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  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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  • C++ Constructor initialization list strangeness

    - by Andy
    I have always been a good boy when writing my classes, prefixing all member variables with m_: class Test { int m_int1; int m_int2; public: Test(int int1, int int2) : m_int1(int int1), m_int2(int int2) {} }; void main() { Test t(10, 20); // Just an example } However, recently I forgot to do that and ended up writing: class Test { int int1; int int2; public: // Very questionable, but of course I meant to assign ::int1 to this->int1! Test(int int1, int int2) : int1(int1), int2(int2) {} }; Believe it or not, the code compiled with no errors/warnings and the assignments took place correctly! It was only when doing the final check before checking in my code when I realised what I had done. My question is: why did my code compile? Is something like that allowed in the C++ standard, or is it simply a case of the compiler being clever? In case you were wondering, I was using Visual Studio 2008 Thank you.

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  • Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

    - by COB-CSU-AM
    Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question

    - by songdogtech
    Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question I'm using the Javascript function below for Twitter sharing (as well as other services; the function code is simplified to just Twitter for this question) that grabs the to-be-shared page URL and title and it is invoked in the link with onclick. That results in the Twitter share page loading in a pop up browser window, i.e.<img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> In order to be consistent with other design aspects of the site, what I'd like to be able to do is have the Twitter share page open not in a standard browser window but in a Fancybox (jQuery) window. Fancybox can load an external page in an iFrame when the img or href link contains a class (in this case class="iframe" ) in the link and in the document ready function in the header. Right now, of course, when I give the iframe class to the link that also has the onclick share.tw(), I get two popups: one browser window popup with the correct Twitter share page loaded, and a Fancybox jQuery popup that shows a site 404. How can I change the function to use Fancybox to present the Twitter share page? Is that a correct way to approach it? Or is there a better way, such as implementing the share function in jQuery, too? Thanks... Javascript share function: var share = { tw:function(title,url) { this.share('http://twitter.com/home?status=##URL##+##TITLE##',title,url); }, share:function(tpl,title,url) { if(!url) url = encodeURIComponent(window.location); if(!title) title = encodeURIComponent(document.title); tpl = tpl.replace("##URL##",url); tpl = tpl.replace("##TITLE##",title); window.open(tpl,"sharewindow"+tpl.substr(6,15),"width=640,height=480"); } }; It is invoked, i.e.: <img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> Fancybox function, invoked by adding class="iframe" in the img or href link $(".iframe").fancybox({ 'width' : '100%', 'height' : '100%', 'autoScale' : false, 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'type' : 'iframe' });

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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  • Google App Engine: TypeError problem with Models

    - by Rosarch
    I'm running Google App Engine on the dev server. Here is my models file: from google.appengine.ext import db import pickle import re re_dept_code = re.compile(r'[A-Z]{2,}') re_course_number = re.compile(r'[0-9]{4}') class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): sink = db.ReferenceProperty() tails = db.ListProperty() class DependencyArcTail(db.Model): courses = db.ListProperty() It gives this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 3192, in _HandleRequest self._Dispatch(dispatcher, self.rfile, outfile, env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 3135, in _Dispatch base_env_dict=env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 516, in Dispatch base_env_dict=base_env_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2394, in Dispatch self._module_dict) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2304, in ExecuteCGI reset_modules = exec_script(handler_path, cgi_path, hook) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 2200, in ExecuteOrImportScript exec module_code in script_module.__dict__ File "main.py", line 19, in <module> from src.Models import Course, findCourse, validateCourse, dictForJSON, clearAndBuildDependencyGraph File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1929, in load_module return self.FindAndLoadModule(submodule, fullname, search_path) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1831, in FindAndLoadModule description) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\dev_appserver.py", line 1782, in LoadModuleRestricted description) File "src\Models.py", line 14, in <module> class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): File "src\Models.py", line 17, in DependencyArcHead tails = db.ListProperty() TypeError: __init__() takes at least 2 arguments (1 given) What am I doing wrong?

