Search Results

Search found 9106 results on 365 pages for 'course'.

Page 291/365 | < Previous Page | 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298  | Next Page >

• What is the most efficient way of associating information with a Type in .Net?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I want to associate custom data to a Type, and retrieve that data in run-time, blasingly fast. This is just my imagination, of my perfect world: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetMyInformation(); this would be very fast... of course this does not exist! If it did I would not be asking. hehe ;) This is the way using custom attributes: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetCustomAttribute("MyInformation"); this is slow because it requires a lookup of the string "MyInformation" This is a way using a Dictionary<Type, MyInformation: var myInfo = myInformationDictionary[typeof(MyClass)]; This is also slow because it is still a lookup of 'typeof(MyClass)'. I know that dictionary is very fast, but this is not enough... it is not as fast as calling a method. It is not even the same order of speed. I am not saying I want it to be as fast as a method call. I want to associate information with a type and access it as fast as possible. I am asking whether there is a better way, or event a best way of doing it. Any ideas?? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Which way to go in Linux 3D programming?

  - by Tek

  I'm looking for some answers for a project I'm thinking of. I've searched and from what I understand (correct me if I'm wrong) the only way the program I want to make will work is through 3D application. Let me explain. I plan to make a studio production program but it's unique in the fact that I want to be able to make it fluid. Let me explain. Imagine Microsoft's Surface program where you're able to touch and drag pictures across the screen. Instead of pictures I want them to be sound samples (wavs,mp3,etc). Of course instead the input will be with the mouse but if I ever do finish the project I would totally add touch screen input compatibility! Anyway, I'm guessing there's "physics" to do with it which is why I'm thinking that even though it'll be a 2D application I'll need to code it in a 3D environment. Assuming that I'm correct in how I want to approach my project, where can I start learning about 3D programming? I actually come from PHP programming which will make C++ easier for me to learn. But I don't even know where to start. If I'm not wrong OpenGL is the most up to date API as far as I know. Anyway, please give me your insights guys. I could really use some guidance here since I could totally be wrong in everything that I wrote :)

  Read the article

• C++ Constructor With Parameters Won't Initialize, Errors C2059 and C2228

  - by Some Girl

  I'm a C# programmer trying to muddle through C++ to create a Windows Forms Application. I have a Windows Form that makes use of a user-created class. Basically I'm trying to use a constructor that takes parameters, but my form won't let me initialize the object with parameter. Here's the code, hopefully somebody can explain the problem to me because I'm completely baffled... Here's my header file: BankAcct.h public ref class BankAcct { private: int money; public: BankAcct(); BankAcct(int); void Deposit(int); void GetBalance(int&); }; And my definition file: BankAcct.cpp #include "StdAfx.h" #include "BankAcct.h" BankAcct::BankAcct() { money = 0; } BankAcct::BankAcct(int startAmt) { money = startAmt; } void BankAcct::Deposit(int depAmt) { money += depAmt; } void BankAcct::GetBalance(int& balance) { balance = money; } And finally my main form. Won't copy the whole thing, of course, but I'm trying to declare the new bank account object, and start it with a balance of say $50. private: BankAcct myAccount(50); //does not work! WHY?? //private: //BankAcct myAccount; //works then in the form constructor my code is this: public: frmBank(void) { InitializeComponent(); int bal; myAccount.GetBalance(bal); lblBankBalance->Text += Convert::ToString(bal); } I've included the BankAcct.h file at the top of my frmBank.h, what else am I doing wrong here? It works great if I use the default constructor (the one that starts the bank balance at zero). I get the following error messages: error C2059: syntax error: 'constant' and error C2228: left of '.GetBalance' must have class/struct/union Thank you for any and all help on this one!!

