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  • jQuery Validator's "required" not working when value is set at statup

    - by nandrew
    Hello, I have a problem with jQuery Validator. I want to use "required" property on a text input. It doesn't work when input has set value attribute by HTML code (tested on Firefox (3.5), and on IE 8 - on IE it works a bit better). Story: 1. Page loads; 2. value is cleared; 3. focus is changed. 4. Nothing happens but the error message should be displayed; 5. getting back to the field and typing some characters. 6. changing focus; 7. getting back to the field; 8. clearing the field. 9. Error is displayed even before leaving the field. The HTML code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1"> <input type="text" id="name1" name="name1" value="test" /><br /> <input type="text" /> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { name1: { required: true, minlength: 2 } }, messages: { name1: "bad name" }, }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

    - by Gonan
    I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • Trouble with ASP.NET MVC auto-scaffolder template

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder template for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // How do I make this generic? var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { HtmlHelper itemHtml = ????; // What should I put in place of "????"? %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= itemHtml.Display(property.DisplayName) %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. A property Html is automatically created for me when the view is created, but this HtmlHelper applies to the whole collection. I need to somehow create an itemHtml object that applies just to the current item in the foreach loop. I'm not sure how to do this, however, because the constructors for HtmlHelper don't take a Model object. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • UpdatePanel Full Postback

    - by Korivo
    Greetings, here is the scenario. I have and .aspx page with and updatepanel like this <asp:UpdatePanel id="uPanelMain" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc:Calendar id="ucCalendar" runat="server" Visible="true" /> <uc:Scoring id="ucScoring" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </ContentTemplate> The control ucCalendar is loaded first and it contains a grid like this <asp:DataGrid CssClass="grid" ID="gridGames" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HeaderStyle-CssClass="gridHeader" ItemStyle-CssClass="gridScoringRow" GridLines="None" ItemStyle-BackColor="#EEEEEE" AlternatingItemStyle-BackColor="#F5F5F5" OnEditCommand="doScoreGame" OnDeleteCommand="doEditGame" OnCancelCommand="printLineup" OnItemDataBound="gridDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn > <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkDelete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="idGame" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="isClose" Visible="false" /> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Status"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgStatus" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/img/icoX.png" alt="icoStatus" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:TemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkScore" runat="server" CommandName="Edit" Text="Score" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> So when i click the "linkButton", the codebehind of the userControl calls a public method in the .aspx as this: From the userControl protected void doScoreGame(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ((GM)this.Page).showScoring(null, null); } From the .aspx page public void showScoring(object sender, EventArgs e) { removeLastLoadedControl(); ucScoring.Visible = true; } So, here comes the problem: There are two postbacks taking place when I change the visible attribute of the ucScoring control. The first postback is fine, it's handled by the updatePanel. The second postback is a full postback, and i really don't understand why it is happening. I'm really lost here, please help! Thanks Mat

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  • Setting hidden input value in Javascript, then accessing it in codebehind

