Search Results

Search found 838 results on 34 pages for 'sake'.

Page 29/34 | < Previous Page | 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34  | Next Page >

  • C# remote web request certificate error

    - by Ben
    Hi. I am currently integrating a payment gateway into an application. Following a successful transaction the remote payment gateway posts details of the transaction back to my application (ITN). It posts to a HttpHandler that is used to read and validate the data. Part of the validation performed is a POST made by the handler to a validation service provided by the payment gateway. This effectively posts some of the original form values received back to the payment gateway to ensure they are valid. The url that I am posting back to is: "https://sandbox.payfast.co.za/eng/query/validate" and the code I am using: /// <summary> /// Posts the data back to the payment processor to validate the data received /// </summary> public static bool ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) { bool isValid = true; try { using (WebClient client = new WebClient()) { string validateUrl = (UseSandBox) ? SandboxValidateUrl : LiveValidateUrl; byte[] responseArray = client.UploadValues(validateUrl, "POST", formVariables); // get the resposne and replace the line breaks with spaces string result = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(responseArray); result = result.Replace("\r\n", " ").Replace("\r", "").Replace("\n", " "); if (result == null || !result.StartsWith("VALID")) { isValid = false; LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.OrderError, "PayFast ITN validation failed", "The validation response was not valid."); } } } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.Unknown, "Unable to validate ITN data. Unknown exception", ex); isValid = false; } return isValid; } However, on calling WebClient.UploadValues the following exception is raised: System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for the SSL/TLS secure channel. ---> System.Security.Authentication.AuthenticationException: The remote certificate is invalid according to the validation procedure. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendAuthResetSignal(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest, Exception exception) at For the sake of brevity I haven't listed the full call stack (I can do if anyone thinks it will help). The remote certificate does appear to be valid. To get around the problem I did try adding a new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback that always returned true but just ended up getting the following exception: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.ServicePointManager.set_ServerCertificateValidationCallback(RemoteCertificateValidationCallback value) at NopSolutions.NopCommerce.Payment.Methods.PayFast.PayFastPaymentProcessor.ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) The action that failed was: Demand The type of the first permission that failed was: System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission The Zone of the assembly that failed was: MyComputer So I am not sure this will work in medium trust? Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Ben

    Read the article

  • Android: Adding static header to the top of a ListActivity

    - by GrandPrix
    Currently I have a class that is extending the ListActivity class. I need to be able to add a few static buttons above the list that are always visible. I've attempted to grab the ListView using getListView() from within the class. Then I used addHeaderView(View) to add a small layout to the top of the screen. Header.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <Button android:id="@+id/testButton" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Income" android:textSize="15dip" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> Before I set the adapter I do: ListView lv = getListView(); lv.addHeaderView(findViewById(R.layout.header)); This results in nothing happening to the ListView except for it being populated from my database. No buttons appear above it. Another approach I tried as adding padding to the top of the ListView. When I did this it successfully moved down, however, if I added any above it, it pushed the ListView over. No matter what I do it seems as though I cannot put a few buttons above the ListView when I used the ListActivity. Thanks in advance. synic, I tried your suggestion previously. I tried it again just for the sake of sanity, and the button did not display. Below is the layout file for the activity and the code I've implemented in the oncreate(). //My listactivity I am trying to add the header to public class AuditActivity extends ListActivity { Budget budget; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { Cursor test; super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.audit); ListView lv = getListView(); LayoutInflater infalter = getLayoutInflater(); ViewGroup header = (ViewGroup) infalter.inflate(R.layout.header, lv, false); lv.addHeaderView(header); budget = new Budget(this); /* try { test = budget.getTransactions(); showEvents(test); } finally { } */ // switchTabSpecial(); } Layout.xml for activity: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <ListView android:id="@android:id/list" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:id="@android:id/empty" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/empty" /> </LinearLayout>

    Read the article

  • CSS3 Gradients to reproduce an 'inner glow' effect from Illustrator with border-radius applied

    - by iamfriendly
    Hello all! First post on here so please be kind :) I am in the process of trying to get my head properly around CSS3 Gradients (specifically radial ones) and in doing so I think I've set myself a relatively tough challenge. In Adobe Illustrator I have created a 'button' style which can be seen here: http://bit.ly/aePPtV (jpg image). To create this image I created a rectangle with a background colour of rgb(63,64,63) or #3F403F, then 'stylized' it to have a 15px border radius. I then applied an 'inner glow' to it with a 25% opacity, 8px blur, white from the center. Finally, I applied a 3pt white stroke on it. (I'm telling you all of this in case you wished to reproduce it, if the image above isn't sufficient.) So, my question is thus: is it possible to recreate this 'button' using CSS without the need for an image? I am aware of the 'limitations' of Internet Explorer (and for the sake of this experiment, I couldn't give a monkeys). I am also aware of the small 'bug' in webkit which incorrectly renders an element with a background colour, border-radius and a border (with a different color to the background-color) - it lets the background color bleed through on the curved corners. My best attempt so far is fairly pathetic, but for reference here is the code: section#featured footer p a { color: rgb(255,255,255); text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(0,0,0,0.6); text-decoration: none; padding: 5px 10px; border-radius: 15px; -moz-border-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-radius: 15px; border: 3px solid rgb(255,255,255); background: rgb(98,99,100); background: -moz-radial-gradient( 50% 50%, farthest-side, #626364, #545454 ); background: -webkit-gradient( radial, 50% 50%, 1px, 50% 50%, 5px, from(rgb(98,99,100)), to(rgb(84,84,84)) ); } Basically, terrible. Any hints or tips gratefully accepted and thank you very much in advance for them!