  Read the article

• How to render all records from a nested set into a real html tree

  - by Christoph Schiessl

  I'm using the awesome_nested_set plugin in my Rails project. I have two models that look like this (simplified): class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :categories end class Category < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer # Columns in the categories table: lft, rgt and parent_id acts_as_nested_set :scope => :customer_id validates_presence_of :name # Further validations... end The tree in the database is constructed as expected. All the values of parent_id, lft and rgt are correct. The tree has multiple root nodes (which is of course allowed in awesome_nested_set). Now, I want to render all categories of a given customer in a correctly sorted tree like structure: for example nested <ul> tags. This wouldn't be too difficult but I need it to be efficient (the less sql queries the better). Update: Figured out that it is possible to calculate the number of children for any given Node in the tree without further SQL queries: number_of_children = (node.rgt - node.lft - 1)/2. This doesn't solve the problem but it may prove to be helpful.

  Read the article

• lapply slower than for-loop when used for a BiomaRt query. Is that expected?

  - by ptocquin

  I would like to query a database using BiomaRt package. I have loci and want to retrieve some related information, let say description. I first try to use lapply but was surprise by the time needed for the task to be performed. I thus tried a more basic for-loop and get a faster result. Is that expected or is something wrong with my code or with my understanding of apply ? I read other posts dealing with *apply vs for-loop performance (Here, for example) and I was aware that improved performance should not be expected but I don't understand why performance here is actually lower. Here is a reproducible example. 1) Loading the library and selecting the database : library("biomaRt") athaliana <- useMart("plants_mart_14") athaliana <- useDataset("athaliana_eg_gene",mart=athaliana) 2) Querying the database : loci <- c("at1g01300", "at1g01800", "at1g01900", "at1g02335", "at1g02790", "at1g03220", "at1g03230", "at1g04040", "at1g04110", "at1g05240" ) I create a function for the use in lapply : foo <- function(loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci,athaliana) } When I use this function on the first element : > system.time(foo(cwp_loci[1])) utilisateur système écoulé 0.020 0.004 1.599 When I use lapply to retrieve the data for all values : > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.220 0.000 16.376 I then created a new function, adding a for-loop : foo2 <- function(loci) { for (i in loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci[i],athaliana) } } Here is the result : > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.204 0.004 10.919 Of course, this will be applied to a big list of loci, so the best performing option is needed. I thank you for assistance. EDIT Following recommendation of @MartinMorgan Simply passing the vector loci to getBM greatly improves the query efficiency. Simpler is better. > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.236 0.024 110.512 > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.208 0.040 116.099 > system.time(foo(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.028 0.000 6.193

  Read the article

• std::vector elements initializing

  - by Chameleon

  std::vector<int> v1(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>> v2(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>::const_iterator> v3(1000); How elements of these 3 vectors initialized? About int, I test it and I saw that all elements become 0. Is this standard? I believed that primitives remain undefined. I create a vector with 300000000 elements, give non-zero values, delete it and recreate it, to avoid OS memory clear for data safety. Elements of recreated vector were 0 too. What about iterator? Is there a initial value (0) for default constructor or initial value remains undefined? When I check this, iterators point to 0, but this can be OS When I create a special object to track constructors, I saw that for first object, vector run the default constructor and for all others it run the copy constructor. Is this standard? Is there a way to completely avoid initialization of elements? Or I must create my own vector? (Oh my God, I always say NOT ANOTHER VECTOR IMPLEMENTATION) I ask because I use ultra huge sparse matrices with parallel processing, so I cannot use push_back() and of course I don't want useless initialization, when later I will change the value.

  Read the article

• How should I handle header files in a bundle?

  - by ldiqual

  I want to develop a program that relies on plugins (here: loadable bundles) to work. Multiple plugins are asked to use the same AFNetworking ressource to make network requests. However, I don't know where to put AFNetworking and CustomPluginProtocol headers. Here is how my program structure looks like for now: MyApp.xcodeproj - AFNetworking - Header.h - Plugins - Plugin1.xcodeproj - PrincipalClass.m - Plugin2.xcodeproj - PrincipalClass.m - Classes - CustomPluginProtocol.h - MainClass.m Of course, every principalClass from PluginN complies to the CustomPluginProtocol. Do the headers have to be copied in each bundle ? Can I just include the main program AFNetworking headers from my plugins ? If so (and that's what I do for now), I don't have any completion. How can I get it ? Edit Ok, so maybe I wasn't clear in my question. I want my plugins to use sources from the main application, let's say CommonClass.m and CommonClass.h. Do the plugins need CommonClass.h in their bundle, and if not, how do I enable completion when I'm in the plugin scope ?

