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  • Error while trying to configure VLAN with Open vSwitch

    - by Abhishek Chanda
    I am trying to connect a number of VMs using Open vSwitch. The VMs are on two separate physical boxes. Here is what I did: Created two tap devices on one physical host sudo ip tuntap add mode tap tap0 and same for tap1 Bring them up sudo ip link set tap0 up Add them as ports to Open vSwitch (br0 was created as a OVS bridge previously) sudo ovs-vsctl add-port br0 tap0 tag=1 Now I booted the VMs (using VirtualBox) and assigned addresses 192.168.122.11 and 192.168.122.12. Now when I try to ping one VM from another, I get the error Connect: network is unreachable. Since both VMs are connected to the switch on the same VLAN, I expect to be able to ping one from another. What is going wrong here?

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  • How switch between screen inside screen?

    - by André Andrade
    I have to work inside two environment. One Windows (local) and one Linux (remote). I've installed the screen linux utility in both. I'm able to open a screen on my windows, then in one tab, I opened a ssh connection to the linux remote and I start another screen. Sample linux -- |0 linux remote 0| 1 linux remote 1 windows-- |0 linux | 9 windows I can switch between "linux remote 0" and "linux remote 1" using Atl+. This is configured in .screenrc (bindkey "^[0" select 0) How could I switch to "9 windows"?

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  • How to troubleshoot slow powerconnect 62xx management interface

    - by Hannes
    Our Dell Powerconnect 62xx switches have a very high packetloss on the management interface. I presume this is caused by a new appliance which uses multicast for communication but I am not sure. Our network setup is following: servers a - Dell PC6248 | servers b - Dell PC6248 |- juniper core router servers c - Dell PC6248 | What we see is that the multicast traffic arrives at all servers (but only the servers b use the multicast) and I fear that this multicast traffic floods the switch management interface. The switches' management interfaces are reachable via vlan101, all other traffic is sent over other vlans. When I tcpdump on one of the 2 servers with a vlan 101 ip address, I only get a few arp requests but almost nothing. When I try to ping between these 2 servers, it works like a charm. I would like to know what a good way is to troubleshoot this problem and maybe help me understand what is going wrong on that subnet.

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  • Network router and switch configuration

    - by gilly3
    Can I put a switch before my router in my home network? Here is a diagram of how I want to set up my network: ________________________________ ________________________________________ | | | | | Cable Access Panel | | Home Office | | _____________ ________ | | _____________ | | | | | | | | | | _________ | | | Cable Modem |--->| Switch |-------------->| Router |____| | | | |_____________| |________| | | |_____________| | Printer | | |______________________/____\____| | / | \ |_________| | ___/_ _\___ | _____/ ____|____ \_____ | | | | | | | | | | | | | | PC1 | | PC2 | | | PC3 | | Ext. HD | | PC4 | | |_____| |_____| | |_____| |_________| |_____| | |________________________________________| The reason I want to do this is because my router is also my wireless access point. My cable modem is located in the far corner of my home where my phone/tv/network access panel is. I'd rather keep the wireless access point in a more central location, but I'm not sure if DHCP will continue to work properly with that configuration. Edit: I'd like to continue to be able to share files and access my networked drive and printer from each computer in the house.

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  • Set 802.1Q tagged port on VLAN1 on Dell PowerConnect switch

    - by Javier
    I'm having big troubles when adding this Dell switch to my network. Here we use several VLANs to segment traffic. All switches (3com and DLink mostly) have configured the same VLANs, most ports are 'untagged' and belong to a single VLAN, except for the ports used to join together the switches (in a star topology), these ports belong to all VLANs and use 802.1Q tags. So far, it works really well. But on this new switch (a Dell PowerConnect 5448), the settings are very different (and confusing). I have configured the same VLANs, an the uplink ports are set in 'general' mode (supposed to be fully 802.1Q compliant), I can set the VLAN membership as 'T' on these ports for all VLANs except VLAN 1. It always stay as 'U' on VLAN 1. Any ideas?

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  • Multiple IPs from one router

    - by ergoen
    I would like to know if it is possible (and if so, how) to configure a router running dd-wrt (or openwrt) to supply connected devices with two ip addresses. The network looks like this: [Internet] | [Router] | | [Comp1] [Comp2] ... My ISP provides me with enough public IP adresses to give all devices on my network one each. The easiest way to set that up is to just use the router as a switch. This will however lead to problems with some LAN based applications. I would still like to use Samba-shares between the computers as well as a vpn server. What I am looking for basically is if it is possible to use the router as a DHCP server for a local network (let's say giving IP adresses 192.168.1.xx to connected computers) while at the same time passing through public IP addresses to each as well?