    Read the article

  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

    Read the article

  • Databinding to ObservableCollection in a different UserControl?

    - by Dave
    Question re-written on 2010-03-24 I have two UserControls, where one is a dialog that has a TabControl, and the other is one that appears within said TabControl. I'll just call them CandyDialog and CandyNameViewer for simplicity's sake. There's also a data management class called Tracker that manages information storage, which for all intents and purposes just exposes a public property that is an ObservableCollection. I display the CandyNameViewer in CandyDialog via code behind, like this: private void CandyDialog_Loaded( object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { _candyviewer = new CandyViewer(); _candyviewer.DataContext = _tracker; candy_tab.Content = _candyviewer; } The CandyViewer's XAML looks like this (edited for kaxaml): <Page xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Page.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="CandyItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="120"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="150"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding CandyName}" Margin="3"></TextBox> <!-- just binding to DataContext ends up using InventoryItem as parent, so we need to get to the UserControl --> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedCandy, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type UserControl}}, Path=DataContext.CandyNames}" Margin="3"></ComboBox> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </Page.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox DockPanel.Dock="Top" ItemsSource="{Binding CandyBoxContents, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource CandyItemTemplate}" /> </Grid> </Page> Now everything works fine when the controls are loaded. As long as CandyNames is populated first, and then the consumer UserControl is displayed, all of the names are there. I obviously don't get any errors in the Output Window or anything like that. The issue I have is that when the ObservableCollection is modified from the model, those changes are not reflected in the consumer UserControl! I've never had this problem before; all of my previous uses of ObservableCollection updated fine, although in those cases I wasn't databinding across assemblies. Although I am currently only adding and removing candy names to/from the ObservableCollection, at a later date I will likely also allow renaming from the model side. Is there something I did wrong? Is there a good way to actually debug this? Reed Copsey indicates here that inter-UserControl databinding is possible. Unfortunately, my favorite Bea Stollnitz article on WPF databinding debugging doesn't suggest anything that I could use for this particular problem.

    Read the article

  • How to troubleshoot a 'System.Management.Automation.CmdletInvocationException'

    - by JamesD
    Does anyone know how best to determine the specific underlying cause of this exception? Consider a WCF service that is supposed to use Powershell 2.0 remoting to execute MSBuild on remote machines. In both cases the scripting environments are being called in-process (via C# for Powershell and via Powershell for MSBuild), rather than 'shelling-out' - this was a specific design decision to avoid command-line hell as well as to enable passing actual objects into the Powershell script. The Powershell script that calls MSBuild is shown below: function Run-MSBuild { [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.Build.Engine") $engine = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Engine $engine.BinPath = "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5" $project = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Project($engine, "3.5") $project.Load("deploy.targets") $project.InitialTargets = "DoStuff" # # Set some initial Properties & Items # # Optionally setup some loggers (have also tried it without any loggers) $consoleLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.ConsoleLogger $engine.RegisterLogger($consoleLogger) $fileLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.FileLogger $fileLogger.Parameters = "verbosity=diagnostic" $engine.RegisterLogger($fileLogger) # Run the build - this is the line that throws a CmdletInvocationException $result = $project.Build() $engine.Shutdown() } When running the above script from a PS command prompt it all works fine. However, as soon as the script is executed from C# it fails with the above exception. The C# code being used to call Powershell is shown below (remoting functionality removed for simplicity's sake): // Build the DTO object that will be passed to Powershell dto = SetupDTO() RunspaceConfiguration runspaceConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); using (Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(runspaceConfig)) { runspace.Open(); IList errors; using (var scriptInvoker = new RunspaceInvoke(runspace)) { // The Powershell script lives in a file that gets compiled as an embedded resource TextReader tr = new StreamReader(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("MyScriptResource")); string script = tr.ReadToEnd(); // Load the script into the Runspace scriptInvoker.Invoke(script); // Call the function defined in the script, passing the DTO as an input object var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild", dto, out errors); } } Assuming that the issue was related to MSBuild outputting something that the Powershell runspace can't cope with, I have also tried the following variations to the second .Invoke() call: var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-String", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-Null", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-Null"); I've also looked at using a custom PSHost (based on this sample: http://blogs.msdn.com/daiken/archive/2007/06/22/hosting-windows-powershell-sample-code.aspx), but during debugging I was unable to see any 'interesting' calls to it being made. Do the great and the good of Stackoverflow have any insight that might save my sanity?