  Read the article

• How can I make this simple C# generics factory work?

  - by Kevin Brassen

  I have this design: public interface IFactory<T> { T Create(); T CreateWithSensibleDefaults(); } public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... The fictitious Apple and Banana here do not necessarily share any common types (other than object, of course). I don't want clients to have to depend on specific factories, so instead, you can just ask a FactoryManager for a new type. It has a FactoryForType method: IFactory<T> FactoryForType<T>(); Now you can invoke the appropriate interface methods with something like FactoryForType<Apple>().Create(). So far, so good. But there's a problem at the implementation level: how do I store this mapping from types to IFactory<T>s? The naive answer is an IDictionary<Type, IFactory<T>>, but that doesn't work since there's no type covariance on the T (I'm using C# 3.5). Am I just stuck with an IDictionary<Type, object> and doing the casting manually?

  Read the article

• TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

  - by Brian

  On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

  Read the article

• Stable/repeatable random sort (MySQL, Rails)

  - by Matt Rogish

  I'd like to paginate through a randomly sorted list of ActiveRecord models (rows from MySQL database). However, this randomization needs to persist on a per-session basis, so that other people that visit the website also receive a random, paginate-able list of records. Let's say there are enough entities (tens of thousands) that storing the randomly sorted ID values in either the session or a cookie is too large, so I must temporarily persist it in some other way (MySQL, file, etc.). Initially I thought I could create a function based on the session ID and the page ID (returning the object IDs for that page) however since the object ID values in MySQL are not sequential (there are gaps), that seemed to fall apart as I was poking at it. The nice thing is that it would require no/minimal storage but the downsides are that it is likely pretty complex to implement and probably CPU intensive. My feeling is I should create an intersection table, something like: random_sorts( sort_id, created_at, user_id NULL if guest) random_sort_items( sort_id, item_id, position ) And then simply store the 'sort_id' in the session. Then, I can paginate the random_sorts WHERE sort_id = n ORDER BY position LIMIT... as usual. Of course, I'd have to put some sort of a reaper in there to remove them after some period of inactivity (based on random_sorts.created_at). Unfortunately, I'd have to invalidate the sort as new objects were created (and/or old objects being removed, although deletion is very rare). And, as load increases the size/performance of this table (even properly indexed) drops. It seems like this ought to be a solved problem but I can't find any rails plugins that do this... Any ideas? Thanks!!

  Read the article

• Django: Create custom template tag -> ImportError

  - by Alexander Scholz

  I'm sorry to ask this again, but I tried several solutions from stack overflow and some tutorials and I couldn't create a custom template tag yet. All I get is ImportError: No module named test_tag when I try to start the server via python manage.py runserver. I created a very basic template tag (found here: django templatetag?) like so: My folder structure: demo manage.py test __init__.py settings.py urls.py ... templatetags __init__.py test_tag.py test_tag.py: from django import template register = template.Library() @register.simple_tag def test_tag(input): if "foo" == input: return "foo" if "bar" == input: return "bar" if "baz" == input: return "baz" return "" index.html: {% load test_tag %} <html> <head> ... </head> <body> {% cms_toolbar %} {% foobarbaz "bar" %} {% foobarbaz "elephant" %} {% foobarbaz "foo" %} </body> </html> and my settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'test_tag', ... ) Please let me know if you need further information from my settings.py and what I did wrong so I can't even start my server. (If I delete 'test_tag' from installed apps I can start the server but I get the error that test_tag is not known, of course). Thanks

  Read the article

• Is there any way to configure what reCAPTCHA is actually displaying?