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  • Triple head DVI KVM

    - by cat pants
    I am trying to run a Linux desktop and Windows desktop simultaneously with a KVM for maximum productivity. Also running three monitors. I need a KVM that can do 3x DVI @ 1920x1080 + 2x usb (mouse and keyboard) + toslink for two machines. What would you suggest? I ask on here because I have searched quite a bit and have yet to find a KVM with these requirements. (I would be open to something like modifying 3x regular KVMs to control them with one button or similar) Thanks! (I tried posting this question earlier, but it was closed as being "not related to computer hardware or software" ... is a KVM not related to computer hardware or software? I'm pretty sure it is. kvm-switch has been tagged 100 times on here for example.)

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  • How to switch users without entering password, part II

    - by torbengb
    I've got Ubuntu 9.10 with a user account for my wife, and one for myself. "Wake-from-screensaver" should result in "choose user" without having to enter any password. I know how to do that in Windows, but I'm not good with Linux (yet). Part of this was answered in this question which helped me get past the login screen without passwords (after booting, and after choosing "switch user"), but once the screensaver kicks in and I wake it up again, the system does not present the "choose user" screen. Instead, it either turns off the screensaver and presents the desktop of the most recent user, or (if the screensaver is set to lock the screen) prompt for the user's password (which can be handily surpassed by clicking the "switch user" button and choosing the same user again). So, the login ("choose user") screen has been dealt with. How do I make the (any) screensaver return to the login screen at wake, rather than to the current user's desktop? Windows can do this, I'm sure Linux can too - but how?

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  • Hotkey to switch between windows in taskbar order in Windows 7

    - by TheQuickBrownFox
    Is there a hotkey to cycle through open windows in the order that they appear on the taskbar. This should switch windows without additional keypresses. I know of win+T. This shortcut puts focus on the first taskbar icon and allows you to select and display a window with up/down/enter. I would ideally like something like Ctrl+Win+Down to immediately switch to the next window. If not, then is there any way to enable this behaviour on a completely locked down PC where I cannot install software, run executables or edit the registry?

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  • Android 2.1 switch loop JRE 1.7

    - by Defuzer
    Hello how to use switch loop in my android project ? I want to use Android 2.1 I need JRE 1.7, but I want to use Android 2.1 I use loop like this: switch ((CHAR[Math.abs(intGen.nextInt()%2)])) { case "+": result = random2 + random3; break; case "-": result = random2 + random3; break; } LogCat: Cannot switch on a value of type String for source level below 1.7. Only convertible int values or enum variables are permitted

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  • switch vs. if...else if...else

    - by John Hartsock
    Guys I have a couple of questions: Is there a preformance difference in Javascript between a switch statement and an if...else if....else? If so why? Is the behavior of switch and if...else if...else different across browsers? (FireFox, IE, Chrome, Opera, Safari) The reason for asking this question is it seems that I get better preformance on a switch statement with approx 100 cases in Firefox. But in IE it get better preformance with 100 if...else if...else.

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  • C# 4.0 'dynamic' and foreach statement

    - by ControlFlow
    Not long time before I've discovered, that new dynamic keyword doesn't work well with the C#'s foreach statement: using System; sealed class Foo { public struct FooEnumerator { int value; public bool MoveNext() { return true; } public int Current { get { return value++; } } } public FooEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return new FooEnumerator(); } static void Main() { foreach (int x in new Foo()) { Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } foreach (int x in (dynamic)new Foo()) { // :) Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } } } I've expected that iterating over the dynamic variable should work completely as if the type of collection variable is known at compile time. I've discovered that the second loop actually is looked like this when is compiled: foreach (object x in (IEnumerable) /* dynamic cast */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } and every access to the x variable results with the dynamic lookup/cast so C# ignores that I've specify the correct x's type in the foreach statement - that was a bit surprising for me... And also, C# compiler completely ignores that collection from dynamically typed variable may implements IEnumerable<T> interface! The full foreach statement behavior is described in the C# 4.0 specification 8.8.4 The foreach statement article. But... It's perfectly possible to implement the same behavior at runtime! It's possible to add an extra CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag, correct the emmited code to looks like: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) /* dynamic cast with the CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } And add some extra logic to CSharpConvertBinder: Wrap IEnumerable collections and IEnumerator's to IEnumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T>. Wrap collections doesn't implementing Ienumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T> to implement this interfaces. So today foreach statement iterates over dynamic completely different from iterating over statically known collection variable and completely ignores the type information, specified by user. All that results with the different iteration behavior (IEnumarble<T>-implementing collections is being iterated as only IEnumerable-implementing) and more than 150x slowdown when iterating over dynamic. Simple fix will results a much better performance: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) dynamicVariable) { But why I should write code like this? It's very nicely to see that sometimes C# 4.0 dynamic works completely the same if the type will be known at compile-time, but it's very sadly to see that dynamic works completely different where IT CAN works the same as statically typed code. So my question is: why foreach over dynamic works different from foreach over anything else?

