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  • ArrayCollection loop through for matching items

    - by charlie
    Hi I hope someone can help me..... i am trying to build a dynamic form for a questionnaire module. Building on some previous posts I am using the process similar to that in question "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/629021/how-to-generate-a-formmxform-dynamically-in-flex" i have managed to prove out the fact of extending the XML to include a calendar, combobox etc. my problem is that now need to get the data from an ArrayCollection rather than from an xml file. I am looking to loop through the AC and where type = "text" render a textinput field, where a type ="calendar" render a Calendar etc etc. my code so far just looking at a textinput field (and sorry for all the comments included ;) is:- [Bindable] public var AC:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection( [ {type:'text', direction:'horizontal', tooltip:'test tooltip', label:'my textbox label', id:'1'}, {type:'text', direction:'horizontal', tooltip:'another tooltip', label:'another label', id:'2'} ]); private function init():void { var form:Form = new Form(); for each(var elements:XML in AC) { switch( [email protected]()) { case "text": var fi:FormItem = new FormItem(); // fi.toolTip = elements.tooltip.toString(); // fi.required = getglobalprofile.required.toString(); // fi.direction = getglobalprofileb[i].@direction; var li:Label = new Label(); // li.text = getglobalprofileb[i].@label; // li.width = 100; var ti:TextInput = new TextInput(); ti.text = "test"; ti.width = 200; form.addChild(fi); fi.addChild(li); fi.addChild(ti); // break; } } this.addChild( form); } ]] <mx:Form id="form" name="form"> </mx:Form> if you are interested in the working xml version (rendering only) let me know and i will post this as well

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  • django join-like expansion of queryset

    - by jimbob
    I have a list of Persons each which have multiple fields that I usually filter what's upon, using the object_list generic view. Each person can have multiple Comments attached to them, each with a datetime and a text string. What I ultimately want to do is have the option to filter comments based on dates. class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Name", max_length=30) ## has ~30 other fields, usually filtered on as well class Comment(models.Model): date = models.DateTimeField() person = models.ForeignKey(Person) comment = models.TextField("Comment Text", max_length=1023) What I want to do is get a queryset like Person.objects.filter(comment__date__gt=date(2011,1,1)).order_by('comment__date') send that queryset to object_list and be able to only see the comments ordered by date with only so many objects on a page. E.g., if "Person A" has comments 12/3/11, 1/2/11, 1/5/11, "Person B" has no comments, and person C has a comment on 1/3, I would see: "Person A", 1/2 - comment "Person C", 1/3 - comment "Person A", 1/5 - comment I would strongly prefer not to have to switch to filtering based on Comments.objects.filter(), as that would make me have to largely repeat large sections of code in the both the view and template. Right now if I tried executing the following command, I will get a queryset returning (PersonA, PersonC, PersonA), but if I try rendering that in a template each persons comment_set will contain all their comments even if they aren't in the date range. Ideally they're would be some sort of functionality where I could expand out a Person queryset's comment_set into a larger queryset that can be sorted and ordered based on the comment and put into a object_list generic view. This normally is fairly simple to do in SQL with a JOIN, but I don't want to abandon the ORM, which I use everywhere else.

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • Entangled text boxes

    - by user38329
    Hi StackOverflow, A mere Windows textbox greatly surprised me today. I have two unrelated text boxes inside an application. I can type in either text box and switch the focus by clicking on them. Then happens some event X, which I can't describe here for reasons given below. After this event happens, the two text boxes become "entangled" in an almost quantum way. Say, text box A was focused before X happened. When I click text box B to type in some text, the new text appears in text box A, whereas the blinking cursor happily moves along in text box B through the void, as if the text were there. No amount of clicking on either text boxes can resolve this. The cursor will always remain in B, whereas the text will always go to A. Message spying reveals that after the event X, the text boxes lose the ability to lose or gain focus. When I click on B, WM_LOSE_FOCUS does not come to A, and WM_SET_FOCUS does not come to B. (The rectangles and visibility of the boxes are OK.) The same thing happens in Windows XP and Windows 7. Now, event X: it's a big event in a third-party UI library which I cannot reverse-engineer in a timely manner. (Namely, docking a pane in wxAUI.) I am sure that this behavior is the result of incorrect WinAPI calls to the text boxes (garbage in - garbage out). I would like to know what could possibly cause such "textbox trip" to know where to start looking for the bug. Thanks!

