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  • Pointer Implementation Details in C

    - by Will Bickford
    I would like to know architectures which violate the assumptions I've listed below. Also I would like to know if any of the assumptions are false for all architectures (i.e. if any of them are just completely wrong). sizeof(int *) == sizeof(char *) == sizeof(void *) == sizeof(func_ptr *) The in-memory representation of all pointers for a given architecture is the same regardless of the data type pointed to. The in-memory representation of a pointer is the same as an integer of the same bit length as the architecture. Multiplication and division of pointer data types are only forbidden by the compiler. NOTE: Yes I know this is nonsensical. What I mean is - is there hardware support to forbid this incorrect usage? All pointer values can be casted to a single integer. In other words, what architectures still make use of segments and offsets? Incrementing a pointer is equivalent to adding sizeof(the pointed data type) to the memory address stored by the pointer. If p is an int32* then p+1 is equal to the memory address 4 bytes after p. I'm most used to pointers being used in a contiguous, virtual memory space. For that usage, I can generally get by thinking of them as addresses on a number line. See (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1350471/pointer-comparison/1350488#1350488).

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  • qTip jQuery Plugin not always Firing

    - by tonsils
    Hi, I am using the qTip jquery plugin qTip plugin for a website I'm working on based on another thread I raised here: stack overflow thread My question is, I have a navigation bar running along the top of my screen which is basically sets the title attribute based on the tab menu you are in, these are all stored within a javascript array. For example, I have three menu options running along the top of the screen, say Menu A, Menu B and Menu C. I also have an information image positioned at the rightmost position of the nav bar, which I set the title attribute, based on the Menu option selected in the Nav Bar. For example: Menu A => myRole[0] = "Admin" Menu B => myRole[1] = "Manager" Menu C => myRole[2] = "Guest" So basically as the user clicks on each of the menus in the nav bar, I set the title attribute in the information image to either "Admin","Manager" or "Guest". At startup, the qTip plugin works and displays "Admin" when I hover over it but when I change the menu to Menu C, it still displays "Admin" instead of "Guest" From the looks of it, it doesn't seem to be calling the qTip plugin, which I have positioned at the footer of the screen (see actual code below). Any ideas how to ensure that the qTip fires every time I click/change menu options and pickups value within javascript array? <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.qtip-1.0.0-rc3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('div#infoi img[title]').qtip({ position: { adjust: { x:-110, y:0 }, corner: { target: 'bottomLeft', tooltip: 'topMiddle' } }, style: { width: 250, padding: 5, background: '#E7F1FA', color: 'black', textAlign: 'center', border: { width: 3, color: '#65a9d7' }, tip: 'topRight' } }); }); </script> Thanks.

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  • Moving .NET assemblies away from the application base directory?

    - by RasmusKL
    I have a WinForms application with a bunch of third party references. This makes the output folder quite messy. I'd like to place the compiled / referenced dlls into a common subdirectory in the output folder, bin / lib - whatever - and just have the executables (+ needed configs etc) reside in the output folder. After some searching I ran into assembly probing (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/4191fzwb.aspx) - and verified that if I set this up and manually move the assemblies my application will still work if they are stored in the designated subdirectory like so: <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> However, this doesn't solve the build part - is there any way to specify where referenced assemblies and compiled library assemblies go? Only solutions I can think of off the top of my head is either post-build actions or dropping the idea and using ILMerge or something. There has got to be a better way of defining the structure :-)

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  • NSArrayController not working with NSMutableDictionary for NSTableView

    - by Miraaj
    Hi all, I am trying to display content in NSTableView using NSMutableArrayController of NSMutableDictionary records. I followed steps written below: In application delegate class, I created an NSMutableArray object with name 'geniuses' and stored some NSMutableDictionary objects with keys: 'geniusName' and 'domain'. I took an NSArrayController object in IB, binded its controller content property to application delegate class, and set its model key path to 'geniuses'. In attribute inspector pane set mode as class and class name as NSMutableDictionary. Added keys: 'geniusName' and 'domain' to it. In IB I took a table view object. Binded its content property to array controller, controller key path set as arranged objects. Binded value property of its first column to array controller, controller key path set as arranged objects, model key path set as 'geniusName'. Binded value property of its second column to array controller, controller key path set as arranged objects, model key path set as 'geniusName'. After following these steps when I tried to build and run the project I found un-populated table view. You can find my code here. Can anyone suggest me where I may be wrong? Thanks, Miraaj

