Search Results

Search found 6328 results on 254 pages for 'anonymous person'.

Page 28/254 | < Previous Page | 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35  | Next Page >

  • Increasing speed of python code

    - by Curious2learn
    Hi, I have some python code that has many classes. I used cProfile to find that the total time to run the program is 68 seconds. I found that the following function in a class called Buyers takes about 60 seconds of those 68 seconds. I have to run the program about 100 times, so any increase in speed will help. Can you suggest ways to increase the speed by modifying the code? If you need more information that will help, please let me know. def qtyDemanded(self, timePd, priceVector): '''Returns quantity demanded in period timePd. In addition, also updates the list of customers and non-customers. Inputs: timePd and priceVector Output: count of people for whom priceVector[-1] < utility ''' ## Initialize count of customers to zero ## Set self.customers and self.nonCustomers to empty lists price = priceVector[-1] count = 0 self.customers = [] self.nonCustomers = [] for person in self.people: if person.utility >= price: person.customer = 1 self.customers.append(person) else: person.customer = 0 self.nonCustomers.append(person) return len(self.customers) self.people is a list of person objects. Each person has customer and utility as its attributes. EDIT - responsed added ------------------------------------- Thanks so much for the suggestions. Here is the response to some questions and suggestions people have kindly made. I have not tried them all, but will try others and write back later. (1) @amber - the function is accessed 80,000 times. (2) @gnibbler and others - self.people is a list of Person objects in memory. Not connected to a database. (3) @Hugh Bothwell cumtime taken by the original function - 60.8 s (accessed 80000 times) cumtime taken by the new function with local function aliases as suggested - 56.4 s (accessed 80000 times) (4) @rotoglup and @Martin Thomas I have not tried your solutions yet. I need to check the rest of the code to see the places where I use self.customers before I can make the change of not appending the customers to self.customers list. But I will try this and write back. (5) @TryPyPy - thanks for your kind offer to check the code. Let me first read a little on the suggestions you have made to see if those will be feasible to use. EDIT 2 Some suggested that since I am flagging the customers and noncustomers in the self.people, I should try without creating separate lists of self.customers and self.noncustomers using append. Instead, I should loop over the self.people to find the number of customers. I tried the following code and timed both functions below f_w_append and f_wo_append. I did find that the latter takes less time, but it is still 96% of the time taken by the former. That is, it is a very small increase in the speed. @TryPyPy - The following piece of code is complete enough to check the bottleneck function, in case your offer is still there to check it with other compilers. Thanks again to everyone who replied. import numpy class person(object): def __init__(self, util): self.utility = util self.customer = 0 class population(object): def __init__(self, numpeople): self.people = [] self.cus = [] self.noncus = [] numpy.random.seed(1) utils = numpy.random.uniform(0, 300, numpeople) for u in utils: per = person(u) self.people.append(per) popn = population(300) def f_w_append(): '''Function with append''' P = 75 cus = [] noncus = [] for per in popn.people: if per.utility >= P: per.customer = 1 cus.append(per) else: per.customer = 0 noncus.append(per) return len(cus) def f_wo_append(): '''Function without append''' P = 75 for per in popn.people: if per.utility >= P: per.customer = 1 else: per.customer = 0 numcustomers = 0 for per in popn.people: if per.customer == 1: numcustomers += 1 return numcustomers

    Read the article

  • How to access method variables from within an anonymous function in JavaScript?

    - by Hussain
    I'm writing a small ajax class for personal use. In the class, I have a "post" method for sending post requests. The post method has a callback parameter. In the onreadystatechange propperty, I need to call the callback method. Something like this: this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(this.responseText); } However, I can't access the callback variable from within the anonomous function. How can I bring the callback variable into the scope of the onreadystatechange anonomous function? edit: Here's the full code so far: function request() { this.initialize = function(errorHandeler) { try { try { this.requestObject = new XDomainRequest(); } catch(e) { try { this.requestObject = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e) { try { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); //newer versions of IE5+ } catch (e) { this.requestObject = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); //older versions of IE5+ } } } } catch(e) { errorHandeler(); } } this.post = function(url,data) { var response;var escapedData = ""; if (typeof data == 'object') { for (i in data) { escapedData += escape(i)+'='+escape(data[i])+'&'; } escapedData = escapedData.substr(0,escapedData.length-1); } else { escapedData = escape(data); } this.requestObject.open('post',url,true); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Content-length", data.length); this.requestObject.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); this.requestObject.onreadystatechange = function() { if (this.readyState == 4) { // call callback function } } this.requestObject.send(data); }

    Read the article

  • how can I override an anonymous javascript function attached to an eventlistener?

