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  • problem in handling menu - submenu based on spring security

    - by Nirmal
    Hi All... I have configured spring security core plugin using requestmap table inside the database.. Now inside requestmap table I have all the possible urls and it's equivalent roles who can access that url... Now I want to generate menus and submenus based on the urls stored in requestmap table... So my requirement is to check the urls of menu & submenus against the logged in users privileges... And if logged in user has any one privilege then I need to display that main menu and the available submenus.... For e.g. I have a menu in my project called user which has a following submenus : **Users (main menu)** Manage Users (sub menu) Import Users (sub menu) Now inside my header.gsp I have successfully achieved the above requirement using if else condition, like : if ( privs.contains("/users/manageUsers") || privs.contains("/users/importUsers")) here privs are the list of urls from requestmap table for logged in user. But I want to achieve these using spring security tag lib, so for comparing urls I have find following tag from spring security core documentation : <sec:access url="/users/manageUsers"> But i am bit confuse that how I can replace or condition using tag library.. Is there any tag available which checks from multiple urls and evaluate it to true or false ? Of course I can do using sec:access tag with some flag logic, but is there any tags available which can fulfill my requirement directly ? Thanks in advance...

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  • Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

    - by COB-CSU-AM
    Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Modify existing struct alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to modify the member alignment of an existing struct in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instance to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I do not want to copy the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. The commented line does not work of course. Thanks for help!

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  • Single website multiple connection strings using asp mvc 2 and nhibernate

    - by jjjjj
    Hi In my website i use ASP MVC 2 + Fluent NHibernate as orm, StructureMap for IoC container. There are several databases with identical metadata(and so entities and mappings are the same). On LogOn page user fiils in login, password, rememberme and chooses his server from dropdownlist (in fact he chooses database). Web.config contains all connstrings and we can assume that they won't be changed in run-time. I suppose that it is required to have one session factory per database. Before using multiple databases, i loaded classes to my StructureMap ObjectFactory in Application_Start ObjectFactory.Initialize(init => init.AddRegistry<ObjectRegistry>()); ObjectFactory.Configure(conf => conf.AddRegistry<NhibernateRegistry>()); NhibernateRegistry class: public class NhibernateRegistry : Registry { public NhibernateRegistry() { var sessionFactory = NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); For<Configuration>().Singleton().Use( NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration); For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(sessionFactory); For<ISession>().HybridHttpOrThreadLocalScoped().Use( ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().GetCurrentSession()); } } In Application_BeginRequest i bind opened nhibernate session to asp session(nhibernate session per request) and in EndRequest i unbind them: protected void Application_BeginRequest( object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); } Q1: How can i realize what SessionFactory should i use according to authenticated user? is it something like UserData filled with database name (i use simple FormsAuthentication) For logging i use log4net, namely AdoNetAppender which contains connectionString(in xml, of course). Q2: How can i manage multiple connection strings for this database appender, so logs would be written to current database? I have no idea how to do that except changing xml all the time and reseting xml configuration, but its really bad solution.

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  • Haskell Cons Operator (:)

    - by Carson Myers
    I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

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  • Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

    - by Sagekilla
    Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

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  • Large ListView containing images in Android

    - by Marco W.
    For various Android applications, I need large ListViews, i.e. such views with 100-300 entries. All entries must be loaded in bulk when the application is started, as some sorting and processing is necessary and the application cannot know which items to display first, otherwise. So far, I've been loading the images for all items in bulk as well, which are then saved in an ArrayList<CustomType> together with the rest of the data for each entry. But of course, this is not a good practice, as you're very likely to have an OutOfMemoryException then: The references to all images in the ArrayList prevent the garbage collector from working. So the best solution is, obviously, to load only the text data in bulk whereas the images are then loaded as needed, right? The Google Play application does this, for example: You can see that images are loaded as you scroll to them, i.e. they are probably loaded in the adapter's getView() method. But with Google Play, this is a different problem, anyway, as the images must be loaded from the Internet, which is not the case for me. My problem is not that loading the images takes too long, but storing them requires too much memory. So what should I do with the images? Load in getView(), when they are really needed? Would make scrolling sluggish. So calling an AsyncTask then? Or just a normal Thread? Parametrize it? I could save the images that are already loaded into a HashMap<String,Bitmap>, so that they don't need to be loaded again in getView(). But if this is done, you have the memory problem again: The HashMap stores references to all images, so in the end, you could have the OutOfMemoryException again. I know that there are already lots of questions here that discuss "Lazy loading" of images. But they mainly cover the problem of slow loading, not too much memory consumption.