  - by trejder

  Is there any way to control, what kind of image is displayed to user in reCAPTCHA or what kind of puzzle he/she is required to solve? I noticed at least two significant changes to what reCAPTCHA is serving (and I must admit, that I don't much like these changes): For years reCAPTCHA was serving two words from scanned books and user was required to solve one of them. They were clearly readable (even those "second" ones, that could be ommitted) and with nearly no problem in solving them by a human. For past few month, I noticed a significant change at all of my sites, that are using reCAPTCHA. They started to show combination of computer-generated long numbers string and something, that looks for me as street/house number photographed in Google StreetView. They're even easier to solve, but what is most important -- it started to happen more and more often that user is obligated to solve both of them. Now, I have noticed another change/regression. Now some of my sites remain at so called "level 2" (like above) and some of them started to serve two words again ("level 1"?). And again, there are more and more situations, where solving both words is required. But, what is most important, on this "level" words are nearly impossible to solve (on my old mobile devices with 3.5'' display I need 5-6 attempts to pass on!). They're cluttered, written in some strange font, mostly in italics with a lot of black and white stains or drops on letters etc. Plus: reCAPTCHA stopped to be equal -- some of my pages are still serving "level2" while some of them are "killing" end users with a need to solve "level3". Is there anyway, I can control this -- force it to use only "level2" and on all my pages? (of course, I'm using exactly the same piece of code to serve reCAPTCHA on all my pages) Note, that I'm not asking for something like in this question. I don't want to change what reCAPTCHA shows (to disable words in favor of only numbers for example). I only want to control, which "version" of puzzles (among described above) reCAPTCHA shows and I want to make it equal on all my sites.

  Read the article

• Software usage analytics in C#

  - by TiernanO

  I have a project i am working on currently and would like to implement some sort of software tracking in the code. ideally, stuff like how often its launched. how long it runs for, feature tracking, etc. I already use Exceptioneer for unhandled exceptions, but would like something similar for usage tracking. this data should all be anonymous and ideally run as a service by someone else. and i would like to give the users the option to turn it off, if they so wish to... So, is this something i should implement myself, or are there third parties out there that do this sort of things? i know it might be a sticky area, but i have seen stats about iPhone app usage. they do it, so why cant we? (if the user agrees, of course) [Update] Based on the comments, i should have been more clear. this is a Winforms .NET 4. application, though i am thinking of updating it later with WCF. i would only be tracking my own application, though i would also want to know minor information about environment (Windows OS Version, SP, maybe proc and ram...)

  Read the article

• How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

  - by ChiggenWingz

  Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

  Read the article

• How to reliably get size of C-style array?

  - by Frank

  How do I reliably get the size of a C-style array? The method often recommended seems to be to use sizeof, but it doesn't work in the foo function, where x is passed in: #include <iostream> void foo(int x[]) { std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 2 } int main(){ int x[] = {1,2,3,4,5}; std::cerr << (sizeof(x) / sizeof(int)); // 5 foo(x); return 0; } Answers to this question recommend sizeof but they don't say that it (apparently?) doesn't work if you pass the array around. So, do I have to use a sentinel instead? (I don't think the users of my foo function can always be trusted to put a sentinel at the end. Of course, I could use std::vector, but then I don't get the nice shorthand syntax {1,2,3,4,5}.)

  Read the article

• How to deal with unknown entity references?

  - by Chris

  I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

  Read the article

• Defining and using controller methods in ember.js

  - by OriginalEXE

  first of all, I am total noob when it comes to OOP in JS, this is new to me so treat me like a noob. I am building my first ember.js application and I am stuck (not the first time but I would get unstuck by myself, this is a tough one though). I have two models: forms entries Entries is of course in (one to many) relationship to forms, so each form can have as many properties. Form properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), title : DS.attr( 'string' ), views : DS.attr( 'number' ), conversion : DS.attr( 'number' ), entries : DS.hasMany( 'entry' ) Entry properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), parent_id: DS.belongsTo( 'form' ) Now, I have forms route that displays all forms in tabled view, and each table row has some info like form id, name etc. and that works great. What I wanted to do is display the number of entries each form has. I figured I should do that via controller, so here is my controller now: // Form controller App.FormController = Ember.ObjectController.extend({ entriescount: function() { var entries = this.get( 'store').find( 'entry' ); return entries.filterBy( 'parent_id', this.get( 'id' ) ).get( 'length' ); }.property( '[email protected]_id') }); Now for some reason, when I use {{entriescount}} in {{#each}} loop, this returns nothing. It also returns nothing in single form route. Note that in both cases, {{title}} for example works. I am wondering, am I going the right way by using controller for this, and how do I get controller to output the data. Thanks

  Read the article

• how to make it easy for users to register at my site?