    - by Sid
    I found that a website does somewhat sneaky things. When you hover over a link, it shows you the real URL. WHen you click on it, it uses the click/mousedown event to rewrite the URL. I want to override that behaviour in firefox, So I fired up firebug to see what it does. On a mouse click, it executes a function called window.tgs. Easy, I thought. I can override this function. My first attempt was to do get the element via getELementsByTagName(), and then element.removeEventListener("click",window.tgs, false); To my surprise, this did nothing. I tried redefining window.tgs window.tgs = function() { return true; }; that did not do anything either. I am not a JS expert. Your insights appreciated thanks Sid

    Read the article

  • What's a reasonable way to mutate a primitive variable from an anonymous Java class?

    - by Steve
    I would like to write the following code: boolean found = false; search(new SearchCallback() { @Override void onFound(Object o) { found = true; } }); Obviously this is not allowed, since found needs to be final. I can't make found a member field for thread-safety reasons. What is the best alternative? One workaround is to define final class MutableReference<T> { private T value; MutableReference(T value) { this.value = value; } T get() { return value; } void set(T value) { this.value = value; } } but this ends up taking a lot of space when formatted properly, and I'd rather not reinvent the wheel if at all possible. I could use a List<Boolean> with a single element (either mutating that element, or else emptying the list) or even a Boolean[1]. But everything seems to smell funny, since none of the options are being used as they were intended. What is a reasonable way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Is there a downside to adding an anonymous empty delegate on event declaration?

    - by serg10
    I have seen a few mentions of this idiom (including on SO): // Deliberately empty subscriber public event EventHandler AskQuestion = delegate {}; The upside is clear - it avoids the need to check for null before raising the event. However, I am keen to understand if there are any downsides. For example, is it something that is in widespread use and is transparent enough that it won't cause a maintenance headache? Is there any appreciable performance hit of the empty event subscriber call?

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to pass an anonymous array as an argument in C++?

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I'd like to be able to declare an array as a function argument in C++, as shown in the example code below (which doesn't compile). Is there any way to do this (other than declaring the array separately beforehand)? #include <stdio.h> static void PrintArray(int arrayLen, const int * array) { for (int i=0; i<arrayLen; i++) printf("%i -> %i\n", i, array[i]); } int main(int, char **) { PrintArray(5, {5,6,7,8,9} ); // doesn't compile return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Do I need to specify a return type for an anonymous function in javascript / typescript?

    - by Anne
    I have the following function: $('td:eq(' + iColumn + ') input', oSettings.oApi._fnGetTrNodes(oSettings)) .each(function () { aData.push(this.value); }); In typescript I am getting a message saying: Error 3 Function declared a non-void return type, but has no return expression Why am I getting this message? I can resolve the message by saying "return true". Should I always specify a return type for this?

    Read the article

  • Why does this anonymous function starting with println result in a NullPointerException?

    - by noahz
    I am learning about pmap and wrote the following function: (pmap #((println "hello from " (-> (Thread/currentThread) .getName)) (+ %1 %2)) [1 1 1] [-1 -1 -1]) When run, the result is a NullPointerException (hello from clojure-agent-send-off-pool-4 hello from clojure-agent-send-off-pool-3 hello from clojure-agent-send-off-pool-5 NullPointerException user/eval55/fn--56 (NO_SOURCE_FILE:11) Why is this happening? I have understood and observed the body of a fn to be an implicit do.

    Read the article

  • Drupal menu item disappears for Anonymous User, I dont want that happening!

    - by Busk
    Good day I'm using Drupal 6, and I have a menu item that points to a Forum page. I only want the forums accesible by registered users, but if they aren't logged in/registered I want drupal to display a login/register page. Im using a 403redirect module to handle that, and that is fine. My problem is, I have the menu item pointing to /forum. And when I'm not logged in, the menu item disappears. How can I stop that from happening? Thanks