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  • How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

    - by Joshua Carmody
    I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

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  • Passing Extras and screen rotation

    - by Luis A. Florit
    This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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  • Handling duplicate insertion

    - by Francis
    So I've got this piece of code which, logically should work but Entity Framework is behaving unexpectedly. Here: foreach (SomeClass someobject in allObjects) { Supplier supplier = new Supplier(); supplier.primary_key = someobject.id; supplier.name = someobject.displayname; try { sm.Add(supplier); ro.Created++; } catch (Exception ex) { ro.Error++; } } Here's what I have in sm.Add() public Supplier Add(Supplier supplier) { try { _ctx.AddToSupplier(supplier); _ctx.SaveChanges(); return supplier; } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } I can have records in allObjects that have the same id. My piece of code needs to support this and just move on to the next and try to insert it, which I think should work. If this happens, an exception is throw, saying that records with dupe PKs cannot be inserted (of course). The exception mentions the value of the PK, for example 1000. All is well, a new supplier is passed to sm.Add() containing a PK that's never been used before. (1001) Weirdly though, when doing SaveChanges(), EF will whine about not being able to insert records with dupe PKs. The exception still mentions 1000 even though supplier contains 10001 in primary_key. I feel this is me not using _ctx properly. Do I need to call something else to sync it ?

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  • Terminal-based snake game: input thread manipulates output

    - by enlightened
    I'm writing a snake game for the terminal, i.e. output via print. The following works just fine: while status[snake_monad] do print to_string draw canvas, compose_all([ frame, specs, snake_to_hash(snake[snake_monad]) ]) turn! snake_monad, get_dir move! snake_monad, specs sleep 0.25 end But I don't want the turn!ing to block, of course. So I put it into a new Thread and let it loop: Thread.new do loop do turn! snake_monad, get_dir end end while status[snake_monad] do ... # no turn! here ... end Which also works logically (the snake is turning), but the output is somehow interspersed with newlines. As soon as I kill the input thread (^C) it looks normal again. So why and how does the thread have any effect on my output? And how do I work around this issue? (I don't know much about threads, even less about them in ruby. Input and output concurrently on the same terminal make the matter worse, I guess...) Also (not really important): Wanting my program as pure as possible, would it be somewhat easily possible to get the input non-blockingly while passing everything around? Thank you!

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  • Unobstrusive pseudo-classes and attribute selectors emulation in IE

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm trying to emulate some pseudo-classes and attribute selectors in Internet Explorer 6 and 7, such as :focus, :hover or [type=text]. So far, I've managed to add a class name to the affected elements: $("input, textarea, select") .hover(function(){ $(this).addClass("hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("hover"); }) .focus(function(){ $(this).addClass("focus"); }) .blur(function(){ $(this).removeClass("focus"); }); $("input[type=text]").each(function(){ $(this).addClass("text"); }); However, I'm still forced to duplicate selector in my style sheets: textarea:focus, textarea.focus{ } And, to make things worse, IE6 seems to ignore all the selectors when it finds an attribute: input[type=text], input.text{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } And, of course, IE6 ignores selectors with multiple classes: input.text.focus{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } So I'm likely to end up with this mess: input[type=text]{ /* Rules here */ } input.text{ /* Same rules again */ } input[type=text]:focus{ } input.text_and_focus{ } input.text_and_hover{ } input.text_and_focus_and_hover{ } My question: is there any way to read the rules or computed style defined for a CSS selector and apply it to certain elements, so I only need to maintain one set of standard CSS?

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  • ojspc always returns 0 on errors

    - by Matt McCormick
    In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

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  • Uniquing with Existing Core Data Entities

    - by warrenm
    I'm using Core Data to store a lot (1000s) of items. A pair of properties on each item are used to determine uniqueness, so when a new item comes in, I compare it against the existing items before inserting it. Since the incoming data is in the form of an RSS feed, there are often many duplicates, and the cost of the uniquing step is O(N^2), which has become significant. Right now, I create a set of existing items before iterating over the list of (possible) new items. My theory is that on the first iteration, all the items will be faulted in, and assuming we aren't pressed for memory, most of those items will remain resident over the course of the iteration. I see my options thusly: Use string comparison for uniquing, iterating over all "new" items and comparing to all existing items (Current approach) Use a predicate to filter the set of existing items against the properties of the "new" items. Use a predicate with Core Data to determine uniqueness of each "new" item (without retrieving the set of existing items). Is option 3 likely to be faster than my current approach? Do you know of a better way?

