10.1 Linux machine. #ifndef DATA_H #define DATA_H #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> inline double sqr(double x) { return x*x; } enum Direction { X,Y,Z }; inline Direction next(const Direction d) { switch(d) { case X: return Y; case Y: return Z; case Z: return X; } } inline ostream& operator<<(ostream& os,const Direction d) { switch(d) { case X: return os << "X"; case Y: return os << "Y"; case Z: return os << "Z"; } } ... ... Now, I am trying to compile it on Ubuntu 9.10 and I get the error: data.h:20: error: expected initializer before ‘&’ token which is referred to the line of: inline ostream& operator<<(ostream& os,const Direction d) the g++ used on this machine is: Using built-in specs. Target: x86_64-linux-gnu Configured with: ../src/configure -v --with-pkgversion='Ubuntu 4.4.1-4ubuntu9' --with-bugurl=file:///usr/share/doc/gcc-4.4/README.Bugs --enable-languages=c,c++,fortran,objc,obj-c++ --prefix=/usr --enable-shared --enable-multiarch --enable-linker-build-id --with-system-zlib --libexecdir=/usr/lib --without-included-gettext --enable-threads=posix --with-gxx-include-dir=/usr/include/c++/4.4 --program-suffix=-4.4 --enable-nls --enable-clocale=gnu --enable-libstdcxx-debug --enable-objc-gc --disable-werror --with-arch-32=i486 --with-tune=generic --enable-checking=release --build=x86_64-linux-gnu --host=x86_64-linux-gnu --target=x86_64-linux-gnu Thread model: posix gcc version 4.4.1 (Ubuntu 4.4.1-4ubuntu9) Could you give me some hint about this error? Thanks

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  • The worker processcalls OpenSubKey but returns null by accessing Remote Registry service.

    - by Cary
    My web server is deployed in IIS 6. The web server starts the Remote Registry service in the remote machine successfully by creating a process to run some remote operation commands. This first line runs successfully. But the second line returns null. #1 RegistryKey remoteRegKey = RegistryKey.OpenRemoteBaseKey(RegistryHive.LocalMachine, "139.24.185.27"); #2 RegistryKey targetKey = remoteRegKey.OpenSubKey(@"SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\XXXX\XXXX\Config\Modality", true); I tried to find the reason from MSDN. It tells only one case it would return null. The case is when the subkey does not exist. If it has not enough permission, it will throw exception. But the subkey really exists. I change another machine to debug my code with Visual Studio 2008. It can run two lines successfully. If it has enough permission, it should not only can open the LocalMachine, but also can open any of its subkeys. I am quite confusing about this.

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  • Playing wave file ends immediatly (C++, Windows)

    - by TyBoer
    I've got a following situation. On a machine there is a Fritz ISDN card. There is a process that is responsible for playing a certain wave file on this device's wave out (ISDN connection is made at startup and made persistent). The scenario is easy, whenever needed the process calls waveOutWrite() on the previously opened wave device (everything initialized without any problems of course) and a callback function waits for MMWOMDONE msg to know that the playback has been finished. Since a few days however (nothing changed neither in the process nor the machine) the MMWOMDONE message comes immediately after calling waveOutWrite() even though the wave lasts a couple of seconds. Again no error is reported, it looks like the file was played but had zero length (which is not the case). I am also sure that waveOutReset() was not called by my process (it would also trigger sending the mentioned message). I already used to have some strange problems in the past that where solved simply by reinstalling TAPI drivers. This time for some reason it is problematic form me to perform that once again and am trying more analytical approach :). Any suggestions what might cause such a behavior? Maybe sth on the other end of the ISDN line?

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

    - by Jay Stevens
    We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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  • WPF deployment strategy dilemma.clickonce(limited customization)+autoupdate vs installer(unlimited c

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts!!! I've been facing a deployment problem.I've built a WPF application with visual studio 2008 and created an installer(msi) which works fine.But then it's pain to add automatic update to it. i've seen this article at windowsclient.net but it seems to be pretty old but could have been the perfect thing for me.Then i looked at the .Net Application updater block v2.0 which uses enterprise library june 2005 and for some reason it's not installing on my machine. I thought i will need to use a more recent Enterprise library so i installed and compiled Enterprise 4.1(october 2008) but nothing better happened.To i decided to give a try to CLickonce deployment.After struggling with it, it was almost perfect.I realized that when i was testing the updates provided by the clickonce on my machine which is XP i didn't notice the need of having sqlite dll in the GAC. surely it was already there.I noticed it when i moved to vista that there is a problem.After checking the net i know it's impossible to add a dll to the Global Assembly Cache. Now i'm stuck, i think i've hit a wall.Can any one share some of his experience? I'm willing to try the updater block if i can get help. Thanks for reading this!!