    Read the article

  • AVAudioRecorder Memory Leak

    - by Eric Ranschau
    I'm hoping someone out there can back me up on this... I've been working on an application that allows the end user to record a small audio file for later playback and am in the process of testing for memory leaks. I continue to very consistently run into a memory leak when the AVAudioRecorder's "stop" method attempts to close the audio file to which it's been recording. This really seems to be a leak in the framework itself, but if I'm being a bonehead you can tell me. To illustrate, I've worked up a stripped down test app that does nothing but start/stop a recording w/ the press of a button. For the sake of simplicty, everything happens in app. delegate as follows: @synthesize audioRecorder, button; @synthesize window; - (BOOL) application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // create compplete path to database NSString *tempPath = NSTemporaryDirectory(); NSString *audioFilePath = [tempPath stringByAppendingString:@"/customStatement.caf"]; // define audio file url NSURL *audioFileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:audioFilePath]; // define audio recorder settings NSDictionary *settings = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:kAudioFormatAppleIMA4], AVFormatIDKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:1], AVNumberOfChannelsKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:AVAudioQualityLow], AVSampleRateConverterAudioQualityKey, [NSNumber numberWithFloat:44100], AVSampleRateKey, [NSNumber numberWithInt:8], AVLinearPCMBitDepthKey, nil ]; // define audio recorder audioRecorder = [[AVAudioRecorder alloc] initWithURL:audioFileURL settings:settings error:nil]; [audioRecorder setDelegate:self]; [audioRecorder setMeteringEnabled:YES]; [audioRecorder prepareToRecord]; // define record button button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(handleTouch_recordButton) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button setFrame:CGRectMake(110.0, 217.5, 100.0, 45.0)]; [button setTitle:@"Record" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setTitle:@"Stop" forState:UIControlStateSelected]; // configure the main view controller UIViewController *viewController = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [viewController.view addSubview:button]; // add controllers to window [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; // release [audioFileURL release]; [settings release]; [viewController release]; return YES; } - (void) handleTouch_recordButton { if ( ![button isSelected] ) { [button setSelected:YES]; [audioRecorder record]; } else { [button setSelected:NO]; [audioRecorder stop]; } } - (void) dealloc { [audioRecorder release]; [button release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } The stack trace from Instruments that shows pretty clearly that the "closeFile" method in the AVFoundation code is leaking...something. You can see a screen shot of the Instruments session here: Developer Forums: AVAudioRecorder Memory Leak Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Why not .NET-style delegates rather than closures in Java?

    - by h2g2java
    OK, this is going to be my beating a dying horse for the 3rd time. However, this question is different from my earlier two about closures/delegates, which asks about plans for delegates and what are the projected specs and implementation for closures. This question is about - why is the Java community struggling to define 3 different types of closures when we could simply steal the whole concept of delegates lock, stock and barrel from our beloved and friendly neighbour - Microsoft. There are two non-technical conclusions I would be very tempted to jump into: The Java community should hold up its pride, at the cost of needing to go thro convoluted efforts, by not succumbing to borrowing any Microsoft concepts or otherwise vindicate Microsoft's brilliance. Delegates is a Microsoft patented technology. Alright, besides the above two possibilities, Q1. Is there any weakness or inadequacy in msft-styled delegates that the three (or more) forms of closures would be addressing? Q2. I am asking this while shifting between java and c# and it intrigues me that c# delegates does exactly what I needed. Are there features that would be implemented in closures that are not currently available in C# delegates? If so what are they because I cannot see what I need more than what C# delegates has adequately provided me? Q3. I know that one of the concerns about implementing closures/delegates in java is the reduction of orthogonality of the language, where more than one way is exposed to perform a particular task. Is it worth the level convolution and time spent to avoid delegates just to ensure java retains its level of orthogonality? In SQL, we know that it is advisable to break orthogonality by frequently adequately satisfying only the 2nd normal form. Why can't java be subjected to reduction of orthogonality and OO-ness for the sake of simplicity? Q4. The architecture of JVM is technically constrained from implementing .NET-styled delegates. If this reason WERE (subjunctive to emphasize unlikelihood) true, then why can't the three closures proposals be hidden behind a simple delegate keyword or annotation: if we don't like to use @delegate, we could use @method. I cannot see how delegate statement format is more complex than the three closure proposals.

    Read the article

  • MS Access 2003 - Unbound Form uses INSERT statement to save to table; what about subforms?

    - by Justin
    So I have an unbound form that I use to save data to a table on button click. Is there a way I can have subforms for entry that will allow me to save data to the table within that same button click? Basically I want to add more entry options for the user, and while I know other ways to do it, I am particularly curious about doing it this way (if it can be done). So lets say the 'parent form' is frmMain. And there are two child forms "sub1" and "sub2". Just for example sake lets say on frmMain there are two text boxes: txtTitle & txtAuthor. sub1 and sub2 both have a text Box on them that represent something like prices. The idea is Title & author of a book, and then a price at each store (simplified). So I tried this (because I thought it was worth a shot): Dim db as DAO.database Dim sql as String sql = "INSERT INTO (Title, Author, PriceA, PriceB) VALUES (" if not isnull(me.txtTitle) then sql = sql & """" & me.txtTitle & """," Else sql = sql & " NULL," End If if not IsNull(me.txtAuthor) then sql = sql & " """ & me.txtAuthor & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not IsNull (forms!sub1.txtPrice) then sql = sql & " """ & forms!sub1.txtPrice & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if without finishing the code, i think you may see the GOTCHA i am headed for. I tried this and got an "Access cannot find the form "" ". I think I can pretty much see why on this approach too, because when I click the button that calls the new sub form into the parent form, the values that were just entered are not held/saved as sub1 closes and sub2 opens. I should mention that the idea above is not intended to be a one or the other approach, rather both sub forms used everytime. so this is an example. i want to use this method (if possible) to have about 7 different sub form choices in one form, and be able to save to a table via a SQL statement. I realize that there may be better ways, but I am just wondering if I can get there with this approach out of curiousity. Thanks as always!