    - by Siegesmith
    I have been trying to set the value of a hidden input by using Javascript and then access the value from within my C# codebehind. When I run the code that is copied below, the value that is assigned to assignedIDs is "", which I assume is the default value for a hidden input. If I manually set the value in the html tag, then assignedIDs is set to that value. This behavior suggests to me that the value of the input is being reset (re-rendered?) between the onClientClick and onClick events firing. I would appreciate any help with the matter. I have spent hours trying to solve what seems like a very simple problem. html/javascript: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Admin Page - Manage Tasks</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput() { var source = document.getElementById('assignedLinguistListBox'); var s = ""; var count = source.length; for (var i = count - 1; i >= 0; i--) { var item = source.options[i]; if (s == "") { s = source.options[i].value; } else { s = s.concat(",",source.options[i].value); } } document.getElementById('assignedIDHiddenInput').Value = s; // I have confirmed that, at this point, the value of // the hidden input is set properly } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Panel id="EditMode" runat="server"> <table style="border: none;"> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="availableLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Available"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="availableLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> <td> <input type="button" name="right" value="&gt;&gt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('availableLinguistListBox', 'assignedLinguistListBox');" /><br /><br /> <input type="button" name="left" value="&lt;&lt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('assignedLinguistListBox', 'availableLinguistListBox');" /> </td> <td> <asp:Label ID="assignedLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Assigned To"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="assignedLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> </tr> </table> //-snip- <asp:Button ID="save_task_changes_button" runat="server" ToolTip="Click to save changes to task" Text="Save Changes" OnClick="save_task_changes_button_click" OnClientClick="Javascript:PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput()" /> </asp:Panel> <!-- Hidden Inputs --> <!-- Note that I have also tried setting runat="server" with no change --> <input id="assignedIDHiddenInput" name="assignedIDHiddenInput" type="hidden" /> </div> </form> </body> c# protected void save_task_changes_button_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string assignedIDs = Request.Form["assignedIDHiddenInput"]; // Here, assignedIDs == ""; also, Request.Params["assignedIDHiddenInput"] == "" // -snip- }

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  • Right-aligning button in a grid with possibly no content - stretch grid to always fill the page

    - by Peter Perhác
    Hello people, I am losing my patience with this. I am working on a Windows Phone 7 application and I can't figure out what layout manager to use to achieve the following: Basically, when I use a Grid as the layout root, I can't make the grid to stretch to the size of the phone application page. When the main content area is full, all is well and the button sits where I want it to sit. However, in case the page content is very short, the grid is only as wide as to accommodate its content and then the button (which I am desperate to keep near the right edge of the screen) moves away from the right edge. If I replace the grid and use a vertically oriented stack panel for the layout root, the button sits where I want it but then the content area is capable of growing beyond the bottom edge. So, when I place a listbox full of items into the main content area, it doesn't adjust its height to be completely in view, but the majority of items in that listbox are just rendered below the bottom edge of the display area. I have tried using a third-party DockPanel layout manager and then docked the button in it's top section and set the button's HorizontalAlignment="Right" but the result was the same as with the grid, it also shrinks in size when there isn't enough content in the content area (or when title is short). How do I do this then? ==EDIT== I tried WPCoder's XAML, only I replaced the dummy text box with what I would have in a real page (stackpanel) and placed a listbox into the ContentPanel grid. I noticed that what I had before and what WPCoder is suggesting is very similar. Here's my current XAML and the page still doesn't grow to fit the width of the page and I get identical results to what I had before: <phone:PhoneApplicationPage x:Name="categoriesPage" x:Class="CatalogueBrowser.CategoriesPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:phone="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Phone.Controls;assembly=Microsoft.Phone" xmlns:shell="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Phone.Shell;assembly=Microsoft.Phone" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" FontFamily="{StaticResource PhoneFontFamilyNormal}" FontSize="{StaticResource PhoneFontSizeNormal}" Foreground="{StaticResource PhoneForegroundBrush}" SupportedOrientations="PortraitOrLandscape" Orientation="Portrait" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="480" d:DesignHeight="768" xmlns:ctrls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Phone.Controls;assembly=Microsoft.Phone.Controls.Toolkit" shell:SystemTray.IsVisible="True"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Transparent"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" VerticalAlignment="Center" > <TextBlock Text="Browsing:" Margin="10,10" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextTitle3Style}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ListTitle" Text="{Binding DisplayName}" Margin="0,10" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextTitle3Style}" /> </StackPanel> <Button Grid.Column="1" x:Name="btnRefineSearch" Content="Refine Search" Style="{StaticResource buttonBarStyle}" FontSize="14" /> </Grid> <Grid x:Name="ContentPanel" Grid.Row="1"> <ListBox x:Name="CategoryList" ItemsSource="{Binding Categories}" Style="{StaticResource CatalogueList}" SelectionChanged="CategoryList_SelectionChanged"/> </Grid> </Grid> </phone:PhoneApplicationPage> This is what the page with the above XAML markup looks like in the emulator:

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  • Why cant I get a Thumb to be larger on a styled scrollbar in WPF.