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Calling from C# to C function which accept a struct array allocated by caller

    - by lifey
    I have the following C struct struct XYZ { void *a; char fn[MAX_FN]; unsigned long l; unsigned long o; }; And I want to call the following function from C#: extern "C" int func(int handle, int *numEntries, XYZ *xyzTbl); Where xyzTbl is an array of XYZ of size numEntires which is allocated by the caller I have defined the following C# struct: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayoutAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi)] public struct XYZ { public System.IntPtr rva; [System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 128)] public string fn; public uint l; public uint o; } and a method: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport(@"xyzdll.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public static extern Int32 func(Int32 handle, ref Int32 numntries, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray)] XYZ[] arr); Then I try to call the function : XYZ xyz = new XYZ[numEntries]; for (...) xyz[i] = new XYZ(); func(handle,numEntries,xyz); Of course it does not work. Can someone shed light on what I am doing wrong ?

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  • writing a meta refresh method for rails

    - by aaronstacy
    I want a method in app/controllers/application.rb that can prepend/append text to whatever template gets rendered. Of course I can't call render twice w/o getting a double render error, so is this possible? I want to redirect after a delay using a meta refresh. Here's what I've got: app/controllers/application_controller.rb: def redirect_after_delay (url, delay) @redirect_delay = delay @redirect_url = url render end app/views/layouts/application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <%= yield :refresh_tag %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> So then if I want to add a redirect-after-delay, I add the following to 1) my controller and 2) the action's view: app/controllers/my_controller.rb def my_action redirect_after_delay 'http://www.google.com', 3 if some_condition end app/views/my_controller/my_action.html.erb <% content_for :refresh_tag do %> <meta http-equiv='refresh' content='<%=@redirect_delay%>;url=<%=@redirect_url%>'> <% end %> <h1>Please wait while you are redirected...</h1> Since the content_for block never changes, is it possible to do this in some generic way so that I don't have to put <%= yield :refresh_tag %> in each template? (e.g. could redirect_after_delay add it into whatever template is going to be rendered?)

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  • Handling duplicate insertion

    - by Francis
    So I've got this piece of code which, logically should work but Entity Framework is behaving unexpectedly. Here: foreach (SomeClass someobject in allObjects) { Supplier supplier = new Supplier(); supplier.primary_key = someobject.id; supplier.name = someobject.displayname; try { sm.Add(supplier); ro.Created++; } catch (Exception ex) { ro.Error++; } } Here's what I have in sm.Add() public Supplier Add(Supplier supplier) { try { _ctx.AddToSupplier(supplier); _ctx.SaveChanges(); return supplier; } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } I can have records in allObjects that have the same id. My piece of code needs to support this and just move on to the next and try to insert it, which I think should work. If this happens, an exception is throw, saying that records with dupe PKs cannot be inserted (of course). The exception mentions the value of the PK, for example 1000. All is well, a new supplier is passed to sm.Add() containing a PK that's never been used before. (1001) Weirdly though, when doing SaveChanges(), EF will whine about not being able to insert records with dupe PKs. The exception still mentions 1000 even though supplier contains 10001 in primary_key. I feel this is me not using _ctx properly. Do I need to call something else to sync it ?

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  • Where does the delete control go in my Cocoa user interface?

    - by Graham Lee
    Hi, I have a Cocoa application managing a collection of objects. The collection is presented in an NSCollectionView, with a "new object" button nearby so users can add to the collection. Of course, I know that having a "delete object" button next to that button would be dangerous, because people might accidentally knock it when they mean to create something. I don't like having "are you sure you want to..." dialogues, so I dispensed with the "delete object". There's a menu item under Edit for removing an object, and you can hit Cmd-backspace to do the same. The app supports undoing delete actions. Now I'm getting support emails ranging from "does it have to be so hard to delete things" to "why can't I delete objects?". That suggests I've made it a bit too hard, so what's the happy middle ground? I see applications from Apple that do it my way, or with the add/remove buttons next to each other, but I hate that latter option. Is there another good (and preferably common) convention for delete controls? I thought about an action menu but I don't think I have any other actions that would go in it, rendering the menu a bit thin.

