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  • Passing viewmodel to actionresult creates new viewmodel

    - by Jonas Bohez
    I am using a viewmodel, which i then when to send to an actionresult to use (the modified viewmodel) But in the controller, i lose the list and objects in my viewmodel. This is my view: @using PigeonFancier.Models @model PigeonFancier.Models.InschrijvingModel @using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateInschrijvingen","Melker",Model)) { <div> <fieldset> <table> @foreach (var item in Model.inschrijvingLijst) { <tr> <td>@Html.DisplayFor(model => item.Duif.Naam)</td> <td> @Html.CheckBoxFor(model => item.isGeselecteerd)</td> </tr> } </table> <input type="submit" value="Wijzigen"/> </fieldset> </div> } This is my controller, which does nothing at the moment until i can get the full viewmodel back from the view. public ActionResult UpdateInschrijvingen(InschrijvingModel inschrijvingsModel) { // inschrijvingsModel is not null, but it creates a new model before it comes here with //Use the model for some updates return RedirectToAction("Inschrijven", new { vluchtId = inschrijvingsModel.vlucht.VluchtId }); } This is the model with the List and some other objects who become null because it creates a new model when it comes back from the view to the actionresult public class InschrijvingModel { public Vlucht vlucht; public Duivenmelker duivenmelker; public List<CheckBoxModel> inschrijvingLijst { get; set; } public InschrijvingModel() { // Without this i get, No parameterless constructor defined exception. // So it uses this when it comes back from the view to make a new model } public InschrijvingModel(Duivenmelker m, Vlucht vl) { inschrijvingLijst = new List<CheckBoxModel>(); vlucht = vl; duivenmelker = m; foreach (var i in m.Duiven) { inschrijvingLijst.Add(new CheckBoxModel(){Duif = i, isGeselecteerd = i.IsIngeschrevenOpVlucht(vl)}); } } What is going wrong and how should i fix this problem please? Thanks

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  • rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

    - by nathanvda
    Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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  • iPhone SDK background thread image loading problem

    - by retailevolved
    I have created a grid view that displays six "cells" of content. In each cell, an image is loaded from the web. There are a multiple pages of this grid (the user moves through them by swiping up / down to see the next set of cells). Each cell has its own view controller. When these view controllers load, they use an ImageLoader class that I made to load and display an image. These view controllers implement an ImageLoaderDelegate that has a single method that gets called when the image is finished loading. ImageLoader does its work on a background thread and then simply notifies its delegate when it is done loading, passing the image to the delegate method. Trouble is that if the user moves on to the next page of grid content before the image has finished loading (releasing the GridCellViewControllers that use the ImageLoaders), the app crashes. I suspect that this is because along the line, an asynchronous method finishes and attempts to notify its delegate but can't because it's been released. Here's some code to give a better picture: GridCellViewController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // ImageLoader _loader = [[ProductImageLoader alloc] init]; _loader.delegate = self; if(_boundObject) [_loader loadImageForProduct:_boundObject]; } //ImageLoaderDelegate method - (void) imageDidFinishLoading: (UIImage *)image { [_imgController setImage:image]; } ProductImageLoader.m - (void) loadImageForProduct: (Product *) product { // Get image on another thread [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(getImageForProductInBackground:) toTarget:self withObject:product]; } - (void) getImageForProductInBackground: (Product *) product { NSAutoreleasePool *tempPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; HttpRequestLoader *tempLoader = [[HttpRequestLoader alloc] init]; NSURL *tempUrl = [product getImageUrl]; NSData *imageData = tempUrl ? [tempLoader loadSynchronousDataFromAddress:[tempUrl absoluteString]] : nil; UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [tempPool release]; if(delegate) [delegate imageDidFinishLoading:image]; } The app crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Disclaimer: The code has been slightly modified to focus on the issue at hand.

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  • Initialization of controllers in a for loop - leaking problem ?