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  • PHP Single Sign On (SSO) generating new session id

    - by bigstylee
    I am trying to create a single sign on process. The method I have implemented makes use of storing session data in a database. When a new user comes to the website (www.example2.com) a table of authentication is checked. As this is their first visit to the website, there will be no match. The browser is redicted to the authentication server www.example1.com/authenticate.php?session_id=ABC123 where ABC123 represents the session id created on www.example2.com. THe session id which is then generated on www.example1.com is stored along side the session id using the parameter set in the URL. The user is then redirected back to the www.example2.com and a match of session ids should be found. This WAS working fine in FireFox but when I tried it in Chrome I noticed that the session id being generated when the browser is redirected back to www.example2.com is a new session id. As a result an infinite loop is created. This behaviour has not manifested itself in FireFox aswell. What is causing the new session id to be generated? More importantly, what can I do to stop it? Thanks in advance! EDIT I had a logically error that was causing an infinite loop. This now works fine again in FireFox but the infinite loop is still occuring in Chrome and Internet Explorer.

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  • Double buffering C#

    - by LmSNe
    Hey, I'm trying to implement the following method: void Ball::DrawOn(Graphics g); The method should draw all previous locations(stored in a queue) of the ball and finally the current location. I don't know if that matters, but I print the previous locations using g.DrawEllipse(...) and the current location using g.FillEllipse(...). The question is, that as you could imagine there is a lot of drawing to be done and thus the display starts to flicker much. I had searched for a way to double buffer, but all I could find is these 2 ways: 1) System.Windows.Forms.Control.DoubleBuffered = true; 2) SetStyle(ControlStyles.DoubleBuffer | ControlStyles.UserPaint | ControlStyles.AllPaintingInWmPaint, true); while trying to use the first, I get the an error explaining that from in this method the Property DoubleBuffered is inaccessible due to its protection level. While I can't figure how to use the SetStyle method. Is it possible at all to double buffer while all the access I have is to the Graphics Object I get as input in the method? Thanks in Advance,

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  • I need to get form data from multiple forms on one page using $_POST

    - by CDeanMartin
    My project is a menu that displays daily specials at a cafe. The Pointy Haired Boss(PHB) needs to add/remove items from the menu on a daily basis, so I stored all dishes with MySQL, and created a page which will load all menu items as buttons. When clicked, the button will UPDATE the item, turning it on or off. I need form data to detect which button was pressed, so my query knows which $menuItem to UPDATE. That is the purpose of the hidden fields. <html><head></head> <body> <html><head></head> <body> <?php include("getElement.php"); $keys = array_keys($_POST); echo $keys[0]; echo $keys[1]; //if(isset($_POST["menuItem"])){ //toggleItem($_POST["menuItem"]); //echo print_r(array_keys($_POST));} ?> <form name="b" action="scratchpad.php" method="post" > <input type="hidden" name="b" value="Cajun Gumbo"/> <input type="submit" style="color:blue" value="Cajun Gumbo" /> </form> <form name="a" action="scratchpad.php" method="post" > <input type="hidden" name="a" value="Guacomole Burger"/> <input type="submit" style="color:blue" value="Guacomole Burger" /> </form> </body> </html> Can I get $_POST to identify which button was pressed?