    Read the article

  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • CSS text-decoration rule ignored

    - by Ferdy
    I have found similar questions to mine but none of the suggestions seems to apply to my situation, so here goes... I have a webpage with a buch of images on them. Each image has a title which in markup is between h2 tags. The title is a link, so the resulting markup is like this: <ul class="imagelist"> <li> <a href=""><h2>Title 1</h2></a> <a href=""><img src="" /></a> </li> <li> Image 2, etc... </li> </ul> All I want is for the title links to not be underlined. I tried to address this like this: .imagelist li a h2 { color:#333; text-decoration:none; } It completely ignores the text-decoration rule, yet respects the color rule. From other questions I learned that this could be because a child element cannot overrule the text-decoration of any of its parents. So, I went looking for the parent elements to see if any explicit text-decoration rules are applied. I found none. This is driving me crazy, any help? For the sake of completeness, here is the Firebug CSS output, which shows the full inheritance and such. Probably more than you want, but I cannot see anything conflicting here. .imagelist li a h2 { color:#333333; text-decoration:none; } main.css (line 417) h2 { font-size:14px; } main.css (line 40) h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6 { display:block; font-weight:bold; margin-bottom:10px; } main.css (line 38) h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6 { font-size:100%; font-weight:normal; } reset-min.css (line 7) body, div, dl, dt, dd, ul, ol, li, h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6, pre, code, form, fieldset, legend, input, textarea, p, blockquote, th, td { margin:0; padding:0; } reset-min.css (line 7) Inherited froma /apps/ju...mage/745 a { color:#0063E2; } main.css (line 55) Inherited fromli .imagelist li { list-style-type:none; } main.css (line 411) li { list-style:none outside none; } reset-min.css (line 7) Inherited fromul.imagelist .imagelist { border-collapse:collapse; font-size:9px; } main.css (line 410) Inherited frombody body, form { color:#333333; font:12px arial,helvetica,clean,sans-serif; } main.css (line 36) Inherited fromhtml html { color:#000000;

    Read the article

  • GCC, -O2, and bitfields - is this a bug or a feature?

    - by Rooke
    Today I discovered alarming behavior when experimenting with bit fields. For the sake of discussion and simplicity, here's an example program: #include <stdio.h> struct Node { int a:16 __attribute__ ((packed)); int b:16 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int c:27 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int d:3 __attribute__ ((packed)); unsigned int e:2 __attribute__ ((packed)); }; int main (int argc, char *argv[]) { Node n; n.a = 12345; n.b = -23456; n.c = 0x7ffffff; n.d = 0x7; n.e = 0x3; printf("3-bit field cast to int: %d\n",(int)n.d); n.d++; printf("3-bit field cast to int: %d\n",(int)n.d); } The program is purposely causing the 3-bit bit-field to overflow. Here's the (correct) output when compiled using "g++ -O0": 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 0 Here's the output when compiled using "g++ -O2" (and -O3): 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 8 Checking the assembly of the latter example, I found this: movl $7, %esi movl $.LC1, %edi xorl %eax, %eax call printf movl $8, %esi movl $.LC1, %edi xorl %eax, %eax call printf xorl %eax, %eax addq $8, %rsp The optimizations have just inserted "8", assuming 7+1=8 when in fact the number overflows and is zero. Fortunately the code I care about doesn't overflow as far as I know, but this situation scares me - is this a known bug, a feature, or is this expected behavior? When can I expect gcc to be right about this? Edit (re: signed/unsigned) : It's being treated as unsigned because it's declared as unsigned. Declaring it as int you get the output (with O0): 3-bit field cast to int: -1 3-bit field cast to int: 0 An even funnier thing happens with -O2 in this case: 3-bit field cast to int: 7 3-bit field cast to int: 8 I admit that attribute is a fishy thing to use; in this case it's a difference in optimization settings I'm concerned about.