    - by Tollo
    I have taken the MSDN templates for styling a scrollbar and have been trying to apply my different styles (Image on each track repeater and separate Image on the thumb) but I am unable to make the thumb change size. I have tried setting the Width on the Track.Thumb style and also in the ControlTemplate of the Thumb itself. For some reason the default size is only ever rendered even when the thumb actually occupies much more space. Does anyone know how to make the thumb render at the size that I want? The XAML I am using for the styles is here: <Style x:Key="ScrollBarThumb" TargetType="{x:Type Thumb}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red" /> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Thumb}"> <Image Source="sampleimg.png" Stretch="Fill" /> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> <ControlTemplate x:Key="ArfleHBar" TargetType="{x:Type ScrollBar}"> <Grid > <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition MaxWidth="18"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.00001*"/> <ColumnDefinition MaxWidth="18"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <RepeatButton Grid.Column="0" Style="{StaticResource ScrollBarLineButton}" Width="18" Command="ScrollBar.LineLeftCommand" Content="M 4 0 L 4 8 L 0 4 Z" /> <Track Name="PART_Track" Grid.Column="1" IsDirectionReversed="False" > <Track.DecreaseRepeatButton> <RepeatButton Style="{StaticResource ScrollBarPageButton}" Command="ScrollBar.PageLeftCommand" Width="100"/> </Track.DecreaseRepeatButton> <Track.Thumb> <Thumb Style="{StaticResource ScrollBarThumb}" Margin="0,1,0,1" Width="250" Padding="0,0,0,0"> </Thumb> </Track.Thumb> <Track.IncreaseRepeatButton> <RepeatButton Style="{StaticResource ScrollBarPageButton}" Command="ScrollBar.PageRightCommand" Width="100" /> </Track.IncreaseRepeatButton> </Track> <RepeatButton Grid.Column="3" Style="{StaticResource ScrollBarLineButton}" Width="18" Command="ScrollBar.LineRightCommand" Content="M 0 0 L 4 4 L 0 8 Z"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> <Style x:Key="ArfleBar" TargetType="{x:Type ScrollBar}"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Orientation" Value="Horizontal"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="Auto"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="18" /> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource ArfleHBar}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

    - by Crippletoe
    Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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  • I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

    - by culov
    I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • Problems with createImage(int width, int height)