  - by rob

  I want to make it dirt simple for users coming to my site to register so they can post comments, vote on things, etc. I would like for them to be able to use their facebook id, twitter id, yahoo mail id, gmail id, AIM id, msn id, or whatever else people are likely to have (not necessarily all of those, but the more the better). I want my mom to be able to do it in 30 seconds or less. (that is, no "enter your open id url here" type thing that would confuse her). I prefer they not have to pick a unique name, as that gets annoying as the site gets more users and it gets hard to find one that is unique. What is the best option here? I'm not quite sure about OpenId vs. OAuth, and whether there are other options. And I'd like it to be as simple for me, the developer, as possible (of course!). I don't want to spend forever learning some protocol, nor have to structure my whole app around this. It would be great if there was a site with sample code that is pretty easy to drop in. BTW, StackOverflow is a good example of a site that was easy for me to register for.

  Read the article

• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

  Read the article

• Adding a column to a model at runtime (without additional tables) in rails

  - by Marek

  I'm trying to give admins of my web application the ability to add some new fields to a model. The model is called Artwork and i would like to add, for instante, a test_column column at runtime. I'm just teting, so i added a simple link to do it, it will be of course parametric. I managed to do it through migrations: def test_migration_create Artwork.add_column :test_column, :integer flash[:notice] = "Added Column test_column to artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end def test_migration_delete Artwork.remove_column :test_column flash[:notice] = "Removed column test_column from artworks" redirect_to :action => 'index' end It works, the column gets added/ removed to/from the databse without issues. I'm using active_scaffold at the moment, so i get the test_column field in the form without adding anything. When i submit a create or an update, however, the test_column does not get updated and stay empty. Inspecting the parameters, i can see: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "authenticity_token"=>"37Bo5pT2jeoXtyY1HgkEdIhglhz8iQL0i3XAx7vu9H4=", "id"=>"62", "record"=>{"number"=>"test_artwork", "author"=>"", "title"=>"Opera di Test", "test_column"=>"TEEST", "year"=>"", "description"=>""}} the test_column parameter is passed correctly. So why active record keeps ignoring it? I tried to restart the server too without success. I'm using ruby 1.8.7, rails 2.3.5, and mongrel with an sqlite3 database. Thanks

  Read the article

• App Engine - Query using a class member as parameter

  - by Zach

  I have a simple class, relevant details below: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class SimpleCategory implements Serializable{ ... public static enum type{ Course, Category, Cuisine } @Persistent public type t; ... } I am attempting to query all SimpleCategory objects of the same type. public SimpleCategory[] getCategories(SimpleCategory.type type) { PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); try{ Query q = pm.newQuery(SimpleCategory.class); q.setFilter("t == categoryType"); q.declareParameters("SimpleCategory.type categoryType"); List<SimpleCategory> cats = (List<SimpleCategory>) q.execute(type); ... } This results in a ClassNotResolvedException for SimpleCategory.type. The google hits I've found so far recommended to: Use query.declareImports to specify the class i.e. q.declareImports("com.test.zach.SimpleCategory.type"); Specify the fully qualified name of SimpleCategory in declareParameters Neither of these suggestions has worked. By removing .type and recompiling, I can verify that declareParameters can see SimpleCategory just fine, it simply cannot see the SimpleCategory.type, despite the fact that the remainder of the method has full visibility to it. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• Interpretation of int (*a)[3]