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  • Updating a specific key/value inside of an array field with MongoDB

    - by Jesta
    As a preface, I've been working with MongoDB for about a week now, so this may turn out to be a pretty simple answer. I have data already stored in my collection, we will call this collection content, as it contains articles, news, etc. Each of these articles contains another array called author which has all of the author's information (Address, Phone, Title, etc). The Goal - I am trying to create a query that will update the author's address on every article that the specific author exists in, and only the specified author block (not others that exist within the array). Sort of a "Global Update" to a specific article that affects his/her information on every piece of content that exists. Here is an example of what the content with the author looks like. { "_id" : ObjectId("4c1a5a948ead0e4d09010000"), "authors" : [ { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "joe-somebody", "display_name" : "Joe Somebody", "display_title" : "Contributing Writer", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "jane-somebody", "display_name" : "Jane Somebody", "display_title" : "Editor", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, ], "tags" : [ "tag1", "tag2", "tag3" ], "title" : "Title of the Article" } I can find every article that this author has created by running the following command: db.content.find({authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'}}}); So theoretically I should be able to update the authors record for the slug joe-somebody but not jane-somebody (the 2nd author), I am just unsure exactly how you reach in and update every record for that author. I thought I was on the right track, and here's what I've tried. b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {address: '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true ); I just believe there's something I am missing in the $set statement to specify the correct author and point inside of the correct array. Any ideas? **Update** I've also tried this now: b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {'authors.$.address': '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true );

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  • Can I store SQL Server sort order in a variable?

    - by Steve Weet
    I have the following SQL within a stored procedure. Is there a way to remove the IF statement and pass the 'ASC'/'DESC' option as a variable? I know I could do the query a number of different ways, or return a table and sort it externally etc. I would just like to know if I can avoid duplicating the CASE statement. IF @sortOrder = 'Desc' BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END ELSE BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END END

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  • Performance question: Inverting an array of pointers in-place vs array of values

    - by Anders
    The background for asking this question is that I am solving a linearized equation system (Ax=b), where A is a matrix (typically of dimension less than 100x100) and x and b are vectors. I am using a direct method, meaning that I first invert A, then find the solution by x=A^(-1)b. This step is repated in an iterative process until convergence. The way I'm doing it now, using a matrix library (MTL4): For every iteration I copy all coeffiecients of A (values) in to the matrix object, then invert. This the easiest and safest option. Using an array of pointers instead: For my particular case, the coefficients of A happen to be updated between each iteration. These coefficients are stored in different variables (some are arrays, some are not). Would there be a potential for performance gain if I set up A as an array containing pointers to these coefficient variables, then inverting A in-place? The nice thing about the last option is that once I have set up the pointers in A before the first iteration, I would not need to copy any values between successive iterations. The values which are pointed to in A would automatically be updated between iterations. So the performance question boils down to this, as I see it: - The matrix inversion process takes roughly the same amount of time, assuming de-referencing of pointers is non-expensive. - The array of pointers does not need the extra memory for matrix A containing values. - The array of pointers option does not have to copy all NxN values of A between each iteration. - The values that are pointed to the array of pointers option are generally NOT ordered in memory. Hopefully, all values lie relatively close in memory, but *A[0][1] is generally not next to *A[0][0] etc. Any comments to this? Will the last remark affect performance negatively, thus weighing up for the positive performance effects?

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  • Proper use of HttpRequestInterceptor and CredentialsProvider in doing preemptive authentication with

    - by Preston
    I'm writing an application in Android that consumes some REST services I've created. These web services aren't issuing a standard Apache Basic challenge / response. Instead in the server-side code I'm wanting to interrogate the username and password from the HTTP(S) request and compare it against a database user to make sure they can run that service. I'm using HttpClient to do this and I have the credentials stored on the client after the initial login (at least that's how I see this working). So here is where I'm stuck. Preemptive authenticate under HttpClient requires you to setup an interceptor as a static member. This is the example Apache Components uses. HttpRequestInterceptor preemptiveAuth = new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process( final HttpRequest request, final HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { AuthState authState = (AuthState) context.getAttribute(ClientContext.TARGET_AUTH_STATE); CredentialsProvider credsProvider = (CredentialsProvider) context.getAttribute( ClientContext.CREDS_PROVIDER); HttpHost targetHost = (HttpHost) context.getAttribute(ExecutionContext.HTTP_TARGET_HOST); if (authState.getAuthScheme() == null) { AuthScope authScope = new AuthScope(targetHost.getHostName(), targetHost.getPort()); Credentials creds = credsProvider.getCredentials(authScope); if (creds != null) { authState.setAuthScheme(new BasicScheme()); authState.setCredentials(creds); } } } }; So the question would be this. What would the proper use of this be? Would I spin this up as part of the application when the application starts? Pulling the username and password out of memory and then using them to create this CredentialsProvider which is then utilized by the HttpRequestInterceptor? Or is there a way to do this more dynamically?