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  • C++ Constructor initialization list strangeness

    - by Andy
    I have always been a good boy when writing my classes, prefixing all member variables with m_: class Test { int m_int1; int m_int2; public: Test(int int1, int int2) : m_int1(int int1), m_int2(int int2) {} }; void main() { Test t(10, 20); // Just an example } However, recently I forgot to do that and ended up writing: class Test { int int1; int int2; public: // Very questionable, but of course I meant to assign ::int1 to this->int1! Test(int int1, int int2) : int1(int1), int2(int2) {} }; Believe it or not, the code compiled with no errors/warnings and the assignments took place correctly! It was only when doing the final check before checking in my code when I realised what I had done. My question is: why did my code compile? Is something like that allowed in the C++ standard, or is it simply a case of the compiler being clever? In case you were wondering, I was using Visual Studio 2008 Thank you.

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  • For business people to manage, keep binary images in MySQL or just the urls?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hello everyone: I am working on a task to enable image uploading and auto-scaling(from full sized to thumbnail) by jQuery & PHP. I can naturally come up with two approaches : First, store both images as binary objects directly into MySQL; Second, store only urls to the images and keep the images somewhere on server. The images are for everyone to view, so there are no security restrictions, as far as I know. Personally I don't have any preference, however, at the end of the day, it is the business people that are going to manage the images as part of the system(CRUD). So I am wondering which seems to be a bit better for them? Of course I am building a easy-to-use, visualize web interface for the staff to control the process, but I am not sure if that is enough. Lessons told me that if I don't think for the future and seek the most flexible approach, the I will probably screw myself sooner or later. PS. The following link is what I've found so far, which is pretty cool, no flash involved :) Andrew Valum's ajax image upload jQuery plugin

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  • Conditional insert as a single database transaction in HSQLDB 1.8?

    - by Kevin Pauli
    I'm using a particular database table like a "Set" data structure, i.e., you can attempt to insert the same row several times, but it will only contain one instance. The primary key is a natural key. For example, I want the following series of operations to work fine, and result in only one row for Oklahoma: insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Texas'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); I am of course getting an error due to the duplicate primary key on subsequent inserts of the same value. Is there a way to make the insert conditional, so that these errors are not thrown? I.e. only do the the insert if the natural key does not already exist? I know I could do a where clause and a subquery to test for the row's existence first, but it seems that would be expensive. That's 2 physical operations for one logical "conditional insert" operation. Anything like this in SQL? FYI I am using HSQLDB 1.8

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  • How to invoke make install for one subdirectory of Qt project

    - by chalup
    I'm working on custom library and I wish users could just use it by adding: CONFIG += mylib to their pro files. This can be done by installing mylib.prf file to %QTDIR%/mkspec/features. I've checked out in Qt Mobility project how to create and install such file, but there is one thing I'd like to do differently. If I correctly understood the pro/pri files of Qt Mobility, inside the example projects they don't really use CONFIG += mobility, instead they add QtMobility sources to include path and share the *.obj directory with main library project. For my library I'd like to have examples that are as independent projects as possible, i.e. projects that can be compiled from anywhere once MyLib is compiled and installed. I have following directory structure: mylib | |- examples |- src |- tests \- mylib.pro It seems that the easiest way to achieve what I described above is creating mylib.pro like this: TEMPLATE = subdirs SUBDIRS += src SUBDIRS += examples tests:SUBDIRS += tests And somehow enforce invoking "cd src && make install" after building src. What is the best way to do this? Of course any other suggestions for automatic library deployment before examples compilation are welcome.