    - by Jonathan
    I have the following code, which is run every 10ms as part of a game: private void gameRender() { if(dbImage == null) { //createImage() returns null if GraphicsEnvironment.isHeadless() //returns true. (java.awt.GraphicsEnvironment) dbImage = createImage(PWIDTH, PHEIGHT); if(dbImage == null) { System.out.println("dbImage is null"); //Error recieved return; } else dbg = dbImage.getGraphics(); } //clear the background dbg.setColor(Color.white); dbg.fillRect(0, 0, PWIDTH, PHEIGHT); //draw game elements... if(gameOver) { gameOverMessage(dbg); } } The problem is that it enters the if statement which checks for the Image being null, even after I attempt to define the image. I looked around, and it seems that createImage() will return null if GraphicsEnvironment.isHeadless() returns true. I don't understand exactly what the isHeadless() method's purpose is, but I thought it might have something to do with the compiler or IDE, so I tried on two, both of which get the same error (Eclipse, and BlueJ). Anyone have any idea what the source of the error is, and how I might fix it? Thanks in advance Jonathan ................................................................... EDIT: I am using java.awt.Component.createImage(int width, int height). The purpose of this method is to ensure the creation of, and edit an Image that will contain the view of the player of the game, that will later be drawn to the screen by means of a JPanel. Here is some more code if this helps at all: public class Sim2D extends JPanel implements Runnable { private static final int PWIDTH = 500; private static final int PHEIGHT = 400; private volatile boolean running = true; private volatile boolean gameOver = false; private Thread animator; //gameRender() private Graphics dbg; private Image dbImage = null; public Sim2D() { setBackground(Color.white); setPreferredSize(new Dimension(PWIDTH, PHEIGHT)); setFocusable(true); requestFocus(); //Sim2D now recieves key events readyForTermination(); addMouseListener( new MouseAdapter() { public void mousePressed(MouseEvent e) { testPress(e.getX(), e.getY()); } }); } //end of constructor private void testPress(int x, int y) { if(!gameOver) { gameOver = true; //end game at mousepress } } //end of testPress() private void readyForTermination() { addKeyListener( new KeyAdapter() { public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { int keyCode = e.getKeyCode(); if((keyCode == KeyEvent.VK_ESCAPE) || (keyCode == KeyEvent.VK_Q) || (keyCode == KeyEvent.VK_END) || ((keyCode == KeyEvent.VK_C) && e.isControlDown()) ) { running = false; //end process on above list of keypresses } } }); } //end of readyForTermination() public void addNotify() { super.addNotify(); //creates the peer startGame(); //start the thread } //end of addNotify() public void startGame() { if(animator == null || !running) { animator = new Thread(this); animator.start(); } } //end of startGame() //run method for world public void run() { while(running) { long beforeTime, timeDiff, sleepTime; beforeTime = System.nanoTime(); gameUpdate(); //updates objects in game (step event in game) gameRender(); //renders image paintScreen(); //paints rendered image to screen timeDiff = (System.nanoTime() - beforeTime) / 1000000; sleepTime = 10 - timeDiff; if(sleepTime <= 0) //if took longer than 10ms { sleepTime = 5; //sleep a bit anyways } try{ Thread.sleep(sleepTime); //sleep by allotted time (attempts to keep this loop to about 10ms) } catch(InterruptedException ex){} beforeTime = System.nanoTime(); } System.exit(0); } //end of run() private void gameRender() { if(dbImage == null) { dbImage = createImage(PWIDTH, PHEIGHT); if(dbImage == null) { System.out.println("dbImage is null"); return; } else dbg = dbImage.getGraphics(); } //clear the background dbg.setColor(Color.white); dbg.fillRect(0, 0, PWIDTH, PHEIGHT); //draw game elements... if(gameOver) { gameOverMessage(dbg); } } //end of gameRender() } //end of class Sim2D Hope this helps clear things up a bit, Jonathan

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  • XSD: xs:sequence & xs:choice combination for xs:extension elements of a common base type?

    - by bguiz
    Hi, My question is about defining an XML schema that will validate the following XML: <rules> <other>...</other> <bool>...</bool> <other>...</other> <string>...</string> <other>...</other> </rules> The order of the child nodes does not matter. The cardinality of the child nodes is 0..unbounded. All the child elements of the rules node have a common base type, rule, like so: <xs:complexType name="booleanRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="rule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="stringFilterRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="filterRule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> My current (feeble) attempt at defining the schema for the rules node is below. However, Can I nest xs:choice within xs:sequence? If, where do I specify the maxOccurs="unbounded" attribute? Is there a better way to do this, such as an xs:sequence which specifies only the base type of its child elements? <xs:element name="rules"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:element name="bool" type="booleanRule" /> <xs:element name="string" type="stringRule" /> <xs:element name="other" type="someOtherRule" /> </xs:choice> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • z-index not working in IE8 with the sortable jQuery plugin