    - by gotye
    Hey, I am creating a kinda gallery and for each gallery I created a view controller whose view is added to a scrollview (see code below) : GalleryViewController *galViewController; for (NSUInteger i = 0 ; i < [galleries count]; i++) { galViewController = [[GalleryViewController alloc] init]; galViewController.record = [galleries objectAtIndex:i]; //galViewController.position = i; galViewController.view.frame = CGRectMake(i%3*100,i/3*150,100,150); [galViewController setDelegate:self]; [self.scrollView addSubview:galViewController.view]; //[galViewController release]; } Is this code leaking ? I think so ... but the thing is that I don't know what to do with these controllers ... i can't release them (cause I got some code to use in the future like touches event) and I don't need to save them somewhere ... Is this a problem to have this kind of code ? Thks, Gotye

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  • WPF TextBlock Binding to DependencyProperty

    - by Bill Campbell
    Hi, I have what I believe to be about one of the most simple cases of attempting to bind a view to a dependencyproperty in the view model. It seems that the initial changes are reflected in the view but other changes to the DP do not update the view's TextBlock. I'm probably just missing something simple but I just can't see what it is. Please take a look... My XAML has a status bar on the bottom of the window. I want to bind to the DP "VRAStatus". <StatusBar x:Name="sbar" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="LightBlue" Opacity="0.4" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" > <StatusBarItem> <TextBlock x:Name="statusBar" Text="{Binding VRAStatus}" /> </StatusBarItem> <StatusBarItem> <Separator Style="{StaticResource StatusBarSeparatorStyle}"/> </StatusBarItem> </StatusBar> My viewmodel has the DP defined: public string VRAStatus { get { return (string)GetValue(VRAStatusProperty); } set { SetValue(VRAStatusProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for VRAStatus. public static readonly DependencyProperty VRAStatusProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("VRAStatus", typeof(string), typeof(PenskeRouteAssistViewModel),new PropertyMetadata(string.Empty)); Then, in my code I set the DP: VRAStatus = "Test Message..."; Is there something obvious here that I am missing? In my constructor for the viewmodel I set the DP like this: VRAStatus = "Ready"; I never get the Test Message to display. Please Help. thanks in advance! Bill

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  • Need help with some mod_rewrite on lighttpd

    - by Christoph
    Hello, I recently couldn't configure my mod_rewrite where I'm using Wordpress and MyBB. And now I need Your help, because I couldn't deal with it... Here is the code: http://i.imgur.com/9I7nX.png The problem is with third, fifth and sixth line. On the third, it couldn't display comments (error 404). On fifth, forum categories are not working. Finally on sixth, post aren't working. I appreciate, any help. Thanks!

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  • MXML composite canvas component initialization error

    - by mkorpela
    I'm getting an odd error from my composite canvas component: An ActionScript error has occurred: Error: null at mx.core::Container/initialize()[C:\autobuild\galaga\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\Container.as:2560] at -REMOVED THIS FOR STACK OVERFLOW-.view::EditableCanvas/initialize()[.../view/EditableCanvas .... It seems to be related to the fact that my composite component has a child and I'm trying to add one in the place I'm using the component. So how can I do this correctly? Component code looks like this (EditableCanvas.mxml): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="{init()}"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private var _editable:Boolean; public function set editable(edit:Boolean):void { _editable = edit; } private function init():void { if(_editable){ addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, showEdit); addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, hideEdit); } } private function showEdit(event:Event):void { editTextImage.visible = true; } private function hideEdit(event:Event):void { editTextImage.visible = false; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Image id="editTextImage" source="@Embed('/../assets/icons/small/process.png')" click="{dispatchEvent(EditPoiEvent.text())}" visible="false"/> </mx:Canvas> The code that is using the code looks like this: <view:EditableCanvas width="290" height="120" backgroundColor="#FFFFFF" horizontalScrollPolicy="off" borderStyle="solid" cornerRadius="3" editable="{_editable}"> <mx:Text id="textContentBox" width="270" fontFamily="nautics" fontSize="12" text="{_text}"/> </view:EditableCanvas>

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  • How to properly combine two files in XAML in Microsoft Blend?