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

    - by stimpy77
    Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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  • Pre-formatting text to prevent reflowing

    - by mattjn
    I've written a fairly simple script that will take elements (in this case, <p> elements are the main concern) and type their contents out like a typewriter, one by one. The problem is that as it types, when it reaches the edge of the container mid-word, it reflows the text and jumps to the next line (like word wrap in any text editor). This is, of course, expected behavior; however, I would like to pre-format the text so that this does not happen. I figure that inserting <br> before the word that will wrap would be the best solution, but I'm not quite sure what the best way to go about doing that is that supports all font sizes and container widths, while also keeping any HTML tags intact. I figure something involving a hidden <span> element, adding text to it gradually and checking its width against the container width might be on the right track, but I'm not quite sure how to actually put this together. Any help or suggestions on better methods would be appreciated.

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  • MySQL LIMIT 1 but query 15 rows?

    - by Ian
    Basically what I'm trying to do is compare the ID's of rows against 15 results in MySQL, eliminating all but 1 (using NOT IN) and then pull that result. Now normally this would be fine by itself, however the order of the 15 rows I'm doing the SQL query for are constantly changing based on a ranking, so there is a possibility that between the time the ranking updates, and the ajax request (which I submit the ID's for NOT IN) more than just one ID has changed, which would of course bring back more than one row which I do not want. So in short, is there a way in which I can query 15 rows, but only return one? Without having to run two separate queries. Any help is appreciated, thank you. EXAMPLE: Say I have 7 items in my database, and I'm displaying 5 on the page to the user. These are what are being displayed to the user: Apple Orange Kiwi Banana Grape But in the database I also have Peach Blackberry Now what I want to do is if the user deletes an item from their list, it will add another item (based on a ranking they have) Now the issue is, in order to know what they have on their list at the moment I send the remaining items to the database (say they deleted Kiwi, I would send Apple, Orange, Banana, and Grape) So now I select the highest ranked 5 items from are remaining six items, make sure they are not the ones already displayed on the page, and then add the new one to list (either Peach or Blackberry) All good and well, except that if both peach and blackberry now outrank grape, then I will be returning two results instead of just one. Because it would've searched... Apple Orange Banana Peach Blackberry and excluded... Apple Orange Banana Grape Which leaves us with both Peach and Blackberry, instead of just Peach or Blackberry

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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  • T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

    - by Shayne
    I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

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  • How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

    - by Joshua Carmody
    I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

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  • MySQL query against pseudo-key-value pair data in WordPress custom query

    - by andrevr
    I'm writing a custom WordPress query to use some of the data which the Woothemes Diarise theme creates. Diarise is an event planner theme with calendar blah, blah... and uses custom fields to store the event start and end dates in WP custom fields in the *wp_postmeta* table, which implements a key-value store. So for each post in the "event" category, there are 2 records in *wp_postmeta*, named *event_start_date* and *event_end_date* that I'm interested in. The task is to compare a tourist's arrival and departure dates with the start and end dates of events, yielding a what's on list of events available. We thought we'd killed it with a grand flash of logic, that goes like this: Disregard any event that ends before the tourist arrives, and any that begin after the departure date. I wrote this query: SELECT wposts.* FROM wp_posts wposts LEFT JOIN wp_postmeta wpostmeta ON wposts.ID = wpostmeta.post_id LEFT JOIN wp_term_relationships ON (wposts.ID = wp_term_relationships.object_id) LEFT JOIN wp_term_taxonomy ON (wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id = wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id) WHERE wp_term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category' AND wp_term_taxonomy.term_id IN(3,4) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_start_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) > '2010-07-31' ) ) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_end_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) < '2010-05-01' ) ) ) ORDER BY wpostmeta.meta_value ASC And, of course it returns no records. The problem I believe is in the dual reference to wpostmeta.meta_key, but how to get around that?

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  • WPF - Dynamically access a specific item of a collection in XAML

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I have a data source ('SampleAppearanceDefinitions'), which holds a single collection ('Definitions'). Each item in the collection has several properties, including Color, which is what I'm interested in here. I want, in XAML, to display the Color of a particular item in the collection as text. I can do this just fine using this code below... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[0].Color}" The only problem is, this requires me to hard-code the index of the item in the Definitions collection (I've used 0 in the example above). What I want to do in fact is to get that value from a property in my current DataContext ('AppearanceID'). One might imagine the correct code to look like this.... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[{Binding AppearanceID}].Color}" ...but of course, this is wrong. Can anyone tell me what the correct way to do this is? Is it possible in XAML only? It feels like it ought to be, but I can't work out or find how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! AT

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