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  • How to invoke make install for one subdirectory of Qt project

    - by chalup
    I'm working on custom library and I wish users could just use it by adding: CONFIG += mylib to their pro files. This can be done by installing mylib.prf file to %QTDIR%/mkspec/features. I've checked out in Qt Mobility project how to create and install such file, but there is one thing I'd like to do differently. If I correctly understood the pro/pri files of Qt Mobility, inside the example projects they don't really use CONFIG += mobility, instead they add QtMobility sources to include path and share the *.obj directory with main library project. For my library I'd like to have examples that are as independent projects as possible, i.e. projects that can be compiled from anywhere once MyLib is compiled and installed. I have following directory structure: mylib | |- examples |- src |- tests \- mylib.pro It seems that the easiest way to achieve what I described above is creating mylib.pro like this: TEMPLATE = subdirs SUBDIRS += src SUBDIRS += examples tests:SUBDIRS += tests And somehow enforce invoking "cd src && make install" after building src. What is the best way to do this? Of course any other suggestions for automatic library deployment before examples compilation are welcome.

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Where does the delete control go in my Cocoa user interface?

    - by Graham Lee
    Hi, I have a Cocoa application managing a collection of objects. The collection is presented in an NSCollectionView, with a "new object" button nearby so users can add to the collection. Of course, I know that having a "delete object" button next to that button would be dangerous, because people might accidentally knock it when they mean to create something. I don't like having "are you sure you want to..." dialogues, so I dispensed with the "delete object". There's a menu item under Edit for removing an object, and you can hit Cmd-backspace to do the same. The app supports undoing delete actions. Now I'm getting support emails ranging from "does it have to be so hard to delete things" to "why can't I delete objects?". That suggests I've made it a bit too hard, so what's the happy middle ground? I see applications from Apple that do it my way, or with the add/remove buttons next to each other, but I hate that latter option. Is there another good (and preferably common) convention for delete controls? I thought about an action menu but I don't think I have any other actions that would go in it, rendering the menu a bit thin.

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  • writing a meta refresh method for rails

    - by aaronstacy
    I want a method in app/controllers/application.rb that can prepend/append text to whatever template gets rendered. Of course I can't call render twice w/o getting a double render error, so is this possible? I want to redirect after a delay using a meta refresh. Here's what I've got: app/controllers/application_controller.rb: def redirect_after_delay (url, delay) @redirect_delay = delay @redirect_url = url render end app/views/layouts/application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <%= yield :refresh_tag %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> So then if I want to add a redirect-after-delay, I add the following to 1) my controller and 2) the action's view: app/controllers/my_controller.rb def my_action redirect_after_delay 'http://www.google.com', 3 if some_condition end app/views/my_controller/my_action.html.erb <% content_for :refresh_tag do %> <meta http-equiv='refresh' content='<%=@redirect_delay%>;url=<%=@redirect_url%>'> <% end %> <h1>Please wait while you are redirected...</h1> Since the content_for block never changes, is it possible to do this in some generic way so that I don't have to put <%= yield :refresh_tag %> in each template? (e.g. could redirect_after_delay add it into whatever template is going to be rendered?)

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  • Calling from C# to C function which accept a struct array allocated by caller

    - by lifey
    I have the following C struct struct XYZ { void *a; char fn[MAX_FN]; unsigned long l; unsigned long o; }; And I want to call the following function from C#: extern "C" int func(int handle, int *numEntries, XYZ *xyzTbl); Where xyzTbl is an array of XYZ of size numEntires which is allocated by the caller I have defined the following C# struct: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayoutAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi)] public struct XYZ { public System.IntPtr rva; [System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 128)] public string fn; public uint l; public uint o; } and a method: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport(@"xyzdll.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public static extern Int32 func(Int32 handle, ref Int32 numntries, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray)] XYZ[] arr); Then I try to call the function : XYZ xyz = new XYZ[numEntries]; for (...) xyz[i] = new XYZ(); func(handle,numEntries,xyz); Of course it does not work. Can someone shed light on what I am doing wrong ?