    - by MartyIX
    Hello, I have a test project with the file MainWindow.xaml with the content: <Window x:Class="MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ad="clr-namespace:AvalonDock;assembly=AvalonDock" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" xmlns:view="clr-namespace:Sokoban.View;assembly=Solvers" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <ad:DockingManager x:Name="dockingManager"> <ad:ResizingPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <view:Solvers x:Name="solvers" diag:PresentationTraceSources.TraceLevel="High" /> <!-- LINE BELOW DEMONSTRATES WORKING CODE INSTEAD OF LINE ABOVE --> <!--<ad:DocumentPane Name="GamesDocumentPane" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <ad:DockableContent x:Name="classesContent" Title="Classes"> <TextBlock>test</TextBlock> </ad:DockableContent> </ad:DocumentPane>--> </ad:ResizingPanel> </ad:DockingManager> </Window> and in another project I have the file Solvers.xaml: <ad:DocumentPane x:Class="Sokoban.View.Solvers" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ad="clr-namespace:AvalonDock;assembly=AvalonDock" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Name="GamesDocumentPane" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> </ad:DocumentPane> When I open my Visual Studio solution in Microsoft Blend 4 then I see the error: InvalidOperationException: DocumentPane must be put under a DockingManager! when I open either MainWindow.xaml or Solvers.xaml. It is all right in Solvers.xaml because there really is no DockingManager but MainWindow.xaml should work, shouldn't it? How to solve the problem? Note: It seems to me that the files are processed separately and because the file Solvers.xaml contains the error the MainWindow.xaml file also contains the very same error. Note 2: XAML files use AvalonDock library Is there a way how to say that Solvers.xaml is only an extension of another file? Thank you for any help!

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  • Architecting iPhone Views - seeking help on a specific issue + general advice

    - by Ev
    Hi there, I am a web developer (rails, python) that is new to iPhone development. I've done some desktop development in the past within the MS environment (C#). I'm trying to build a really simple iPhone application and I am confused by the way that views work in general. If someone can provide advice for my particular problem, along with some resources where I can learn how to architect iPhone views in the future, that would be awesome. I feel like a lot of the Apple documentation that I've come across is too specific - I am lacking a fundamental understanding of how views work on the iPhone. My particular problem looks like this: I need one view that displays some downloaded text content. This is the view that shows when the app loads, and it is pretty straightforward. Then I need a settings area (I've already decided I don't want to use the iPhone settings area). The settings area main page will have some text fields on it. It will also have a 2-row grouped table. Each cell in that table will take you to another view which also has a grouped table used for multi-select. I suspect that I can reuse the same view for these two final "detailed setting" views. In summary: home page settings main page detailed setting 1 detailed setting 2 Any help and advice appreciated.

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  • Why isn't my UITableView in a popover appearing in the correct scroll position?

    - by zbrimhall
    I have a split view-based app that presents a master-detail interface, and uses a popover to present the master list when in portrait mode. The popover presents a sectioned table view that ultimately gets populated by a subclass of NSFetchedResultsController. I can tap the tool bar button to present the master list, scroll to whatever row, and tap the row to dismiss the popover. My problem is that if the table is scrolled past the top of the second section, when I dismiss the popover and then later tap the toolbar button to re-present it, the table's scroll position is always set such that the first row of the second section is at the top of the list. If I haven't scrolled past the top of the second section, it correctly remembers its scroll position when the table is presented again. Similarly, in landscape mode, if I scroll the table past the top of the third section and then rotate to portrait, when I come back to landscape the scroll position is always set such that the first row of the third section is at the top of the list. I tried calling -scrollToNearestSelectedRowAtScrollPosition:animated in both the master view controller's -viewWillAppear, as well as in the split view delegate's splitViewController:popoverController:willPresentViewController:, to no effect. Anybody have a clue what I might be doing wrong?