    - by Ojtwist
    I'm working with the jQuery Sortable plugin to drag and drop images from one box to another box. This works fine in ff,chrome and safari but it fails in IE8. It seems that when you start dragging that the image is send to the back. I've tried to solve this by adding the z-index option to the sortable plugin, i've tried appending it to a node higher in the hierarchy (body). It appears that setting a z-index on every other item in the page would fix this, haven't tried it yet and i'm not planning on doing this because this would mess up alot. So the user can drag an image from 1 gallery to the next gallery screenshot of how it should work: http://img69.imageshack.us/i/draganddrop.jpg/ Some html: <!--SECOND ARROCRDION ITEM --> <a class="flickr_accordeon_header" id="flickr_second_header" href="javascript:;">__MSG__SEARCH_FOR_PHOTOS__</a> <div> <p class ="flickr_text" > __MSG__SEARCH_FOR_PHOTOS__</p> <form method="GET" action="javascript:;"> <p> <input type="text" value="__MSG__SEARCH__" id="flickr_key_input" class="flickr_changeColorNormal" /> <button class="s3d-button flickr_search" id="flickr_seach_button"> <span class="s3d-button-inner" >__MSG__SEARCH__</span> </button> <img src="/devwidgets/flickr/images/ajax-loader-gray.gif" alt="__MSG__LOADING_IMAGE__" id="flickr_loading_img" /> <a href="javascript:;" id="flickr_refresh_key_button"><img src="/dev/_images/recent_activity_icon.png" alt="refresh" title='refresh' /></a> </p> </form> <div id="flickr_input_error">__MSG__INPUT_ERROR__</div> <div id="flickr_input_same_error">__MSG__INPUT_SAME_ERROR__</div> **<div id="flickr_key_gallery" ><ul class="flickr_key_ul"><li></li></ul></div>** <div id="flickr_key_pagging" ></div> </div> </div> <!--SLIDING SIDEBAR --> <div id="flickr_sidebar" class="jcarousel-skin-tango"> <div id="flickr_side_paging"></div> **<ul> <li><img src="/devwidgets/flickr/images/drop-image.png" alt="__MSG__DROP_HERE__" class="flick_drop_here"></li> </ul>** </div> The images get rendered into the ul, so basically it's just an ul with li's with images javascript for sortable: horizontal: { helper: "clone", // Instead of dragging the real image a copy will be dragged connectWith: ["#flickr_sidebar ul"], // To be able to drag and drop an image to another image gallery they need to be connected cursor: 'pointer', //change the cursor when dragging opacity: 0.50, //Change the opacity while dragging appendTo: 'body', //When dropped the images need to be appended to the image gallery where they are dropped containment: 'body', //Make sure the user can't drag the images outside the widget revert: true, // if the user releases the image ouside the dropbox it'll return to it's original position zIndex: 9999 } I've tried it with setting the dragged image to absolute and the container on relative... doesn't work Anyone know how to solve this in IE8 ?

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • ValidationProperty not returning entered value for textbox

    - by nat
    hi I have a custom control, (relevant code at the bottom) it consists of some text/links and a hidden textbox (rather than a hidden input). when rendered, the user via another dialog and some JS sets the value of the textbox to an integer and clicks submit on the form. i am trying to assure that the user has entered a number (via the JS) and that the textbox is not still set to its default of "0" the requiredfieldvalidator works just fine, if i dont change the value it spots it on the client and fills the validation summary on the page with the appropriate message. unfortunately when i do fill the textbox, the validator also rejests the post as the controls textbox text value is still set to "0", even though on the form it has changed. clearly i am doing something wrong.. but cant work out what it is? could someone enlighten me please, this is driving me potty if i step through the code, when the get of the mediaidtext is hit,the findcontrol finds the textbox, but the value is still set to "0" many thanks code below nat [ValidationProperty("MediaIdText")] public class MediaLibraryFileControl: CompositeControl { private int mediaId = 0; public int MediaId { get { return mediaId; } set { mediaId = value; } } public string MediaIdText { get { string txt = "0"; Control ctrl = this.FindControl(this.UniqueID+ "_hidden"); try { txt = ((TextBox)ctrl).Text; MediaId = Convert.ToInt32(txt); } catch { MediaId = 0; } return txt; } } protected override void CreateChildControls() { this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<span>")); this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<span id=\"" + TextControlName + "\">" + getMediaDetails() + "</span>")); TextBox tb = new TextBox(); tb.Text = this.MediaId.ToString(); tb.ID = this.UniqueID + "_hidden"; tb.CssClass = "hidden"; this.Controls.Add(tb); if (Select == true) { this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format("&nbsp;[<a href=\"javascript:{0}(this,'{1}','{2}')\" class=\"select\">{3}</a>]", dialog, this.UniqueID, this.categoryId, "select"))); this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format("&nbsp;[<a href=\"javascript:{0}(this,'{1}')\" class=\"select\">{2}</a>]", clearDialog, this.ID, "clear"))); } this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</span>")); } protected virtual string getMediaDetails() { //... return String.Empty; } } this is the code adding the validationcontrol the editcontrol is the instance of the control above public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.ID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.None; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.EnableClientScript = false; req.ErrorMessage = "control cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; }