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  • This is a great job opportunity!!! [closed]

    - by Stuart Gordon
    ASP.NET MVC Web Developer / London / £450pd / £25-£50,000pa / Interested contact [email protected] ! As a web developer within the engineering department, you will work with a team of enthusiastic developers building a new ASP.NET MVC platform for online products utilising exciting cutting edge technologies and methodologies (elements of Agile, Scrum, Lean, Kanban and XP) as well as developing new stand-alone web products that conform to W3C standards. Key Responsibilities and Objectives: Develop ASP.NET MVC websites utilising Frameworks and enterprise search technology. Develop and expand content management and delivery solutions. Help maintain and extend existing products. Formulate ideas and visions for new products and services. Be a proactive part of the development team and provide support and assistance to others when required. Qualification/Experience Required: The ideal candidate will have a web development background and be educated to degree level in a Computer Science/IT related course plus ASP.NET MVC experience. The successful candidate needs to be able to demonstrate commercial experience in all or most of the following skills: Essential: ASP.NET MVC with C# (Visual Studio), Castle, nHibernate, XHTML and JavaScript. Experience of Test Driven Development (TDD) using tools such as NUnit. Preferable: Experience of Continuous Integration (TeamCity and MSBuild), SQL Server (T-SQL), experience of source control such as Subversion (plus TortioseSVN), JQuery. Learn: Fluent NHibernate, S#arp Architecture, Spark (View engine), Behaviour Driven Design (BDD) using MSpec. Furthermore, you will possess good working knowledge of W3C web standards, web usability, web accessibility and understand the basics of search engine optimisation (SEO). You will also be a quick learner, have good communication skills and be a self-motivated and organised individual.

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  • MySQL LIMIT 1 but query 15 rows?

    - by Ian
    Basically what I'm trying to do is compare the ID's of rows against 15 results in MySQL, eliminating all but 1 (using NOT IN) and then pull that result. Now normally this would be fine by itself, however the order of the 15 rows I'm doing the SQL query for are constantly changing based on a ranking, so there is a possibility that between the time the ranking updates, and the ajax request (which I submit the ID's for NOT IN) more than just one ID has changed, which would of course bring back more than one row which I do not want. So in short, is there a way in which I can query 15 rows, but only return one? Without having to run two separate queries. Any help is appreciated, thank you. EXAMPLE: Say I have 7 items in my database, and I'm displaying 5 on the page to the user. These are what are being displayed to the user: Apple Orange Kiwi Banana Grape But in the database I also have Peach Blackberry Now what I want to do is if the user deletes an item from their list, it will add another item (based on a ranking they have) Now the issue is, in order to know what they have on their list at the moment I send the remaining items to the database (say they deleted Kiwi, I would send Apple, Orange, Banana, and Grape) So now I select the highest ranked 5 items from are remaining six items, make sure they are not the ones already displayed on the page, and then add the new one to list (either Peach or Blackberry) All good and well, except that if both peach and blackberry now outrank grape, then I will be returning two results instead of just one. Because it would've searched... Apple Orange Banana Peach Blackberry and excluded... Apple Orange Banana Grape Which leaves us with both Peach and Blackberry, instead of just Peach or Blackberry

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  • T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

    - by Shayne
    I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

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  • WPF - Dynamically access a specific item of a collection in XAML

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I have a data source ('SampleAppearanceDefinitions'), which holds a single collection ('Definitions'). Each item in the collection has several properties, including Color, which is what I'm interested in here. I want, in XAML, to display the Color of a particular item in the collection as text. I can do this just fine using this code below... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[0].Color}" The only problem is, this requires me to hard-code the index of the item in the Definitions collection (I've used 0 in the example above). What I want to do in fact is to get that value from a property in my current DataContext ('AppearanceID'). One might imagine the correct code to look like this.... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[{Binding AppearanceID}].Color}" ...but of course, this is wrong. Can anyone tell me what the correct way to do this is? Is it possible in XAML only? It feels like it ought to be, but I can't work out or find how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! AT

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