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  • Utility to grant admin rights to a user in Windows XP for few hours/days?

    - by user15660
    Hi, I have two accounts on my windows xp home desktop. The default regular user is used for everything and the 2nd user which has admin rights is used only for installations. I do this to avoid malware infestations during web browsing and limited user account is guarding against online threats to a good extend but many programs refuse to run under limited rights like revo uninstaller. many installs i run from limited user by selectin "run as" from right click context menu of the .exe file. but some apps need admin rights for certain. I use "switch user" to go to admin mode and do the install/uninstall. but the admin user has none of my preferences bookmarks setup nor has my locate32 indexing done and ready for fast search Is there a utility which I can use "run as" login in administration login and use that to grant my limited user admin rights for a limited amount of period like few hours or days? Please help. I guess MS might have closed many doors of it for fear of exploitation of the API. are there any?

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  • Utility to grant admin rights to a user in Windows XP for few hours/days?

    - by user15660
    I have two accounts on my windows xp home desktop. The default regular user is used for everything and the 2nd user which has admin rights is used only for installations. I do this to avoid malware infestations during web browsing and limited user account is guarding against online threats to a good extend but many programs refuse to run under limited rights like revo uninstaller. many installs i run from limited user by selectin "run as" from right click context menu of the .exe file. but some apps need admin rights for certain. I use "switch user" to go to admin mode and do the install/uninstall. but the admin user has none of my preferences bookmarks setup nor has my locate32 indexing done and ready for fast search Is there a utility which I can use "run as" login in administration login and use that to grant my limited user admin rights for a limited amount of period like few hours or days? Please help. I guess MS might have closed many doors of it for fear of exploitation of the API. are there any?

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  • Ruby on Rails export to csv - maintain mysql select statement order

    - by zekial
    Exporting some data from mysql to a csv file using FasterCSV. I'd like the columns in the outputted CSV to be in the same order as the select statement in my query. Example: rows = Data.find( :all, :select=>'name, age, height, weight' ) headers = rows[0].attributes.keys FasterCSV.generate do |csv| csv << headers rows.each do |r| csv << r.attributes.values end end CSV Output: height,weight,name,age 74,212,bob,23 70,201,fred,24 . . . I want the CSV columns in the same order as my select statement. Obviously the attributes method is not going to work. Any ideas on the best way to ensure that the columns in my csv file will be in the same order as the select statement? Got a lot of data and performance is an issue. The select statement is not static. I realize I could loop through column names within the rows.each loop but it seems kinda dirty.

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + SQL Server

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My MERGE statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My MERGE Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am I doing wrong ?

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + MSSQL

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My Merget statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My Merge Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am i doing wrong ?

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • Need help with if else statement

    - by Michael Quiles
    I'm trying to do an else statement that would tell the user that the game ended in a draw (tic tac toe game). I got it where it works if played and there's a winner it will show another form declaring the winner through an if statement but I cant figure out the its a draw portion. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Drawing; namespace MyGame { public class Result1 { static private int[,] Winners = new int[,] { // main gameplay Ex: if x is on 0,1,2 x is the winner {0,1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8}, {0,3,6}, {1,4,7}, {2,5,8}, {0,4,8}, {2,4,6}, }; static public bool CheckWinner(Button[] myControls) { //bolean statement to check for the winner bool gameOver = false; for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { int a = Winners[i, 0]; int b = Winners[i, 1]; int c = Winners[i, 2]; Button b1 = myControls[a], b2 = myControls[b], b3 = myControls[c]; if (b1.Text == "" || b2.Text == "" || b3.Text == "") continue; if (b1.Text == b2.Text && b2.Text == b3.Text) { b1.BackColor = b2.BackColor = b3.BackColor = Color.LightCoral; b1.Font = b2.Font = b3.Font = new System.Drawing.Font("Microsoft Sans Serif", 32F, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Italic & System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold, System.Drawing.GraphicsUnit.Point, ((System.Byte)(0))); gameOver = true; xWinnerForm xWinnerForm = new xWinnerForm(); xWinnerForm.ShowDialog(); //only works with show not showDialog method gets overloaded (b1.Text + " is the Winner"); to get around this I added and image showing the last player } //else statement here for draw what code would I put in? } return gameOver; } } }

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  • Select Case on an object's Type in VB.Net

    - by mcjabberz
    I'm not sure if this valid C# but hopefully you get the idea. :) switch (msg.GetType()) { case ClassA: // blah case ClassB: // blah 2 case ClassC: // blah 3 } How would I switch on an object's type but using VB.NET's Select Case? I'm aware that some might suggest using polymorphism but I'm using a hierarchy of small message classes so that really wouldn't work in my csae.