  - by kapuzineralex

  When working with arrays and pointers in C, one quickly discovers that they are by no means equivalent although it might seem so at a first glance. I know about the differences in L-values and R-values. Still, recently I tried to find out the type of a pointer that I could use in conjunction with a two-dimensional array, i.e. int foo[2][3]; int (*a)[3] = foo; However, I just can't find out how the compiler "understands" the type definition of a in spite of the regular operator precedence rules for * and []. If instead I were to use a typedef, the problem becomes significantly simpler: int foo[2][3]; typedef int my_t[3]; my_t *a = foo; At the bottom line, can someone answer me the questions as to how the term int (*a)[3] is read by the compiler? int a[3] is simple, int *a[3] is simple as well. But then, why is it not int *(a[3])? EDIT: Of course, instead of "typecast" I meant "typedef" (it was just a typo).

  Read the article

• Comparing objects and inheritance

  - by ereOn

  Hi, In my program I have the following class hierarchy: class Base // Base is an abstract class { }; class A : public Base { }; class B : public Base { }; I would like to do the following: foo(const Base& one, const Base& two) { if (one == two) { // Do something } else { // Do something else } } I have issues regarding the operator==() here. Of course comparing an instance A and an instance of B makes no sense but comparing two instances of Base should be possible. (You can't compare a Dog and a Cat however you can compare two Animals) I would like the following results: A == B = false A == A = true or false, depending on the effective value of the two instances B == B = true or false, depending on the effective value of the two instances My question is: is this a good design/idea ? Is this even possible ? What functions should I write/overload ? My apologies if the question is obviously stupid or easy, I have some serious fever right now and my thinking abilities are somewhat limited :/ Thank you.

  Read the article

• How can I avoid encoding mixups of strings in a C/C++ API?

  - by Frerich Raabe

  I'm working on implementing different APIs in C and C++ and wondered what techniques are available for avoiding that clients get the encoding wrong when receiving strings from the framework or passing them back. For instance, imagine a simple plugin API in C++ which customers can implement to influence translations. It might feature a function like this: const char *getTranslatedWord( const char *englishWord ); Now, let's say that I'd like to enforce that all strings are passed as UTF-8. Of course I'd document this requirement, but I'd like the compiler to enforce the right encoding, maybe by using dedicated types. For instance, something like this: class Word { public: static Word fromUtf8( const char *data ) { return Word( data ); } const char *toUtf8() { return m_data; } private: Word( const char *data ) : m_data( data ) { } const char *m_data; }; I could now use this specialized type in the API: Word getTranslatedWord( const Word &englishWord ); Unfortunately, it's easy to make this very inefficient. The Word class lacks proper copy constructors, assignment operators etc.. and I'd like to avoid unnecessary copying of data as much as possible. Also, I see the danger that Word gets extended with more and more utility functions (like length or fromLatin1 or substr etc.) and I'd rather not write Yet Another String Class. I just want a little container which avoids accidental encoding mixups. I wonder whether anybody else has some experience with this and can share some useful techniques. EDIT: In my particular case, the API is used on Windows and Linux using MSVC 6 - MSVC 10 on Windows and gcc 3 & 4 on Linux.

  Read the article

• Help me understand making maven project w/ non-maven jar dependencies usable by others

  - by deet

  Hi, I'm in the process of learning maven (and java packaging & distribution) with a new oss project I'm making as practice. Here's my situation, all java of course: My main project is ProjectA, maven-based in a github repository. I have also created one utility project, maven-based, in github: ProjectB. ProjectA depends on a project I have heavily modified that originally was from a google-code ant-based repository, ProjectC. So, how do I set up the build for ProjectA such that someone can download ProjectA.jar and use it without needing to install jars for ProjectB and ProjectC, and also how do I set up the build such that someone could check out ProjectA and run only 'mvn package' for a full compile? (Additionally, what should I do with my modified version of ProjectC? include the class files directly into ProjectA, or fork the project into something that could then be used by as a maven dependency?) I've been reading around, links such as this SO question and this SO question, but I'm unclear how those relate to my particular circumstance. So, any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298  | Next Page >