    Read the article

  • Alternatives to requiring users to register for an account?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on a side project to build a new web app idea of mine. For the sake of discussion, let's say this app displays a random photograph of a famous work of art. On a scale of 1 to 5, users are asked to rate how well they like each piece of art, and then are shown the next photo. Eventually, the app is able to get an sense of the person's style and is able to recommend artwork that he/she may find pleasing. The whole concept is similar to Netflix. I understand how to do all the preference matching logic (although not as sophisticated as Netflix). But I'd like to find a way to do this without requiring that users create an account first. This is a novelty website that a typical user might use only a handful of times. Requiring registration is overkill and will likely drastically reduce it's utility. I'd like to allow people to begin rating artwork within five seconds of their initial pageview, yet maintain the integrity of the voting (since recommendations are predicated on how other people have rated the various pieces of artwork). Can it be done? Some ideas: OpenID. The perfect solution except for the fact that it's not wildly used and my target audience isn't the most technically adept demographic. Text message. User inputs phone number and is texted a four digit code to key into the web app. Quick, easy, and great way to limit abuse. However, privacy concerns abound... people are probably even less likely to give me their phone number than their email address. Facebook login. I personally don't have a Facebook account due to privacy concerns. And I'd really hate to support such a proprietary platform. Hash code/Bookmark. Vistor's initial pageview generates a 5 or 6 digit alphanumeric code that is embedded in each subsequent URL. They can bookmark any page to save their state. Good: Very simple system that doesn't require any user action. Bad: Very easy to stuff the ballot box, might be difficult to account for users sharing the link containing their ID code via email or social networking sites.

    Read the article

  • Working with Hibernate Queries

    - by jschoen
    I am new to hibernate queries, and trying to get a grasp on how everything works. I am using Hibernate 3 with Netbeans 6.5. I have a basic project set up and have been playing around with how to do everything. I started with essentially a search query. Where the user can enter values into one or more fields. The table would be Person with the columns first_name, middle_name, last_name for the sake of the example. The first way I found was to have a method that took firstName, middleName, and lastName as parameters: Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction tx = session.beginTransaction(); String query = "from Person where (first_name = :firstName or :firstName is null) "+ "and (middle_name = :middleName or :middleName is null) " "and (last_name = :lastname or :lastName is null)"; Query q = session.createQuery(query); q.setString("firstName", firstName); q.setString("middleName", middleName); q.setString("lastName", lastName); List<Person> results = (List<Person>) q.list(); This did not sit well with me, since it seemed like I should not have to write that much, and well, that I was doing it wrong. So I kept digging and found another way: Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction tx = session.beginTransaction(); Criteria crit = session.createCriteria(Person.class); if (firstName != null) { crit.add(Expression.ge("firstName", firstName); } if (middleName != null) { crit.add(Expression.ge("middleName", middleName); } if (lastName != null) { crit.add(Expression.ge("lastName", lastName); } List<Person> results = (List<Person>) crit.list(); So what I am trying to figure out is which way is the preferred way for this type of query? Criteria or Query? Why? I am guessing that Criteria is the preferred way and you should only use Query when you need to write it by hand for performance type reasons. Am I close?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Web Service - how to handle special characters in strings?

    - by Vlorg
    To show this fundamental issue in .NET and the reason for this question, I have written a simple test web service with one method (EditString), and a consumer console app that calls it. They are both standard web service/console applications created via File/New Project, etc., so I won't list the whole code - just the methods in question: Web method: [WebMethod] public string EditString(string s, bool useSpecial) { return s + (useSpecial ? ((char)19).ToString() : ""); } [You can see it simply returns the string s if useSpecial is false. If useSpecial is true, it returns s + char 19.] Console app: TestService.Service1 service = new SCTestConsumer.TestService.Service1(); string response1 = service.EditString("hello", false); Console.WriteLine(response1); string response2 = service.EditString("hello", true); // fails! Console.WriteLine(response2); [The second response fails, because the method returns hello + a special character (ascii code 19 for argument's sake).] The error is: There is an error in XML document (1, 287) Inner exception: "'', hexadecimal value 0x13, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 287." A few points worth mentioning: The web method itself WORKS FINE when browsing directly to the ASMX file (e.g. http://localhost:2065/service1.asmx), and running the method through this (with the same parameters as in the console application) - i.e. displays XML with the string hello + char 19. Checking the serialized XML in other ways shows the special character is being encoded properly (the SERVER SIDE seems to be ok which is GOOD) So it seems the CLIENT SIDE has the issue - i.e. the .NET generated proxy class code doesn't handle special characters This is part of a bigger project where objects are passed in and out of the web methods - that contain string attributes - these are what need to work properly. i.e. we're de/serializing classes. Any suggestions for a workaround and how to implement it? Or have I completely missed something really obvious!!? Thanks in advance... PS. I've not had much luck with getting it to use CDATA tags (does .NET support these out of the box?).

    Read the article

  • BASH, multiple arrays and a loop.