    Read the article

  • referencing part of the composite primary key

    - by Zavael
    I have problems with setting the reference on database table. I have following structure: CREATE TABLE club( id INTEGER NOT NULL, name_short VARCHAR(30), name_full VARCHAR(70) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX club_uix ON club(id); ALTER TABLE club ADD CONSTRAINT club_pk PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE team( id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_name VARCHAR(30) ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX team_uix ON team(id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD CONSTRAINT team_pk PRIMARY KEY (id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); CREATE TABLE person( id INTEGER NOT NULL, first_name VARCHAR(20), last_name VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX person_uix ON person(id); ALTER TABLE person ADD PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE contract( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, wage INTEGER ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX contract_uix on contract(person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD CONSTRAINT contract_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); CREATE TABLE player( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_id INTEGER, height SMALLINT, weight SMALLINT ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX player_uix on player(person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD CONSTRAINT player_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); -- ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id); --this is not working It gives me this error: Error code -5529, SQL state 42529: a UNIQUE constraint does not exist on referenced columns: TEAM in statement [ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id)] As you can see, team table has composite primary key (club_id + id), the person references club through contract. Person has some common attributes for player and other staff types. One club can have multiple teams. Employed person has to have a contract with a club. Player (is the specification of person) - if emplyed - can be assigned to one of the club's teams. Is there better way to design my structure? I thought about excluding the club_id from team's primary key, but I would like to know if this is the only way. Thanks. UPDATE 1 I would like to have the id as team identification only within the club, so multiple teams can have equal id as long as they belong to different clubs. Is it possible? UPDATE 2 updated the naming convention as adviced by philip Some business rules to better understand the structure: One club can have 1..n teams (Main squad, Reserve squad, Youth squad or Team A, Team B... only team can play match, not club) One team belongs to one club only A player is type of person (other types (staff) are scouts, coaches etc so they do not need to belong to specific team, just to the club, if employed) Person can have 0..1 contract with 1 club (that means he is employed or unemployed) Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club Now thinking about it - moving team_id from player to contract would solve my problem, and it could hold the condition "Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club", but it would be redundant for other staff types. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • How to pass an anonymous array of strings to a JavaScript function?

    - by abatishchev
    I want to pass to an array of controls' IDs to a javascript script function so it will switch control's enable state. For example, in C# it would be like this: func(false, new[] { "Control1", "Control2", "Control3" }); In that function I want to find corresponding controls and disable/enable them. For one control I do this next way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function switchControls(value, arr) { for (var n = 0; n < array.length; n++) document.getElementById(n).disabled = value; } </script> <asp:CheckBox runat="server" onclick="switchControls(this.checked, [ '<%= Control1.ClientID %>', '<%= Control2.ClientID %>' ])" Text="Take?" /> How to implement this properly? Have I to use jQuery?

    Read the article

  • Reference properteries declared in a protocol and implemented in the anonymous category?

    - by Heath Borders
    I have the following protocol: @protocol MyProtocol @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myProtocolProperty; -(void) myProtocolMethod; @end and I have the following class: @interface MyClass : NSObject { } @end I have a class extension declared, I have to redeclare my protocol properties here or else I can't implement them with the rest of my class. @interface()<MyProtocol> @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myExtensionProperty; /* * This redeclaration is required or my @synthesize myProtocolProperty fails */ @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myProtocolProperty; - (void) myExtensionMethod; @end @implementation MyClass @synthesize myProtocolProperty = _myProtocolProperty; @synthesize myExtensionProperty = _myExtensionProperty; - (void) myProtocolMethod { } - (void) myExtensionMethod { } @end In a consumer method, I can call my protocol methods and properties just fine. Calling my extension methods and properties produces a warning and an error respectively. - (void) consumeMyClassWithMyProtocol: (MyClass<MyProtocol> *) myClassWithMyProtocol { myClassWithMyProtocol.myProtocolProperty; // works, yay! [myClassWithMyProtocol myProtocolMethod]; // works, yay! myClassWithMyProtocol.myExtensionProperty; // compiler error, yay! [myClassWithMyProtocol myExtensionMethod]; // compiler warning, yay! } Is there any way I can avoid redeclaring the properties in MyProtocol within my class extension in order to implement MyProtocol privately?

    Read the article

  • WCF service with Factory attribute on .svc is not working on web server (IIS6), but is locally using

    - by Jessica
    I am working on implementing a non web.config approach of WCF services using the factory attribute on the .svc file per Rick Strahl's blog post: Factory="System.ServiceModel.Activation.WebScriptServiceHostFactory" Locally, I am running IIS7 in Visual Studio 2008 and have no problem, but when I deploy to my web server (currently running IIS6), I am getting an authentication error in the event log: Exception: System.ServiceModel.ServiceActivationException: The service '/Services/ResourcesService.svc' cannot be activated due to an exception during compilation. The exception message is: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used.. --- System.InvalidOperationException: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.SetBindingCredentialBasedOnHostedEnvironment(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, AuthenticationSchemes supportedSchemes) at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.AddAutomaticWebHttpBindingEndpoints(ServiceHost host, IDictionary`2 implementedContracts, String multipleContractsErrorMessage) at System.ServiceModel.WebScriptServiceHost.OnOpening() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) After doing some Googling, I changed my authentication settings on the .svc folder within my project (on the server) to only anonymous authentication, but it did not work. I still get web service failed on the calls. IIS7 by default only had anonymous. I do not have any entries in my web.config for the services (I stripped them out per this pattern). I am using a nant script to deploy the website to the server and use this also locally to verify the script was not causing the issue. Any known issue with this? IIS 6 not able to handle?