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  • Tomato/DD-WRT router to act as switch & only NAT some port

    - by fseto
    BACKGROUND: I have a device that must use a real IP address. Currently, my ISP uses DHCP and I can have up to 4 real IP address assigned. However, the cable modem only have 1 ethernet port and it's connected to my router (running Tomato, but can run DD-wrt or other Openwrt if required). Question stems from how I can connect the additional device, requiring a real IP? EASY SOLUTION: would be to get a switch and connect to the CM, Router, and Device. But alas, I want to avoid this route, since: my wiring cabinet in my home is drawing lots of power and heat already Device will be unprotected by any firewall unable to monitor the traffic to/from device. Besides, what would be the FUN in that? =) IDEA: So what I want to do is to configure the router, so that one of the switchport is removed from the normal br0 bridge. Instead, I want to make it behave like a switch on the WAN port. What's the best way of doing this? Should I create another bridge on the WAN & the device port? Can a single port belongs to two bridges? or would I need to create a subinterface first? Would I need a DHCP-relay? Am I expecting too much from my poor cheapie router? +------+ | CM | +--++--+ || +----WAN---------------+ | / \ Router | | BR1? BR0 | | | \ | | | {NAT} | | | / | | \ | +-P0----P1-P2-P3-Wifi--+ | +------+ |Device| +------+

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  • ProCurve ACL to prevent a subnet from leaving the switch

    - by kce
    I have a single HP ProCurve 2610 in a remote location that is connected in with the rest of the network via SHDSL. There are two Layer-3 networks on this segment. ACLs are setup to deny one subnet (192.0.2.0/24) from ever being able to leave the switch by virtue of being applied to port attached to the upstream connection. The other subnet should be permitted to freely leave the switch. Both subnets are on the same VLAN. Unfortunately SFlow very clearly show broadcast traffic from 192.0.2.0/24 on the upstream connection. ProCurve ACLs are not my strong suit but I feel like I'm missing something very simple here. ip access-list extended "Filter for Camera Network" deny ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 log permit ip 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 exit interface 24 name "DSL - UPLINK" access-group "Filter for Camera Network" in exit Unless I am mistaken traffic from 192.0.2.0/24 should be dropped as it crosses the uplink port (int 24) whereas all other traffic will be permited by the following default allow rule. What exactly am I missing here? EDIT: Firstly, why do you have two subnets contained in the same VLAN? Because that's how it was configured by a previous administrator and while it makes conceptual sense that a single subnet is "mapped" to a single VLAN there's no technical constraint that I am aware of that makes this have to be the case. Instead of filtering inbound traffic on your uplink, you should be filtering outbound traffic. The HP2600 series can only filter inbound traffic on interfaces. Should I change my filter to deny any to 192.0.2.0/24?

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  • Configure linux machine as bridge/switch and end device

    - by leemes
    At my home, I have two desktop PCs in two rooms. The router / DSL modem is in one of these rooms. Now I want to configure a home server (having 2 LAN ports, running 24/7) in the corridor between the two rooms, using only one LAN cable at each door. This gives me the following physical configuration: (door) (door) .----/-/----. .-----/-/----------._ FritzBox | | | .----´´ DSL Router PC1 Server | PC2 As just said, the server has 2 network interfaces and is running Ubuntu. What I need now is a network configuration which enables both the server and PC1 to connect to the router. I think the server needs to serve as a bridge or switch. Currently, all computers are configured having static IP addresses. If I'm understanding it correctly, a bridge / switch doesn't have its own IP address, but as the server needs to be configured as an own end device, it needs to have one. My first question is, do I have to configure both interfaces separately, giving both the same static IP address? My next question is, how do I bridge the two physical networks into one? I have basic understanding (but am always confused again and again) of bridges and switches, but I don't know how to configure it in software. I only know that it's possible to do so :) The third question is: Is it possible to configure this in a way that network packets from/to PC1 to/from the router only go through hardware or only consume low CPU in the server? Can you help me? Thanks in advance!

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