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  • What caused the rails application crash?

    - by so1o
    I'm sure someone can explain this. we have an application that has been in production for an year. recently we saw an increase in number of support requests for people having difficulty signing into the system. after scratching our head because we couldn't recreate the problem in development, we decided we'll switch on debug logger in production for a month. that was june 5th. application worked fine with the above change and we were waiting. then yesterday we noticed that the log files were getting huge so we made another change in production config.logger = Logger.new("#{RAILS_ROOT}/log/production.log", 50, 1048576) after this change, the application started crashing while processing a particular file. this particular line of code was RAILS_DEFAULT_LOGGER.info "Payment Information Request: ", request.inspect as you can see there was a comma instead of a plus sign. this piece of code was introduced in Mar. the question is this: why did the application fail now? if changing the debug level caused the application to process this line of code it should have started failing on june 5th! why today. please someone help us. Are we missing the obvious here? if you dont have an answer, at least let us know we aren't the only one that are bonkers.

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  • Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

    - by Justin Williams
    I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

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  • prototype findElements querySelectorAll error

    - by JD
    i'm call the "down" function but am getting an invalid argument using 1.6.1_rc2 here's the html snippet: <TR id=000000214A class="activeRow searchResultsDisplayOver" conceptID="0000001KIU"> <TD> <DIV class=gridRowWrapper> <SPAN class=SynDesc>Asymmetric breasts</SPAN> <DIV class=buttonWrapper> <SPAN class=btnAddFav title="Add to Favorites">&nbsp;</SPAN> </DIV> </DIV> </TD> </TR> here's the code: var description = row.down('span.SynDesc').innerHTML; row is a dom reference to the element. prototype is appending a # then the id of the element: findElements: function(root) { root = root || document; var e = this.expression, results; switch (this.mode) { case 'selectorsAPI': if (root !== document) { var oldId = root.id, id = $(root).identify(); id = id.replace(/[\.:]/g, "\\$0"); e = "#" + id + " " + e; } results = $A(root.querySelectorAll(e)).map(Element.extend); <-- e = "#000000214A span.SynDesc" root.id = oldId; return results; case 'xpath': return document._getElementsByXPath(this.xpath, root); default: return this.matcher(root); } i get an "invalid argument" error? if i put a breakpoint before the offending line and change e to be equal to "span.SynDesc" it works fine. help. :)

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  • How can a SVN::Error callback identify the context from which it was called

    - by Colin Fine
    I've written some fairly extensive Perl modules and scripts using the Perl bindings SVN::Client etc. Since the calls to SVN::Client are all deep in a module, I have overridden the default error handling. So far I have done so by setting $SVN::Error::handler = undef as described in [1], but this makes the individual calls a bit messy because you have to remember to make each call to SVN::Client in list context and test the first value for errors. I would like to switch to using an error handler I would write; but $SVN::Error::handler is global, so I can't see any way that my callback can determine where the error came from, and what object to set an error code in. I wondered if I could use a pool for this purpose: so far I have ignored pools as irrelevant to working in Perl, but if I call a SVN::Client method with a pool I have created, will any SVN::Error object be created in the same pool? Has anybody any knowledge or experience which bears on this? [1]: http://search.cpan.org/~mschwern/Alien-SVN-1.4.6.0/src/subversion/subversion/bindings/swig/perl/native/Core.pm#svn_error_t_-_SVN::Error SVN::Core POD

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  • How to easily map c++ enums to strings

    - by Roddy
    I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

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  • A generic error occurred in GDI+, JPEG Image to MemoryStream