    - by S1syphus
    At work, we 7 or 8 hardrives we dispatch over the country, each have unique labels which are not sequential. Ideally drives are plugged in our desktop, then gets folders from the server that correspond to the drive name. Sometimes, only one hard drive gets plugged in sometimes multiples, possibly in the future more will be added. Each is mounts to /Volumes/ and it's identifier; so for example /Volumes/f00, where f00 is the identifier. What I want to happen, scan volumes see if any any of the drives are plugged in, then checks the server to see if the folder exists, if ir does copy folder and recursive folders. Here is what I have so far, it checks if the drive exists in Volumes: #!/bin/sh #Declare drives in the array ARRAY=( foo bar long ) #Get the drives from the array DRIVES=${#ARRAY[@]} #Define base dir to check BaseDir="/Volumes" #Define shared server fold on local mount points #I plan to use AFP eventually, but for the sake of ease #using a local mount. ServerMount="BigBlue" #Define folder name for where files are to come from Dispatch="File-Dispatch" dir="$BaseDir/${ARRAY[${i}]}" #Loop through each item in the array and check if exists on /Volumes for (( i=0;i<$DRIVES;i++)); do dir="$BaseDir/${ARRAY[${i}]}" if [ -d "$dir" ]; then echo "$dir exists, you win." else echo "$dir is not attached." fi done What I can't figure out how to do, is how to check the volumes for the server while looping through the harddrive mount points. So I could do something like: #!/bin/sh #Declare drives, and folder location in arrays ARRAY=( foo bar long ) ARRAY1=($(ls ""$BaseDir"/"$ServerMount"/"$Dispatch"")) #Get the drives from the array DRIVES=${#ARRAY[@]} SERVERFOLDER=${#ARRAY1[@]} #Define base dir to check BaseDir="/Volumes" #Define shared server fold on local mount points ServerMount="BigBlue #Define folder name for where files are to come from Dispatch="File-Dispatch" dir="$BaseDir/${ARRAY[${i}]}" #List the contents from server directory into array ARRAY1=($(ls ""$BaseDir"/"$ServerMount"/"$Dispatch"")) echo ${list[@]} for (( i=0;i<$DRIVES;i++)); (( i=0;i<$SERVERFOLDER;i++)); do dir="$BaseDir/${ARRAY[${i}]}" ser="${ARRAY1[${i}]}" if [ "$dir" =~ "$sir" ]; then cp "$sir" "$dir" else echo "$dir is not attached." fi done I know, that is pretty wrong... well very, but I hope it gives you the idea of what I am trying to achieve. Any ideas or suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

    - by Dennis Zickefoose
    I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

    Read the article

  • Algorithm to Render a Horizontal Binary-ish Tree in Text/ASCII form

    - by Justin L.
    It's a pretty normal binary tree, except for the fact that one of the nodes may be empty. I'd like to find a way to output it in a horizontal way (that is, the root node is on the left and expands to the right). I've had some experience expanding trees vertically (root node at the top, expanding downwards), but I'm not sure where to start, in this case. Preferably, it would follow these couple of rules: If a node has only one child, it can be skipped as redundant (an "end node", with no children, is always displayed) All nodes of the same depth must be aligned vertically; all nodes must be to the right of all less-deep nodes and to the left of all deeper nodes. Nodes have a string representation which includes their depth. Each "end node" has its own unique line; that is, the number of lines is the number of end nodes in the tree, and when an end node is on a line, there may be nothing else on that line after that end node. As a consequence of the last rule, the root node should be in either the top left or the bottom left corner; top left is preferred. For example, this is a valid tree, with six end nodes (node is represented by a name, and its depth): [a0]------------[b3]------[c5]------[d8] \ \ \----------[e9] \ \----[f5] \--[g1]--------[h4]------[i6] \ \--------------------[j10] \-[k3] Which represents the horizontal, explicit binary tree: 0 a / \ 1 g * / \ \ 2 * * * / \ \ 3 k * b / / \ 4 h * * / \ \ \ 5 * * f c / \ / \ 6 * i * * / / \ 7 * * * / / \ 8 * * d / / 9 * e / 10 j (branches folded for compactness; * representing redundant, one-child nodes; note that *'s are actual nodes, storing one child each, just with names omitted here for presentation sake) (also, to clarify, I'd like to generate the first, horizontal tree; not this vertical tree) I say language-agnostic because I'm just looking for an algorithm; I say ruby because I'm eventually going to have to implement it in ruby anyway. Assume that each Node data structure stores only its id, a left node, and a right node. A master Tree class keeps tracks of all nodes and has adequate algorithms to find: A node's nth ancestor A node's nth descendant The generation of a node The lowest common ancestor of two given nodes Anyone have any ideas of where I could start? Should I go for the recursive approach? Iterative?

    Read the article

  • Is this scenario in compliance with GPLv3?

    - by Sean Kinsey
    For arguments sake, say that we create a web application , that depends on a GPLv3 licensed component, lets say Ext JS. Based on Section 0 of the license, the common notion is that the entire web application (the client side javascript) falls under the definition of a covered work: A “covered work” means either the unmodified Program or a work based on the Program. and that it will therefor have to be distributed under the same license Ok, so here comes the fun part: This is a short 'program' that is based on Ext JS var myPanel = new Ext.Panel(); The question that arises is: Have I now violated the GPL by not including the source of Ext JS and its license? Ok, so lets take another example <!doctype html> <html> <head> <title>my title</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://extjs.cachefly.net/ext-3.2.1/ext-all.js"> </script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://extjs.cachefly.net/ext-3.2.1/resources/css/ext-all.css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> var myPanel = new Ext.Panel(); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> Have I now violated the terms of the GPL? The code conveyed by me to you is in a non-functional state - it will have to be combined with the actual source of Ext JS, which you(your browser) will have to retrieve, from a source made public by someone else to be usable. Now, if the answer to the above is no, how does me conveying this code in visible form differ from the 'invisible' form conveyed by my web server? As a side note, a very similar thing is done in Linux with many projects that depends on less permissive licenses - the user has to retrieve these on its own and make these available for the primary lib/executable. How is this not the same if the user is informed on beforehand that he (the browser) will have to retrieve the needed resources from a different source? Just to make it clear, I'm pro FLOSS, and I have also published a number of projects licensed under more permissive licenses. The reason I'm asking this is that I still haven't found anyone offering a definitive answer to this.