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  • Empty UIView with minimal drawRect: overhead

    - by Benjohn Barnes
    Hi, I have an application that has three nested views that are mechanically important, but have no visual elements: A vanila UIView that doesn't have any content of its own, and is simply used as a host for CALayers. A UIScrollView (that is queried for it's origin and used to position CALayers in 3d: I really only use this view to faithfully replicate the scroll view's "mechanics"), The scroll view's contents: a UIView subclass. It simply picks up touch events and passes them to a delegate - all that is important are its UIResponder machinery. The UIView hosting CALayers is a sibling of a UIImageView that is a background image over which the CALayers are drawn. I'd really like to ensure that none of these empty UIViews have any drawing or compositing overhead (in time, or storage) associated with them, or if that's not possible, to get this overhead as small as possible, and to understand it so that I can perhaps decide if I should try a different approach. In interface builder, I've set all of the views to not clear their context before drawing. I've not set them to be opaque though, because they definitely are not opaque - they are completely transparent. I've found that I need to give the scroll view contents a transparent clear colour (again in IB by setting the background colour's opacity to zero), and this suggests that it is being drawn, which I don't want. So, in short, I've not got much idea of what is and isn't getting drawn (anyone know of a tool like Quartz Debug for iPhone / simulator?), or how to go about stopping things from getting drawn. Advice would be very welcome! Thanks, Benjohn

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  • Postgres update rule returning number of rows affected

    - by Lithium
    I have a view table which is a union of two seperate tables (say Table _A and Table _B). I need to be able to update a row in the view table, and it seems the way to do this was through a 'view rule'. All entries in the view table have seperate id's, so an id that exists in table _A won't exist in table _B. I created the following rule: CREATE OR REPLACE RULE view_update AS ON UPDATE TO viewtable DO INSTEAD ( UPDATE _A SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _A.id; UPDATE _B SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _B.id; ); If I do an update on table _B it returns the correct number of rows affected (1). However if I update table _A it returns (0) rows affected even though the data was changed. If I swap out the order of the updates then the same thing happens, but in reverse. How can I solve this problem so that it returns the correct number of rows affected. Thanks.

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  • Disable antialiasing for a specific GDI device context

    - by Jacob Stanley
    I'm using a third party library to render an image to a GDI DC and I need to ensure that any text is rendered without any smoothing/antialiasing so that I can convert the image to a predefined palette with indexed colors. The third party library i'm using for rendering doesn't support this and just renders text as per the current windows settings for font rendering. They've also said that it's unlikely they'll add the ability to switch anti-aliasing off any time soon. The best work around I've found so far is to call the third party library in this way (error handling and prior settings checks ommitted for brevity): private static void SetFontSmoothing(bool enabled) { int pv = 0; SystemParametersInfo(Spi.SetFontSmoothing, enabled ? 1 : 0, ref pv, Spif.None); } // snip Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) IntPtr deviceContext = graphics.GetHdc(); SetFontSmoothing(false); thirdPartyComponent.Render(deviceContext); SetFontSmoothing(true); This obviously has a horrible effect on the operating system, other applications flicker from cleartype enabled to disabled and back every time I render the image. So the question is, does anyone know how I can alter the font rendering settings for a specific DC? Even if I could just make the changes process or thread specific instead of affecting the whole operating system, that would be a big step forward! (That would give me the option of farming this rendering out to a separate process- the results are written to disk after rendering anyway) EDIT: I'd like to add that I don't mind if the solution is more complex than just a few API calls. I'd even be happy with a solution that involved hooking system dlls if it was only about a days work. EDIT: Background Information The third-party library renders using a palette of about 70 colors. After the image (which is actually a map tile) is rendered to the DC, I convert each pixel from it's 32-bit color back to it's palette index and store the result as an 8bpp greyscale image. This is uploaded to the video card as a texture. During rendering, I re-apply the palette (also stored as a texture) with a pixel shader executing on the video card. This allows me to switch and fade between different palettes instantaneously instead of needing to regenerate all the required tiles. It takes between 10-60 seconds to generate and upload all the tiles for a typical view of the world. EDIT: Renamed GraphicsDevice to Graphics The class GraphicsDevice in the previous version of this question is actually System.Drawing.Graphics. I had renamed it (using GraphicsDevice = ...) because the code in question is in the namespace MyCompany.Graphics and the compiler wasn't able resolve it properly. EDIT: Success! I even managed to port the PatchIat function below to C# with the help of Marshal.GetFunctionPointerForDelegate. The .NET interop team really did a fantastic job! I'm now using the following syntax, where Patch is an extension method on System.Diagnostics.ProcessModule: module.Patch( "Gdi32.dll", "CreateFontIndirectA", (CreateFontIndirectA original) => font => { font->lfQuality = NONANTIALIASED_QUALITY; return original(font); }); private unsafe delegate IntPtr CreateFontIndirectA(LOGFONTA* lplf); private const int NONANTIALIASED_QUALITY = 3; [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct LOGFONTA { public int lfHeight; public int lfWidth; public int lfEscapement; public int lfOrientation; public int lfWeight; public byte lfItalic; public byte lfUnderline; public byte lfStrikeOut; public byte lfCharSet; public byte lfOutPrecision; public byte lfClipPrecision; public byte lfQuality; public byte lfPitchAndFamily; public unsafe fixed sbyte lfFaceName [32]; }