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, This seems to be a bit of an infamous error all over the web. So much so that I have been unable to find an answer to my problem as my scenario doesn't fit. An exception gets thrown when I save the image to the stream. Weirdly this works perfectly with a png but gives the above error with jpg and gif which is rather confusing. Most similar problem out there relate to saving images to files without permissions. Ironically the solution is to use a memory stream as I am doing.... public static byte[] ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { ImageFormat format; switch (imageToConvert.MimeType()) { case "image/png": format = ImageFormat.Png; break; case "image/gif": format = ImageFormat.Gif; break; default: format = ImageFormat.Jpeg; break; } imageToConvert.Save(ms, format); return ms.ToArray(); } } More detail to the exception. The reason this causes so many issues is the lack of explanation :( System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException was unhandled by user code Message="A generic error occurred in GDI+." Source="System.Drawing" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) at Caldoo.Infrastructure.PhotoEditor.ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Coordinator\PhotoEditor.cs:line 139 at Caldoo.Web.Controllers.PictureController.Croppable() in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Web\Controllers\PictureController.cs:line 132 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__7() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: OK things I have tried so far. Cloning the image and working on that. Retrieving the encoder for that MIME passing that with jpeg quality setting. Please can anyone help.

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  • How to start/stop/restart jQuery animation

    - by Emin
    I have the following function that when I call displays a message to the user for a certain amount of time (5 secs in my case). During this "period" if I call the function again to display another message, practically it should hide, then re-appear with the new message for another 5 seconds. What happens with my code below, I call the function to display the message. Then, lets say on the 4th second, I call it again to display another message, the new message is displayed for 1 second. I need to somehow -reset- the time but can't figure out how. Tried stopping the animation, checking if the element was visible and hiding it if it was, and many other things. I believe the solution is a simple chaining issue but can't get it right. So any help would be appreciated! function display_message(msgType, message) { var elem = $('#ur_messagebox'); switch (msgType) { case 'confirm': elem.addClass('msg_confirm'); break; case 'error': elem.addClass('msg_error'); break; } elem.html(message); elem.show().delay(5000).fadeOut(1000); } thanks in advance...

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • Git: changes not reflecting on other checkouts - huh?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Okay, so, I have my branches (git branch -a): * chat master remotes/origin/HEAD -> origin/master remotes/origin/chat I make changes (still with the 'chat' branch checkout out), commit, and push. I go to my server, on which I have a clone of the repository, and I do a fetch: git getch then I switch to the chat branch: git checkout --track -b chat origin/chat and I event do a pull, just to make sure everything is up to date: git pull and my changes from my other computer are NOT. THERE. What the heck am I doing wrong? If I had hair, I would have pulled it out. Thankfully I am bald. When I try a 'git commit' again, I get this # On branch chat # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add/rm <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: app/controllers/chat_controller.rb # modified: app/views/dashboard/index.html.erb # modified: app/views/dashboard/layout.js.erb # modified: app/views/layouts/dashboard.html.erb # deleted: app/views/project/.tmp_edit.html.erb.55742~ # deleted: app/views/project/.tmp_edit.html.erb.83482~ # modified: public/stylesheets/dashboard/layout.css # # Untracked files: # (use "git add <file>..." to include in what will be committed) # # .loadpath # .project # config/database.yml # config/environments/development.yml # config/environments/production.yml # config/environments/test.yml # log/ no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a")

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  • How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

    - by RWC
    In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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  • Problem with UITextView

    - by user367039
    I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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  • Jquery Returning values to original

    - by Cam
    So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

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  • Inorder tree traversal in binary tree in C

    - by srk
    In the below code, I'am creating a binary tree using insert function and trying to display the inserted elements using inorder function which follows the logic of In-order traversal.When I run it, numbers are getting inserted but when I try the inorder function( input 3), the program continues for next input without displaying anything. I guess there might be a logical error.Please help me clear it. Thanks in advance... #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> int i; typedef struct ll { int data; struct ll *left; struct ll *right; } node; node *root1=NULL; // the root node void insert(node *root,int n) { if(root==NULL) //for the first(root) node { root=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); root->data=n; root->right=NULL; root->left=NULL; } else { if(n<(root->data)) { root->left=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->left,n); } else if(n>(root->data)) { root->right=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->right,n); } else { root->data=n; } } } void inorder(node *root) { if(root!=NULL) { inorder(root->left); printf("%d ",root->data); inorder(root->right); } } main() { int n,choice=1; while(choice!=0) { printf("Enter choice--- 1 for insert, 3 for inorder and 0 for exit\n"); scanf("%d",&choice); switch(choice) { case 1: printf("Enter number to be inserted\n"); scanf("%d",&n); insert(root1,n); break; case 3: inorder(root1); break; default: break; } } }