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  • ways to avoid global temp tables in oracle

    - by Omnipresent
    We just converted our sql server stored procedures to oracle procedures. Sql Server SP's were highly dependent on session tables (INSERT INTO #table1...) these tables got converted as global temporary tables in oracle. We ended up with aroun 500 GTT's for our 400 SP's Now we are finding out that working with GTT's in oracle is considered a last option because of performance and other issues. what other alternatives are there? Collections? Cursors? Our typical use of GTT's is like so: Insert into GTT INSERT INTO some_gtt_1 (column_a, column_b, column_c) (SELECT someA, someB, someC FROM TABLE_A WHERE condition_1 = 'YN756' AND type_cd = 'P' AND TO_NUMBER(TO_CHAR(m_date, 'MM')) = '12' AND (lname LIKE (v_LnameUpper || '%') OR lname LIKE (v_searchLnameLower || '%')) AND (e_flag = 'Y' OR it_flag = 'Y' OR fit_flag = 'Y')); Update the GTT UPDATE some_gtt_1 a SET column_a = (SELECT b.data_a FROM some_table_b b WHERE a.column_b = b.data_b AND a.column_c = 'C') WHERE column_a IS NULL OR column_a = ' '; and later on get the data out of the GTT. These are just sample queries, in actuality the queries are really complext with lot of joins and subqueries. I have a three part question: Can someone show how to transform the above sample queries to collections and/or cursors? Since with GTT's you can work natively with SQL...why go away from the GTTs? are they really that bad. What should be the guidelines on When to use and When to avoid GTT's

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  • Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

    - by quanticle
    I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

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  • std::list iterator: get next element

    - by sheepsimulator
    I'm trying to build a string using data elements stored in a std::list, where I want commas placed only between the elements (ie, if elements are {A,B,C,D} in list, result string should be "A,B,C,D". This code does not work: typedef std::list< shared_ptr<EventDataItem> > DataItemList; // ... std::string Compose(DataItemList& dilList) { std::stringstream ssDataSegment; for(iterItems = dilList.begin(); iterItems != dilList.end(); iterItems++) { // Lookahead in list to see if next element is end if((iterItems + 1) == dilList.end()) { ssDataSegment << (*iterItems)->ToString(); } else { ssDataSegment << (*iterItems)->ToString() << ","; } } return ssDataSegment.str(); } How do I get at "the-next-item" in a std::list using an iterator? I would expect that it's a linked-list, why can't I get at the next item?

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  • How should I handle this Optimistic Concurrency error in this Entity Framework code, I have?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following pseduo code in some Repository Pattern project that uses EF4. public void Delete(int someId) { // 1. Load the entity for that Id. If there is none, then null. // 2. If entity != null, then DeleteObject(..); } Pretty simple but I'm getting a run-time error:- ConcurrencyException: Store, Update, Insert or Delete statement affected an unexpected number of rows (0). Now, this is what is happening :- Two instances of EF4 are running inthe app at the same time. Instance A calls delete. Instance B calls delete a nano second later. Instance A loads the entity. Instance B also loads the entity. Instance A now deletes that entity - cool bananas. Instance B tries to delete the entity, but it's already gone. As such, the no-count or what not is 0, when it expected 1 .. or something like that. Basically, it figured out that the item it is suppose to delete, didn't delete (because it happened a split sec ago). I'm not sure if this is like a race-condition or something. Anyways, is there any tricks I can do here so the 2nd call doesn't crash? I could make it into a stored procedure.. but I'm hoping to avoid that right now. Any ideas? I'm wondering If it's possible to lock that row (and that row only) when the select is called ... forcing Instance B to wait until the row lock has been relased. By that time, the row is deleted, so when Instance B does it's select, the data is not there .. so it will never delete.