    Read the article

  • Why does this MySQL function return null?

    - by Shore
    Description: the query actually run have 4 results returned,as can be see from below, what I did is just concate the items then return, but unexpectedly,it's null. I think the code is self-explanatory: DELIMITER | DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS get_idiscussion_ask| CREATE FUNCTION get_idiscussion_ask(iask_id INT UNSIGNED) RETURNS TEXT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE body varchar(600); DECLARE created DATETIME; DECLARE anonymous TINYINT(1); DECLARE screen_name varchar(64); DECLARE result TEXT; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=iask_id; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET done = 1; SET result = ''; OPEN cur1; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO body, created, anonymous, screen_name; SET result = CONCAT(result,'<comment><body><![CDATA[',body,']]></body>','<replier>',if(screen_name is not null and !anonymous,screen_name,''),'</replier>','<created>',created,'</created></comment>'); UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; RETURN result; END | DELIMITER ; mysql> DELIMITER ; mysql> select get_idiscussion_ask(1); +------------------------+ | get_idiscussion_ask(1) | +------------------------+ | NULL | +------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) mysql> SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=1; +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | body | created | anonymous | screen_name | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:51 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:53 | 0 | NULL | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ 4 rows in set (0.00 sec) For those who don't think the code is self-explanatory: Why the function returns NULL?

    Read the article

  • WPF DataGrid AutoColumn generation via ICustomTypeDescriptor.

    - by panamack
    In a test project I've managed to AutoGenerate WPF DataGrid columns in the following scenario, where the data is stored in a Dictionary and binding is performed via PropertyDescriptors: public class People:List<Person>{ ... } public class Person:Dictionary<string,string>,INotifyPropertyChanged,ICustomTypeDescriptor { } The problem I'm having is in my real life project I'm using MVVM so it's *People*ViewModel which inherits ViewModelBase and hence can't inherit List<Person>. I've tried implementing IList<Person> instead with an internal List<Person> and explicitly setting the DataContext to an IList<Person> reference but that didn't work. I've seen a similar post on binding a win forms DataGridView here, so I'm wondering if the same sort of logic applies in WPF and primarily, what exactly causes the ICustomTypeDescriptor implementation to be picked up when inheriting List<T> that is missing when you simply implement IList<T> instead.

    Read the article

  • iPhone Objective C - error: pointer value used where a floating point value was expected

    - by Mausimo
    I do not understand why i am getting this error. Here is the related code: Photo.h #import <CoreData/CoreData.h> @class Person; @interface Photo : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData * imageData; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * Latitude; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * ImageName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * ImagePath; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * Longitude; @property (nonatomic, retain) Person * PhotoToPerson; @end Photo.m #import "Photo.h" #import "Person.h" @implementation Photo @dynamic imageData; @dynamic Latitude; @dynamic ImageName; @dynamic ImagePath; @dynamic Longitude; @dynamic PhotoToPerson; @end This is a mapViewController.m class i have created. If i run this, the CLLocationDegrees CLLat and CLLong lines: CLLocationDegrees CLLat = (CLLocationDegrees)photo.Latitude; CLLocationDegrees CLLong = (CLLocationDegrees)photo.Longitude; give me the error : pointer value used where a floating point value was expected. for(int i = 0; i < iPerson; i++) { //get the person that corresponds to the row indexPath that is currently being rendered and set the text Person * person = (Person *)[myArrayPerson objectAtIndex:i]; //get the photos associated with the person NSArray * PhotoArray = [person.PersonToPhoto allObjects]; int iPhoto = [PhotoArray count]; for(int j = 0; j < iPhoto; j++) { //get the first photo (all people will have atleast 1 photo, else they will not exist). Set the image Photo * photo = (Photo *)[PhotoArray objectAtIndex:j]; if(photo.Latitude != nil && photo.Longitude != nil) { MyAnnotation *ann = [[MyAnnotation alloc] init]; ann.title = photo.ImageName; ann.subtitle = photo.ImageName; CLLocationCoordinate2D cord; CLLocationDegrees CLLat = (CLLocationDegrees)photo.Latitude; CLLocationDegrees CLLong = (CLLocationDegrees)photo.Longitude; cord.latitude = CLLat; cord.longitude = CLLong; ann.coordinate = cord; [mkMapView addAnnotation:ann]; } } }