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  • C# Getting a node with attributes from SelectSingleNode

    - by bdefreese
    Hi folks, I am quite the n00b but lately I have been playing with parsing some XML data. I actually found a nice feature on this site where I can get to a specific node with a specific attribute by doing: docFoo.SelectSingleNode("foo/bar/baz[@name='qux']); However, the data looks like this: <saving-throws> <saving-throw> <name>Fortitude</name> <abbr>Fort</abbr> <ability>Con</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="2"/> <modifier name="ability" value="5"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> <saving-throw> <name>Reflex</name> <abbr>Ref</abbr> <ability>Dex</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="6"/> <modifier name="ability" value="1"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> And I want to be able to get the node with name=base but for each saving-throw node where childnode "abbr" = xx. Can I somehow do that in a single SelectSingleNode or am I going to have to stop at saving throw and walk through the rest of the tree? Thanks!

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  • Searching in XML using Xpath

    - by Sathish
    I have an XML file like below , using xpath and xnavigator how can get the Value of the supplied Tag Attribute for example if i supply RangeName i should get AssumptClient <Validations> <FieldInfo id="1"> <Name>OMID</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOMID</RangeName> <DataType>int</DataType> <MaxLength>10</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="2"> <Name>ClientName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptClient</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="3"> <Name>OppName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptProjectName</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="4"> <Name>OperatingGroup</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOperatingGroup</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> </Validations> for now i am using the below code XPathDocument doc; XPathNavigator nav; XPathExpression expr; XPathNodeIterator iterator; doc = new XPathDocument(strConfigFile); nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); expr = nav.Compile("/configuration/Validations/FieldInfo[RangeName='AssumptClient']"); iterator = nav.Select(expr); if (iterator.MoveNext()) { XPathNavigator nav2 = iterator.Current.Clone(); textBox1.Text = nav2.GetAttribute("RangeName", ""); }

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  • Multiple column subselect in mysql 5 (5.1.42)

    - by rubber boots
    This one seems to be a simple problem, but I can't make it work in a single select or nested select. Retrieve the authors and (if any) advisers of a paper (article) into one row. I order to explain the problem, here are the two data tables (pseudo) papers (id, title, c_year) persons (id, firstname, lastname) plus a link table w/one extra attribute (pseudo): paper_person_roles( paper_id person_id act_role ENUM ('AUTHOR', 'ADVISER') ) This is basically a list of written papers (table: papers) and a list of staff and/or students (table: persons) An article my have (1,N) authors. An article may have (0,N) advisers. A person can be in 'AUTHOR' or 'ADVISER' role (but not at the same time). The application eventually puts out table rows containing the following entries: TH: || Paper_ID | Author(s) | Title | Adviser(s) | TD: || 21334 |John Doe, Jeff Tucker|Why the moon looks yellow|Brown, Rayleigh| ... My first approach was like: select/extract a full list of articles into the application, eg.SELECT q.id, q.title FROM papers AS q ORDER BY q.c_year and save the results of the query into an array (in the application). After this step, loop over the array of the returned information and retrieve authors and advisers (if any), via prepared statement (? is the paper's id) from the link table like:APPLICATION_LOOP(paper_ids in array) SELECT p.lastname, p.firstname, r.act_role FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE p.id=r.person_id AND r.paper_id = ? # The application does further processing from here (pseudo): foreach record from resulting records if record.act_role eq 'AUTHOR' then join to author_column if record.act_role eq 'ADVISER' then join to avdiser_column end print id, author_column, title, adviser_column APPLICATION_LOOP This works so far and gives the desired output. Would it make sense to put the computation back into the DB? I'm not very proficient in nontrivial SQL and can't find a solution with a single (combined or nested) select call. I tried sth. like SELECT q.title (CONCAT_WS(' ', (SELECT p.firstname, p.lastname AS aunames FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE q.id=r.paper_id AND r.act_role='AUTHOR') ) ) AS aulist FROM papers AS q, persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r in several variations, but no luck ... Maybe there is some chance? Thanks in advance r.b.