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  • Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

    - by David Gutierrez
    Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

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  • How to get current datetime on windows command line, in a suitable format for using in a filename?

    - by Rory
    What's a windows command line statement(s) I can use to get the current datetime in a format that I can put into a filename? I want to have a .bat file that zips up a directory into an archive with the current date & time as part of the name, eg "Code_2008-10-14_2257.zip". Is there any easy way I can do this, independent of the regional settings of the machine? I don't really mind about the date format, ideally it'd be yyyy-mm-dd but anything simple is fine. So far I've got this, which on my machine gives me "Tue_10_14_2008_230050_91" rem Get the datetime in a format that can go in a filename. set _my_datetime=%date%_%time% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime: =_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime::=% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:/=_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:.=_% rem now use the timestamp by in a new zip file name "d:\Program Files\7-Zip\7z.exe" a -r Code_%_my_datetime%.zip Code I can live with this but it seems a bit clunky. Ideally it'd be briefer and have the format mentioned earlier. I'm using Windows Server 2003 and Win XP Pro. I don't want to install additional utilities to achieve this (although I realise there are some that will do nice date formatting).

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  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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  • In browser trusted application Silverlight 5

    - by Philippe
    With the new Silverlight 5, we can now have a In-Browser elevated-trust application. However, I'm experiencing some problems to deploy the application. When I am testing the application from Visual Studio, everything works fine because it automatically gives every right if the website is hosted on the local machine (localhost, 127.0.0.1). I saw on MSDN that I have to follow 3 steps to make it work on any website: Signed the XAP - I did it following the Microsoft tutorial Install the Trusted publishers certificate store - I did it too following the Microsoft Tutorial Adding a Registry key with the value : AllowElevatedTrustAppsInBrowser. The third step is the one I am the most unsure about. Do we need to add this registry key on the local machine or on the server ? Is there any automatic function in silverlight to add this key or its better to make a batchfile? Even with those 3 steps, the application is still not working when called from another url than localhost. Does anybody has successfully implemented a In-browser elevated-trust application? Do you see what I'm doing wrong? Thank you very much! Philippe, Sources: - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg192793(v=VS.96).aspx - http://pitorque.de/MisterGoodcat/post/Silverlight-5-Tidbits-Trusted-applications.aspx

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  • How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

    - by Bounded
    Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

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  • Rails NoMethodError in loop when method exists

    - by Kevin Whitaker
    Good day all. I'm running into a bit of a problem getting a script running on my production environment, even though it works just fine on my dev box. I've verified that all the requisite gems and such are the same version. I should mention that the script is intended to be run with the script/runner command. Here is a super-condensed version of what I'm trying to do, centered around the part that's broken: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end markets = Market.find(all) markets.each do |market| deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject end Now convertToTimeZone is a method attached to the model. So, this code works just fine on my dev machine, as stated. However, attempting to run it on my production machine results in: undefined method `subject' for nil:NilClass (NoMethodError) If, however, I go into the console on the production box and do this: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end market = Market.find(1) deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject It returns the correct value, no problem. So what is going on? This is on rails v 2.3.5, on both machines. Thanks for any help

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  • How can we serialize a class that is not a custom class of our own?

    - by Doug
    I need to look at the properties of an object and I cannot instantiate this object in the proper state on my dev machine. I need my client to run some code on her machine, serialize the object in question to disk and then I can analyze the file. Here is the class I want to serialize. System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity Here is my code: Private Sub SerializeRegSecurity(ByVal regKey As RegistryKey) Try Dim regSecurity As System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity = regKey.GetAccessControl() Dim oXS As XmlSerializer = New XmlSerializer(GetType(System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity)) Dim oStmW As StreamWriter Dim regDebugFilePath As String = Path.Combine(My.Computer.FileSystem.SpecialDirectories.Desktop, "RegDebugFile.xml") 'Serialize object to XML and write it to XML file oStmW = New StreamWriter(regDebugFilePath) oXS.Serialize(oStmW, regSecurity) oStmW.Close() Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub And here's what I end up with in my XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> Any ideas on how to accomplish what I am trying to do? How can we serialize a class that is not a custom class of our own? Thanks for ANY help. Even an alternate method.

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