    Read the article

  • Invalid character in a Base-64 string when Concatenating and Url encoding a string

    - by Rob
    I’m trying to write some encryption code that is passed through a Url. For the sake of the issue I’ve excluded the actual encryption of the data and just shown the code causing the problem. I take a salt value, convert it to a byte array and then convert that to a base64 string. This string I concatenate to another base64 string (which was previously a byte array). These two base64 strings are then Url encoded. Here’s my code... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; using System.Web; class RHEncryption { private static readonly Encoding ASCII_ENCODING = new System.Text.ASCIIEncoding(); private static readonly string SECRET_KEY = "akey"; private static string md5(string text) { return BitConverter.ToString(new MD5CryptoServiceProvider().ComputeHash(ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(text))).Replace("-", "").ToLower(); } public string UrlEncodedData; public RHEncryption() { // encryption object RijndaelManaged aes192 = new RijndaelManaged(); aes192.KeySize = 192; aes192.BlockSize = 192; aes192.Mode = CipherMode.CBC; aes192.Key = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(md5(SECRET_KEY)); aes192.GenerateIV(); // convert Ivector to base64 for sending string base64IV = Convert.ToBase64String(aes192.IV); // salt value string s = "maryhadalittlelamb"; string salt = s.Substring(0, 8); // convert to byte array // and base64 for sending byte[] saltBytes = ASCII_ENCODING.GetBytes(salt.TrimEnd('\0')); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(saltBytes); //url encode concatenated base64 strings UrlEncodedData = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(base64Salt + base64IV, ASCII_ENCODING); } public string UrlDecodedData() { // decode the url encode string string s = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(UrlEncodedData, ASCII_ENCODING); // convert back from base64 byte[] base64DecodedBytes = null; try { base64DecodedBytes = Convert.FromBase64String(s); } catch (FormatException e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } return s; } } If I then call the UrlDecodedData method I get a “Invalid character in a Base-64 string” exception. This is generated because the base64Salt variable contains an invalid character (I’m guessing a line termination) but I can’t seem to strip it off.

    Read the article

  • idiomatic property changed notification in scala?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    I'm trying to find a cleaner alternative (that is idiomatic to Scala) to the kind of thing you see with data-binding in WPF/silverlight data-binding - that is, implementing INotifyPropertyChanged. First, some background: In .Net WPF or silverlight applications, you have the concept of two-way data-binding (that is, binding the value of some element of the UI to a .net property of the DataContext in such a way that changes to the UI element affect the property, and vise versa. One way to enable this is to implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in your DataContext. Unfortunately, this introduces a lot of boilerplate code for any property you add to the "ModelView" type. Here is how it might look in Scala: trait IDrawable extends INotifyPropertyChanged { protected var drawOrder : Int = 0 def DrawOrder : Int = drawOrder def DrawOrder_=(value : Int) { if(drawOrder != value) { drawOrder = value OnPropertyChanged("DrawOrder") } } protected var visible : Boolean = true def Visible : Boolean = visible def Visible_=(value: Boolean) = { if(visible != value) { visible = value OnPropertyChanged("Visible") } } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of INotifyPropertyChanged trait } } } For the sake of space, let's assume the INotifyPropertyChanged type is a trait that manages a list of callbacks of type (AnyRef, String) = Unit, and that OnPropertyChanged is a method that invokes all those callbacks, passing "this" as the AnyRef, and the passed-in String). This would just be an event in C#. You can immediately see the problem: that's a ton of boilerplate code for just two properties. I've always wanted to write something like this instead: trait IDrawable { val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of ObservableProperty class } } } I know that I can easily write it like this, if ObservableProperty[T] has Value/Value_= methods (this is the method I'm using now): trait IDrawable { // on a side note, is there some way to get a Symbol representing the Visible field // on the following line, instead of hard-coding it in the ObservableProperty // constructor? val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible.Value) { DrawOrder.Value += 1 } } } // given this implementation of ObservableProperty[T] in my library // note: IEvent, Event, and EventArgs are classes in my library for // handling lists of callbacks - they work similarly to events in C# class PropertyChangedEventArgs(val PropertyName: Symbol) extends EventArgs("") class ObservableProperty[T](val PropertyName: Symbol, private var value: T) { protected val propertyChanged = new Event[PropertyChangedEventArgs] def PropertyChanged: IEvent[PropertyChangedEventArgs] = propertyChanged def Value = value; def Value_=(value: T) { if(this.value != value) { this.value = value propertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) } } } But is there any way to implement the first version using implicits or some other feature/idiom of Scala to make ObservableProperty instances function as if they were regular "properties" in scala, without needing to call the Value methods? The only other thing I can think of is something like this, which is more verbose than either of the above two versions, but is still less verbose than the original: trait IDrawable { private val visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, false) def Visible = visible.Value def Visible_=(value: Boolean): Unit = { visible.Value = value } private val drawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def DrawOrder = drawOrder.Value def DrawOrder_=(value: Int): Unit = { drawOrder.Value = value } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 } } }

    Read the article

  • The Math of a Jump in a 2D game.