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  • Why is FubuMVC new()ing up my view model in PartialForEach?

    - by Jon M
    I'm getting started with FubuMVC and I have a simple Customer - Order relationship I'm trying to display using nested partials. My domain objects are as follows: public class Customer { private readonly IList<Order> orders = new List<Order>(); public string Name { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Order> Orders { get { return orders; } } public void AddOrder(Order order) { orders.Add(order); } } public class Order { public string Reference { get; set; } } I have the following controller classes: public class CustomersController { public IndexViewModel Index(IndexInputModel inputModel) { var customer1 = new Customer { Name = "John Smith" }; customer1.AddOrder(new Order { Reference = "ABC123" }); return new IndexViewModel { Customers = new[] { customer1 } }; } } public class IndexInputModel { } public class IndexViewModel { public IEnumerable<Customer> Customers { get; set; } } public class IndexView : FubuPage<IndexViewModel> { } public class CustomerPartial : FubuControl<Customer> { } public class OrderPartial : FubuControl<Order> { } IndexView.aspx: (standard html stuff trimmed) <div> <%= this.PartialForEach(x => x.Customers).Using<CustomerPartial>() %> </div> CustomerPartial.ascx: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="FubuDemo.Controllers.Customers.CustomerPartial" %> <div> Customer Name: <%= this.DisplayFor(x => x.Name) %> <br /> Orders: (<%= Model.Orders.Count() %>) <br /> <%= this.PartialForEach(x => x.Orders) %> </div> OrderPartial.ascx: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="FubuDemo.Controllers.Customers.OrderPartial" %> <div> Order <br /> Ref: <%= this.DisplayFor(x => x.Reference) %> </div> When I view Customers/Index, I see the following: Customers Customer Name: John Smith Orders: (1) It seems that in CustomerPartial.ascx, doing Model.Orders.Count() correctly picks up that 1 order exists. However PartialForEach(x = x.Orders) does not, as nothing is rendered for the order. If I set a breakpoint on the Order constructor, I see that it initially gets called by the Index method on CustomersController, but then it gets called by FubuMVC.Core.Models.StandardModelBinder.Bind, so it is getting re-instantiated by FubuMVC and losing the content of the Orders collection. This isn't quite what I'd expect, I would think that PartialForEach would just pass the domain object directly into the partial. Am I missing the point somewhere? What is the 'correct' way to achieve this kind of result in Fubu?

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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  • Replacing text after node

    - by Andrew
    I am trying to remove the "Hide this data" from this XML which is proceeded with the qualifier type="noView" <element version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" /> Hide this data </element> I am using this XSL <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="node()|@*"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*"/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="qualifier"> <xsl:call-template name="replace-noview" /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="replace-noview"> <xsl:param name="text" select="@type"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, 'noView')"> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> <xsl:text>DELETED</xsl:text> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> The output I'm getting is <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" />DELETED Hide this data </element> I am matching the "noView" attribute and can add the "DELETED" text. However I need to remove the follow "Hide this data" text. The output I would like is <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" /> DELETED </element>

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