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• Page content layout issues

  - by Prupel

  I'm designing a theme for a blog and I'm having some trouble trying to get a layout working. Here's an image of what I want. This diagram represents the individual posts and not the website itself, so it will be contained in a box of it's own, lets call it .container. Also the purple and green are in another box, let's call it .content. The other elements will be called by their color for now. so here's more or less what the CSS looks like: .container { display:block; margin:0 25px; } .gray, .blue, .content { display:block; width:100%; } .purple { display:inline-block; width:125px; height:100%; text-align:center; } .green { display:inline-block; } That's all there is at the moment. I tried float but that made no effect. What's happening is something like this. Here's a few more things you should know: .container's width is NOT set it is auto .purple and .green don't necessarily need to be the same size as long as .green doesn't go to that side. .purple CAN have a set height .green is where the meat is, that's where the actual post goes, keep that in mind. I don't think tables will help, the problem is inside .content.

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• Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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• Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

  - by alex

  I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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• Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

  - by lobengula3rd

  I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

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• JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

  - by teerapap

  The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

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• .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

  - by Entrase

  The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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• NSOperations or NSThread for bursts of smaller tasks that continuously cancel each other?

  - by RickiG

  Hi I would like to see if I can make a "search as you type" implementation, against a web service, that is optimized enough for it to run on an iPhone. The idea is that the user starts typing a word; "Foo", after each new letter I wait XXX ms. to see if they type another letter, if they don't, I call the web service using the word as a parameter. The web service call and the subsequent parsing of the result I would like to move to a different thread. I have written a simple SearchWebService class, it has only one public method: - (void) searchFor:(NSString*) str; This method tests if a search is already in progress (the user has had a XXX ms. delay in their typing) and subsequently stops that search and starts a new one. When a result is ready a delegate method is called: - (NSArray*) resultsReady; I can't figure out how to get this functionality 'threaded'. If I keep spawning new threads each time a user has a XXX ms. delay in the typing I end up in a bad spot with many threads, especially because I don't need any other search, but the last one. Instead of spawning threads continuously, I have tried keeping one thread running in the background all the time by: - (void) keepRunning { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; SearchWebService *searchObj = [[SearchWebService alloc] init]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; //keeps it alive [searchObj release]; [pool release]; } But I can't figure out how to access the "searchFor" method in the "searchObj" object, so the above code works and keeps running. I just can't message the searchObj or retrieve the resultReady objects? Hope someone could point me in the right direction, threading is giving me grief:) Thank you.

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• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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• What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

  - by s093294

  Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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• Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

  - by prodigitalson

  Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

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• Objective-C subclass and base class casting

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

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• Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

  - by PaulHurleyuk

  I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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• Facing error in apple multitasking code

  - by user366584

  Actually I am working for multitasking and facing error please assist me, as I need to work on background application and also in foreground application - (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication *)application { UIApplication* app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; // Request permission to run in the background. Provide an // expiration handler in case the task runs long. NSAssert(bgTask == UIBackgroundTaskInvalid, nil); bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the task actually finishes at around the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the expiration handler is fired at the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }); }

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• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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• Fitting title for my position

  - by lithander

  In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

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• performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

  - by oldbeamer

  Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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• Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

  - by Mike Wills

  I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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• Paste or Drop, copy data and release source?

  - by Harvey

  I have an MFC DocView SDI App that receives data from either the clipboard or drag and drop. The data is in either CF_HDROP or CF_TEXT format. I have a COleDropTarget derived CMyDropTarget member m_dropTarget of my CMainFrame class. I have two member functions of CMyDropTarget; OnDrop(...) and OnPaste() which each call another member function PostData(pDataObject). I want to get a copy of the pDataObject from either CF_... format and PostMessage to my CmainFrame which will call a member of my Doc class. What is a simple way of getting a copy of the global data to pass with the PostMessage() so that I can get the drop source released before I get around to processing the global data? NOTE that they are always treated as a copy of the source data, so there is no need for the source to delete anything when the operation is done. Or perhaps a better way of asking the question is: How can I release the Drop source before processing the global data? Can I pass the HGLOBAL via PostMessage and still release the source without making a copy of it?