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  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

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  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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  • Referencing object's identity before submitting changes in LINQ

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, is there a way of knowing ID of identity column of record inserted via InsertOnSubmit beforehand, e.g. before calling datasource's SubmitChanges? Imagine I'm populating some kind of hierarchy in the database, but I wouldn't want to submit changes on each recursive call of each child node (e.g. if I had Directories table and Files table and am recreating my filesystem structure in the database). I'd like to do it that way, so I create a Directory object, set its name and attributes, then InsertOnSubmit it into DataContext.Directories collection, then reference Directory.ID in its child Files. Currently I need to call InsertOnSubmit to insert the 'directory' into the database and the database mapping fills its ID column. But this creates a lot of transactions and accesses to database and I imagine that if I did this inserting in a batch, the performance would be better. What I'd like to do is to somehow use Directory.ID before commiting changes, create all my File and Directory objects in advance and then do a big submit that puts all stuff into database. I'm also open to solving this problem via a stored procedure, I assume the performance would be even better if all operations would be done directly in the database.

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  • Is there anyway to carry a value in php forward to a second page?

    - by Henry Aspden
    I have created a php site, and previously it was listing only products with defined values. I have now changed it to include an array of products for example all products WHERE id = "spotlights" and this works great so it means I can add new products just to the database, but I still have to add the second page manually. e.g going from the product div on the main page, through to www.example.com/spotlight_1.php Is there anyway in PHP to carry the data from my index.php e.g. the ID through to the next page? so that I can have a template product.php page, and I can use a database pull to echo the product information required. So on index.php i click on the product with ID="1" and on the product.php page, it loads the relevant data for product 1. I can write the php SQL/mySQL calls myself, its just the way to carry accross a value from the previous page which I dont understand Regards Henry p.s. all the IDs and things are stored in the database already as 1 to 3digit values e.g. 3 or or 93 or 254 Any advice as always is greatly appreciated Regards Henry

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  • How can I access mainframe data with .Net applications and SQL Queries?

    - by orandov
    We have a large amount of data stored on an IBM mainframe using VSAM files. A lot of this data is dropped on the network every night in the form of text files to be processed and dumped into FoxPro and SQL Server databases. There are also many text files produced nightly by custom applications that get uploaded to the mainframe to keep everything in sync. Keeping the everything in sync is very tricky, to say the least. We are not getting rid of the mainframe any time soon and we would like to replace all the nightly batch processing with real time access to the mainframe data. We would like to be able to: Read data directly from the mainframe and produce reports based on it. Possibly using SQL queries. Read and Write data from custom .Net applications. We are not looking for a new platform to interface with the mainframe like Information Builders offers. We don't want to build application modules or reports with new "Business Intelligence" tools. We already know how to generate reports and write custom applications using SQL,.Net, Visual Studio, etc. All we are looking for is some sort of adapter to connect to our mainframe data. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • How can I loop thru all controls (including ToolStripItems) C#

    - by Murray
    I need to save and restore settings for specific controls on a form. I loop thru all controls and return the one whose name matches the one I want, like so: private static Control GetControlByName(string name, Control.ControlCollection Controls) { Control thisControl = null; foreach (Control c in Controls) { if (c.Name == name) { thisControl = c; break; } if (c.Controls.Count > 0) { thisControl = GetControlByName(name, c.Controls); if (thisControl != null) { break; } } } return thisControl; } From this I can determine the type of control and therefore the property that should be / has been stored. This works well unless the control is one of the ToolStrip family which has been added to a toolstrip. e.g. this.toolStrip.Items.AddRange(new System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripItem[] { this.lblUsername, // ToolStripLabel this.toolStripSeparator1, this.cbxCompany}); // ToolStripComboBox In this case I can see the control I'm interested in (cbxCompany) when debugging, but the name property has no value so the code does not match to it. Any suggestions on how I can get to these controls too? Cheers, Murray

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  • .NET How would I build a DAL to meet my requirments?