    Read the article

  • Android Bind Spinner to Class

    - by drbob
    I'm having some trouble with the Spinner widget. Given the following code: ArrayList<Person> people= new ArrayList<Person>(); Person = null; for(int i = 0; i!= 10; i++) { p = new Person(); s.setID(i); s.setName("Name " + i); people.add(s); } I'm using the following code to bind it to a Spinner: Spinner spinner1 = (Spinner) findViewById (R.id.spinner); ArrayAdapter<Person> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<Person>(this, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item, people); spinner1.setAdapter(adapter); What I would like is for the value (id) to be hidden but passed when selected, and the name to appear. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Maintaining both sides of self-referential many-to-many relationship in Grails domain object

    - by Ali G
    I'm having some problems getting a many-to-many relationship working in grails. Is there anything obviously wrong with the following: class Person { static hasMany = [friends: Person] static mappedBy = [friends: 'friends'] String name List friends = [] String toString() { return this.name } } class BootStrap { def init = { servletContext -> Person bob = new Person(name: 'bob').save() Person jaq = new Person(name: 'jaq').save() jaq.friends << bob println "Bob's friends: ${bob.friends}" println "Jaq's friends: ${jaq.friends}" } } I'd expect Bob to be friends with Jaq and vice-versa, but I get the following output at startup: Running Grails application.. Bob's friends: [] Jaq's friends: [Bob] (I'm using Grails 1.2.0)

    Read the article

  • How to join dynamic sql statement in variable with normal statement

    - by Oliver
    I have a quite complicated query which will by built up dynamically and is saved in a variable. As second part i have another normal query and i'd like to make an inner join between these both. To make it a little more easier here is a little example to illustrate my problem. For this little example i used the AdventureWorks database. Some query built up dynamically (Yes, i know here is nothing dynamic here, cause it's just an example.) DECLARE @query AS varchar(max) ; set @query = ' select HumanResources.Employee.EmployeeID ,HumanResources.Employee.LoginID ,HumanResources.Employee.Title ,HumanResources.EmployeeAddress.AddressID from HumanResources.Employee inner join HumanResources.EmployeeAddress on HumanResources.Employee.EmployeeID = HumanResources.EmployeeAddress.EmployeeID ;'; EXEC (@query); The normal query i have select Person.Address.AddressID ,Person.Address.City from Person.Address Maybe what i'd like to have but doesn't work select @query.* ,Addresses.City from @query as Employees inner join ( select Person.Address.AddressID ,Person.Address.City from Person.Address ) as Addresses on Employees.AddressID = Addresses.AddressID

    Read the article

  • JAXB: @XmlTransient on third-party or external super class

    - by Phil
    Hi, I need some help regarding the following issue with JAXB 2.1. Sample: I've created a SpecialPerson class that extends a abstract class Person. Now I want to transform my object structure into a XML schema using JAXB. Thereby I don't want the Person XML type to appear in my XML schema to keep the schema simple. Instead I want the fields of the Person class to appear in the SpecialPerson XML type. Normally I would add the annotation @XmlTransient on class level into the Person code. The problem is that Person is a third-party class and I have no possibility to add @XmlTransient here. How can I tell JAXB that it should ignore the Person class without annotating the class. Is it possible to configure this externally somehow? Have you had the same problem before? Any ideas what the best solution for this problem would be?

    Read the article

  • Linq query challenge

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

    Read the article

  • Why are getters prefixed with the word "get"?

    - by Joey
    Generally speaking, creating a fluid API is something that makes all programmers happy; Both for the creators who write the interface, and the consumers who program against it. Looking beyond conventions, why is it that we prefix all our getters with the word "get". Omitting it usually results in a more fluid, easy to read set of instructions, which ultimately leads to happiness (however small or passive). Consider this very simple example. (pseudo code) Conventional: person = new Person("Joey") person.getName().toLower().print() Alternative: person = new Person("Joey") person.name().toLower().print() Of course this only applies to languages where getters/setters are the norm, but is not directed at any specific language. Were these conventions developed around technical limitations (disambiguation), or simply through the pursuit of a more explicit, intentional feeling type of interface, or perhaps this is just a case of trickle a down norm. What are your thoughts? And how would simple changes to these conventions impact your happiness / daily attitudes towards your craft (however minimal). Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35  | Next Page >