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  • escape sequence in c

    - by prp
    int main() { char *arr="\\0\1\8234\0"; int i=0; while(arr[i]) { switch(arr[i]) { case '0': printf("is no"); break; case '00': printf("is debugging\n"); break; case 0: printf("It is Avishkar\n"); break; case '\\': printf("This "); break; case '\1': printf("t s"); break; case '8': printf("o s"); break; case '2': printf("imp"); break; case '3': printf("le as"); break; case 2: case 3: case 4: case 8: printf("This "); break; default: printf(" it seems\n"); break;} i++; } } please explain the o/p ? i am not able to get it..

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  • Wrong date with ruby Date.today and DateTime.now

    - by Rob
    I've installed ruby-1.8.6-p383 with RVM. System ruby is 1.9.1_p378-1 I'm getting the wrong date from Date.today and DateTime.now when using ruby 1.8.. Whereas Time.now is correct: irb(main):002:0> DateTime.now.to_s => "2126--1-10618T11:23:43+00:00" irb(main):004:0> Date.today.to_s => "2126--1-10618" irb(main):005:0> Time.now => Thu Jan 28 11:55:27 +0000 2010 All is well if I switch to ruby 1.9: irb(main):003:0> DateTime.now.to_s => "2010-01-28T11:58:51+00:00" irb(main):004:0> Date.today.to_s => "2010-01-28" irb(main):005:0> Time.now => 2010-01-28 11:59:05 +0000 Any advice on how to get DateTime to work properly in ruby 1.8 would be most appreciated!

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  • Custom Swing component: questions on approach

    - by phatmanace
    Hi Folks, I'm trying to build a new java swing component, I realise that I might be able to find one that does what I need on the web, but this is partly an exercise for me to learn ow to do this. I want to build a swing component that represents a Gantt chart. it would be good (though not essential for people to be able to interact with it (e.g slide the the tasks around to adjust timings) it feels like the best approach for this is to subclass JComponent, and override PaintComponent() to 'draw a picture' of what the chart should look like, as opposed to doing something like trying to jam everything into a custom JTable. I've read a couple of books on the subject, and also looked at a few examples (most notably things like JXGraph) - but I'm curious about a few things When do I have to switch to using UI delegates, and when can I stick to just fiddling around in paintcomponent() to render what I want? if I want other swing components as sub-elements of my component (e.g I wanted a text box on my gantt chart) can I no longer use paintComponent()? can I arbitrarily position them within my Gantt chart, or do I have to use a normal swing layout manager many thanks in advance. -Ace

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  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • Can this be done in 1 line?

    - by Angelo
    Can this be done in 1 line with PHP? Would be awesome if it could: $out = array("foo","bar"); echo $out[0]; Something such as: echo array("foo","bar")[0]; Unfortunately that's not possible. Would it be possible like this? So I can do this for example in 1 line: echo array(rand(1,100), rand(1000,2000))[rand(0,1)]; So let's say I have this code: switch($r){ case 1: $ext = "com"; break; case 2: $ext = "nl"; break; case 3: $ext = "co.uk"; break; case 4: $ext = "de"; break; case 5: $ext = "fr"; break; } That would be much more simplified to do it like this: $ext = array("com","nl","co.uk","de","fr")[rand(1,5)];

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  • Jquery selectors question

    - by Ben
    Hi all, I am not an expert at jquery but trying to get a menu to work. Basically, I have a menu made of up to 3 levels of nested lists. The first level has a little arrow has a background image that opens or close when opening the first level list. Any other nested lists don't need to have the background image. My script opens the menu when you click on it and is also supposed to switch the first level list from a class "inactive" to a class "active". Here is the script: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#left-navigation-holder ul.level1 li.inactive").toggle(function(){ $(this).addClass("active"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("active"); }); $("#left-navigation-holder li a").click(function(){ menu = $(this).parent('li').children('ul'); menu.toggle(); }); }); The problem is that the toggle function also happens when clicking on second and third level lists causing the arrows to toggle even if the first level list isn't clicked on. I thought using $("#left-navigation-holder ul.level1 li.inactive").toggle would limit the function to the first level list with a class "inactive". Any help would be really appreciated. Ben

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