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  • IIS 401.3 - Unauthorized on only 1 server out of 3 set up for network load balancing

    - by Tony
    Over the weekend our Server Admin set up two virtual Windows 2008 machines with IIS installed and set them up under NLB. I came in and changed the application pool the website was running under to our domain account that has proper access to the database and the file share hosting our .NET web application Sitefinity, and changed it to .NET 4 Integrated. NLB and everything was running fine on both servers. He brought up the third server for our cluster on Tuesday and I performed the same actions.. The only difference was that I was given admin rights for the third server so I could set it up remotely instead of going to his office. He has full control over the share and NTFS perms on \\hostname\Sitefinity and I believe I only had read access. I pointed the web site to the same \\hostname\Sitefinity\sitename share that the others were on and the authentication/authorization test settings passed. I hit the site from http://localhost (like I did successfully from the other two before trying the cluster's IP address) and I received a HTTP Error 401.3 - Unauthorized. I've verified many times that the application pool is running under the same service account. I tried hitting just a simple test.htm.. works fine on both of the first two servers but I get the same 401.3 on the third. I copied my dev project to the local inetpub directory and re-pointed the website and that ran perfectly. I turned on Failed Request Tracing and it acts like it's still running the local IUSR account I guess (instead of my domain account)? Here is an excerpt of the File Cache Access Start and the error from the trace: FileName \\hostname\sitefinity\sitename\test.htm UserName IUSR DomainName NT AUTHORITY ---------- Successful false FileFromCache false FileAddedToCache false FileDirmoned true LastModCheckErrorIgnored true ErrorCode 2147942405 LastModifiedTime ErrorCode Access is denied. (0x80070005) ---------- ModuleName IIS Web Core Notification 2 HttpStatus 401 HttpReason Unauthorized HttpSubStatus 3 ErrorCode 2147942405 ConfigExceptionInfo Notification AUTHENTICATE_REQUEST ErrorCode Access is denied. (0x80070005) ---------- My personal AD account was then granted read/write perms to the share so I created a new application pool and set the site under it in case there was an issue with the application pool but no success. I created another under my own account and it still failed. It just seems like maybe it's not trying to access the files under the account my application pools are running under although that's the only way I've done things before. I set the Physicial Path Credentials in Advanced Settings on the site to the service account and it threw a 500 error of some sort so I assume that's not the answer (and I don't have to do it on the other servers). It's like somehow I'm trying to force impersonation on the IUSR account or something?

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  • Use localeURL middleware with apache prefix

    - by Olivier R.
    Good morning everyone, I Got a question about localeURL usage. Everything works great for me with url like this : www.mysite.com/ If I type www.mysite.com/ in adress bar, it turns correctly in www.mysite.com/en/ for example. If I use the view change_locale, it's also all right (ie change www.mysite.com/en/ in www.mysite.com/fr/). But my application use apache as server, and use a prefix for the site, that gives url like this : www.mysite.com/prefix/ If I type www.mysite.com/prefix/ in the adress bar, the adress turns into www.mysite.com/en/ without prefix (so 404) I change code of view to manage our settings.SERVER_PREFIX value : def change_locale(request) : """ Redirect to a given url while changing the locale in the path The url and the locale code need to be specified in the request parameters. O. Rochaix; Taken from localeURL view, and tuned to manage : - SERVER_PREFIX from settings.py """ next = request.REQUEST.get('next', None) if not next: next = request.META.get('HTTP_REFERER', None) if not next: next = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + '/' next = urlsplit(next).path prefix = False if settings.SERVER_PREFIX!="" and next.startswith(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) : prefix = True next = "/" + next.lstrip(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) _, path = utils.strip_path (next) if request.method == 'POST': locale = request.POST.get('locale', None) if locale and check_for_language(locale): path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if prefix : path = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + path response = http.HttpResponseRedirect(path) return response with this customized view, i'm able to correctly change language, but i'm not sure that's the right way of doing stuff. Is there any option on localeURL to manage prefix of apache ?