    - by Jonno
    Assuming that I must deploy an asp.net app over the following 3 servers: 1) DB - not public 2) 'middle' - not public 3) Web server - public I am not allowed to connect from the web server to the DB directly. I must pass through 'middle' - this is purely to slow down an attacker if they breached the web server. All db access is via stored procedures. No table access. I simply want to provide the web server with a ado dataset (I know many will dislike this, but this is the requirement). Using asmx web services - it works, but XML serialisation is slow and it's an extra set of code to maintain and deploy. Using a ssh/vpn tunnel so that the one connects to the db 'via' the middle server, seems to remove any possible benefit of maintaining 'middle'. Using WCF binary/tcp removes the XML problem, but still there is extra code. Is there an approach that provides the ease of ssh/vpn, but the potential benefit of having the dal on the middle server? Many thanks.

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  • Convert SQL with Inner AND Outer Join to L2S

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I need to convert the below Sproc to a Linq query. At the very bottom is what I have so far. For reference the fields behind the "splat"(not my sproc) are ImmunizationID int, HAReviewID int, ImmunizationMaintID int, ImmunizationOther varchar(50), ImmunizationDate smalldatetime, ImmunizationReasonID int The first two are PK and FK, respectively. The other two ints are linke to the Maint Table where there description is stored. That is what I am stuck on, the INNER JOIN AND the LEFT OUTER JOIN Thanks, SELECT tblHAReviewImmunizations.*, tblMaintItem.ItemDescription, tblMaintItem2.ItemDescription as Reason FROM dbo.tblHAReviewImmunizations INNER JOIN dbo.tblMaintItem ON dbo.tblHAReviewImmunizations.ImmunizationMaintID = dbo.tblMaintItem.ItemID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblMaintItem as tblMaintItem2 ON dbo.tblHAReviewImmunizations.ImmunizationReasonID = tblMaintItem2.ItemID WHERE HAReviewID = @haReviewID My attempt so far -- public static DataTable GetImmunizations(int haReviewID) { using (var context = McpDataContext.Create()) { var currentImmunizations = from haReviewImmunization in context.tblHAReviewImmunizations where haReviewImmunization.HAReviewID == haReviewID join maintItem in context.tblMaintItems on haReviewImmunization.ImmunizationReasonID equals maintItem.ItemID into g from maintItem in g.DefaultIfEmpty() let Immunization = GetImmunizationNameByID( haReviewImmunization.ImmunizationMaintID) select new { haReviewImmunization.ImmunizationDate, haReviewImmunization.ImmunizationOther, Immunization, Reason = maintItem == null ? " " : maintItem.ItemDescription }; return currentImmunizations.CopyLinqToDataTable(); } } private static string GetImmunizationNameByID(int? immunizationID) { using (var context = McpDataContext.Create()) { var domainName = from maintItem in context.tblMaintItems where maintItem.ItemID == immunizationID select maintItem.ItemDescription; return domainName.SingleOrDefault(); } }

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  • How can i zip files in Java and not include files paths

    - by Ignacio
    For example, i want to zip a file stored in /Users/me/Desktop/image.jpg I maded this method: public static Boolean generateZipFile(ArrayList<String> sourcesFilenames, String destinationDir, String zipFilename){ // Create a buffer for reading the files byte[] buf = new byte[1024]; try { // VER SI HAY QUE CREAR EL ROOT PATH boolean result = (new File(destinationDir)).mkdirs(); String zipFullFilename = destinationDir + "/" + zipFilename ; System.out.println(result); // Create the ZIP file ZipOutputStream out = new ZipOutputStream(new FileOutputStream(zipFullFilename)); // Compress the files for (String filename: sourcesFilenames) { FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream(filename); // Add ZIP entry to output stream. out.putNextEntry(new ZipEntry(filename)); // Transfer bytes from the file to the ZIP file int len; while ((len = in.read(buf)) > 0) { out.write(buf, 0, len); } // Complete the entry out.closeEntry(); in.close(); } // Complete the ZIP file out.close(); return true; } catch (IOException e) { return false; } } But when i extract the file, the unzipped files have the full path. I don't want the full path of each file in the zip i only want the filename. How can i made this?

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  • How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

    - by OG Dude
    Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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