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• Why don't copy this dokument attributes from the source xml file??

  - by siegfried storr

  Hi anyone, i'm working the first time with xslt and i really don't understand why this xsl don't copy attributes from the source xml. Perhaps someone can give me a hint?? <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:variable name="rpl" select="document('ParamInvoice.xml')"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="* | @*"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="*"> <xsl:variable name="vInvoiceElement" select="$rpl/StoraInvoice/*[name()=name(current())]"/> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"> <xsl:call-template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:with-param name="pAttr" select="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:param name="pAttr"/> <xsl:for-each select="$pAttr"> <xsl:attribute name="{@name}"><xsl:value-of select="."/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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• Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

  - by williamjones

  I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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• Differences between Assembly Code output of the same program

  - by ultrajohn

  I have been trying to replicate the buffer overflow example3 from this article aleph one I'm doing this as a practice for a project in a computer security course i'm taking so please, I badly need your help. I've been the following the example, performing the tasks as I go along. My problem is the assembly code dumped by gdb in my computer (i'm doing this on a debian linux image running on VM Ware) is different from that of the example in the article. There are some constructs which I find confusing. Here is the one from my computer: here is the one from the article... Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x8000490 <main>: pushl %ebp 0x8000491 <main+1>: movl %esp,%ebp 0x8000493 <main+3>: subl $0x4,%esp 0x8000496 <main+6>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x800049d <main+13>: pushl $0x3 0x800049f <main+15>: pushl $0x2 0x80004a1 <main+17>: pushl $0x1 0x80004a3 <main+19>: call 0x8000470 <function> 0x80004a8 <main+24>: addl $0xc,%esp 0x80004ab <main+27>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x80004b2 <main+34>: movl 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x80004b5 <main+37>: pushl %eax 0x80004b6 <main+38>: pushl $0x80004f8 0x80004bb <main+43>: call 0x8000378 <printf> 0x80004c0 <main+48>: addl $0x8,%esp 0x80004c3 <main+51>: movl %ebp,%esp 0x80004c5 <main+53>: popl %ebp 0x80004c6 <main+54>: ret 0x80004c7 <main+55>: nop As you can see, there are differences between the two. I'm confuse and I can't understand totally the assembly code from my computer. I would like to know the differences between the two. How is pushl different from push, mov vs movl , and so on... what does the expression 0xhexavalue(%register) means? I am sorry If I'm asking a lot, But I badly need your help. Thanks for the help really...

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• Function with parameter type that has a copy-constructor with non-const ref chosen?

  - by Johannes Schaub - litb

  Some time ago I was confused by the following behavior of some code when I wanted to write a is_callable<F, Args...> trait. Overload resolution won't call functions accepting arguments by non-const ref, right? Why doesn't it reject in the following because the constructor wants a Test&? I expected it to take f(int)! struct Test { Test() { } // I want Test not be copyable from rvalues! Test(Test&) { } // But it's convertible to int operator int() { return 0; } }; void f(int) { } void f(Test) { } struct WorksFine { }; struct Slurper { Slurper(WorksFine&) { } }; struct Eater { Eater(WorksFine) { } }; void g(Slurper) { } void g(Eater) { } // chooses this, as expected int main() { // Error, why? f(Test()); // But this works, why? g(WorksFine()); } Error message is m.cpp: In function 'int main()': m.cpp:33:11: error: no matching function for call to 'Test::Test(Test)' m.cpp:5:3: note: candidates are: Test::Test(Test&) m.cpp:2:3: note: Test::Test() m.cpp:33:11: error: initializing argument 1 of 'void f(Test)' Can you please explain why one works but the other doesn't?

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• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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