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  • Tomcat and IIS6 on one server, multiple websites

    - by Rafe
    Windows Server 2003 with IIS6 and Tomcat 6.0.26. Three sites running on this server. One is PHP, one is ASP and the third uses Tomcat. The first two work flawlessly. The third is being a pain. Tomcat is installed and if called on the server itself by IP address xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx:8080 shows the welcome page. Calling the same address from an external machine gives a 'could not connect' error. Calling the ip address from within the server on standard port 80 gives me an error 324 (net::ERR_EMPTY_RESPONSE). Have tried using httpcfg to force listening only on ports within the ip range I'm using in a manner similar to question 35650 located here on serverfault but with no success. There are actually ten ip addresses on this machine but I'm only using three of them at this point. Any pointers on troubleshooting this would be appreciated!

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  • Best choice for off-site backup: dd vs tar

    - by plok
    I have two 1TB single-partition hard disks configured as RAID1, of which I would like to make an off-site backup on a third disk, which I am still to buy. The idea is to store the backup at a relative's house, considerably far away from my place, in the hope that all the information will be safe in the case of a global thermonuclear apocalypse. Of course, this backup would be well encrypted. What I still have to decide is whether I am going to simply tar the entire partition or, instead, use dd to create an image of the disks. Is there any non-trivial difference between these two approaches that I could be overlooking? This off-site backup would be updated no more than two or three times a year, in the best of the cases, so performance should not be a factor to be pondered at all. What, and why, would you use if you were me? dd, tar, or a third option?

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  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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  • Android: Change the source of ImageView present in ListView

    - by Vivek
    Hi All, I have a ListView specified by list_item.xml Now I need to change the Image in my list inside onListItemClick. How to achieve this? //list_item.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <ImageView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:src="@drawable/play" android:id="@+id/img" /> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:id="@+id/txt" /> </LinearLayout> I have a Custom Adapter to populate my list. Code below is the adapter. public class MyCustomAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<String> { public MyCustomAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, String[] objects) { super(context, textViewResourceId, objects); // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub LayoutInflater inflater=getLayoutInflater(); View row=inflater.inflate(R.layout.list_item, parent, false); TextView label=(TextView)row.findViewById(R.id.txt); label.setText(Sounds[position]); ImageView icon=(ImageView)row.findViewById(R.id.img); icon.setMaxHeight(32); icon.setMaxWidth(32); icon.setPadding(2, 1, 5, 1); icon.setImageResource(R.drawable.play); return row; } } And in onCreate I do the following @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); try { setListAdapter(new MyCustomAdapter(this, R.layout.list_item, Sounds)); //Sounds --> String array } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } Now when any row is selected, I need to change the image associated with the selected view. Your help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • In the iPad SplitView template, where's the code that specifies which views are to be used in the Sp

    - by Dr Dork
    In the iPad Programming Guide, it gives the following code example for specifying the two views (firstVC and secondVC) that will be used in the SplitView... - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { MyFirstViewController* firstVC = [[[MyFirstViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstNib" bundle:nil] autorelease]; MySecondViewController* secondVC = [[[MySecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondNib" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UISplitViewController* splitVC = [[UISplitViewController alloc] init]; splitVC.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstVC, secondVC, nil]; [window addSubview:splitVC.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } but when I actually create a new SplitView project in Xcode, I don't see any code that specifies which views should be added to the SplitView. Here's the code from the SplitView template... - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Thanks in advance for all your help! I'm going to continue researching this question right now.

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  • UINavigationController navigation stack problems in Landscape Mode

    - by David F
    I have a iPhone application that I am currently converting to a Universal Binary to work with the iPad. I have successfully implemented everything I need in terms of layout so that full landscape functionality is now supported in my app (previously I primarily used portrait mode to display content). But, I have one strange problem, and it ONLY occurs in landscape mode: when I push a view controller onto the stack, it takes two taps on the back button to return to the previous view controller!!! The first tap shows a blank view, but with the same name on the left-side back navigation button, the second tap takes the controller back to previous view like it should. I don't have an iPad to test, so I am relying on the simulator. The problem does not show up on the iPhone and doesn't show up if you rotate back to portrait mode. My app consists of a tabbarcontroller with navigation controllers loaded for its vc's: //application delegate - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application //.... WebHelpViewController *vc8 = [[WebHelpViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *nv8 = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:vc8]; [self.tabBarController setViewControllers:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:nv1,nv2,nv3,nv4,nv5,nv6,nv7,nv8,nil]]; To implement landscape capability, the UITabBarController is overridden to autorotate when required: //CustomTabBarController.m - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return [[(UINavigationController *)self.selectedViewController topViewController] shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:interfaceOrientation]; } ... works fine. I navigate into new views using this method SomeViewController *vc = [[SomeViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; Has anyone encountered this problem, and do they know if it's only a simulation error?

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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • Concurrent backups in SQL Server?

    - by Mikey Cee
    We currently have our backups managed by a third party company. There are a bunch of agent jobs created that take full backups (4 times a day) and transaction log backups (4 times an hour). We now want to manage our backups in house, but don't want to disable the third party's jobs until we are sure that we have everything configured correctly internally So I am proposing to have a short period (say, a couple of days) where backups are being taken both by the old and the new system. I am wondering what the ramifications of having these two different systems both manage backups, and the potential pitfalls of having backups taken simultaneously. Is this even supported? If so, and bearing in mind that the system can cope with one backup without any noticeable performance degradation, is it fairly logical to assume that it should be able to cope with two simultaneous backups? Currently the load on the server is fairly light and it rarely struggles. Any advice is appreciated

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  • Is there a better way to refresh WebView?

    - by cdg
    Hi all. Ok. I have looked EVERYWHERE and my little brain just can't understand a better way to refresh an activity. Any suggestions that I can understand would be great. :) Here is the java code: package com.dge.dges; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.webkit.WebView; import android.widget.Button; public class dgeActivity extends Activity { WebView mWebView; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); mWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); mWebView.getSettings(); mWebView.loadUrl("http://www.websitehere.php"); Button newButton = (Button)findViewById(R.id.new_button); newButton.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(dgeActivity.this, dgeActivity.class); startActivity(intent); } }); } } And here is the main.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/RelativeLayout" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#000000" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:scrollbars="none" /> <Button android:id="@+id/new_button" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_centerHorizontal="true" android:text="Refresh" /> </RelativeLayout> I don't like the idea of just re-stacking activity after activity. There has to be an easier way to refresh the webview. Please help. :)

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  • Error "fileid changed" when accessing files over NFS

    - by Roman Prikhodchenko
    I have an nfs-kernel-server configured and running on Ubuntu 10.04 Server. /export THIRD_SERVER_IP(rw,fsid=0,insecure,no_subtree_check,async) SECOND_SERVER_IP(rw,fsid=0,insecure,no_subtree_check,async) /export/ebs THIRD_SERVER_IP(rw,fsid=0,insecure,no_subtree_check,async) SECOND_SERVER_IP(rw,nohide,insecure,no_subtree_check,async) I mounted the exported folder to the second server: mount -t nfs4 -o proto=tcp,port=2049 NFS_SERVER_IP_HERE:/ebs /ebs and it works just fine. I mounted it to the third server but I cannot access files from it. ls -l /ebs ls: reading directory /ebs: Stale NFS file handle total 0 The syslog on the third server says: kernel: [11575.483720] NFS: server NFS_SERVER_IP_HERE error: fileid changed kernel: [11575.483722] fsid 0:14: expected fileid 0x2, got 0x6e001 Some info: uname -r 2.6.32-312-ec2 uname -m i686

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