    - by ONi
    I have been all around with this question and I can't find the correct answer! So, behold, the description of my question: I'm working in J2ME, I have my gameloop that do the following: public void run() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); while (running) { long diff = System.currentTimeMillis() - lastLoop; lastLoop = System.currentTimeMillis(); input(); this.level.doLogic(); render(g, diff); try { Thread.sleep(10); } catch (InterruptedException e) { stop(e); } } } so it's just a basic gameloop, the doLogic() function calls for all the logic functions of the characters in the scene and render(g, diff) calls the animateChar function of every character on scene, following this, the animChar function in the Character class sets up everything in the screen as this: protected void animChar(long diff) { this.checkGravity(); this.move((int) ((diff * this.dx) / 1000), (int) ((diff * this.dy) / 1000)); if (this.acumFrame > this.framerate) { this.nextFrame(); this.acumFrame = 0; } else { this.acumFrame += diff; } } This ensures me that everything must to move according to the time that the machine takes to go from cycle to cycle (remember it's a phone, not a gaming rig). I'm sure it's not the most efficient way to achieve this behavior so I'm totally open for criticism of my programming skills in the comments, but here my problem: When I make I character jump, what I do is that I put his dy to a negative value, say -200 and I set the boolean jumping to true, that makes the character go up, and then I have this function called checkGravity() that ensure that everything that goes up has to go down, checkGravity also checks for the character being over platforms so I will strip it down a little for the sake of your time: public void checkGravity() { if (this.jumping) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 0) { this.jumping = false; this.falling = true; } this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } if (this.falling) { this.jumpSpeed += 10; if (this.jumpSpeed > 200) this.jumpSpeed = 200; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; if (this.collidesWithPlatform()) { this.falling = false; this.standing = true; this.jumping = false; this.jumpSpeed = 0; this.dy = this.jumpSpeed; } } } So, the problem is, that this function updates the dy regardless of the diff, making the characters fly like Superman in slow machines, and I have no idea how to implement the diff factor so that when a character is jumping, his speed decrement in a proportional way to the game speed. Can anyone help me fix this issue? or give me pointers on how to make a 2D Jump in J2ME the right way. Thank you very much for your time.

    Read the article

  • Nested partial output caching in asp.net mvc 3

    - by Anwar Chandra
    Hi All, I am using Razor view engine in ASP.Net MVC 3 RC 2 this is part of my view city.cshtml (drastically simplified for the sake of simple example) <!-- in city.cshtml --> <div class="list"> @foreach(var product in SQL.GetProducts(Model.City) ) { <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @foreach(var category in SQL.GetCategories(product.ID) ) { <a href="@category.Url">@category.Name</a> » } </div> </div> } </div> I want to cache this part of my output using OutputCache attribute. so I created an action ProductList with OutputCache attribute enabled <!-- in city.cshtml --> <div class="list"> @Html.Action("ProductList", new { City = Model.City }) </div> and I created the view in ProductList.cshtml as below <!-- in ProductList.cshtml --> @foreach(var product in Model.Products ) { <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @foreach(var category in SQL.GetCategories(product.ID) ) { <a href="@category.Url">@category.Name</a> » } </div> </div> } but I still need to cache the category path output on each product. so I created an action CategoryPath with OutputCache attribute enabled <!-- in ProductList.cshtml --> @foreach(var product in Model.Products ){ <div class="product"> <div>@product.Name</div> <div class="category"> @Html.Action("CategoryPath", new { ProductID = product.ID }) </div> </div> } but apparently this is not allowed. I got this error.. OutputCacheAttribute is not allowed on child actions which are children of an already cached child action. I believe they have a good reason why they need to disallow this. but I really want this kind of nested Output Caching Please, any idea for a workaround?

    Read the article

  • Classes to Entities; Like-class inheritence problems

    - by Stacey
    Beyond work, some friends and I are trying to build a game of sorts; The way we structure some of it works pretty well for a normal object oriented approach, but as most developers will attest this does not always translate itself well into a database persistent approach. This is not the absolute layout of what we have, it is just a sample model given for sake of representation. The whole project is being done in C# 4.0, and we have every intention of using Entity Framework 4.0 (unless Fluent nHibernate can really offer us something we outright cannot do in EF). One of the problems we keep running across is inheriting things in database models. Using the Entity Framework designer, I can draw the same code I have below; but I'm sure it is pretty obvious that it doesn't work like it is expected to. To clarify a little bit; 'Items' have bonuses, which can be of anything. Therefore, every part of the game must derive from something similar so that no matter what is 'changed' it is all at a basic enough level to be hooked into. Sounds fairly simple and straightforward, right? So then, we inherit everything that pertains to the game from 'Unit'. Weights, Measures, Random (think like dice, maybe?), and there will be other such entities. Some of them are similar, but in code they will each react differently. We're having a really big problem with abstracting this kind of thing into a database model. Without 'Enum' support, it is proving difficult to translate into multiple tables that still share a common listing. One solution we've depicted is to use a 'key ring' type approach, where everything that attaches to a character is stored on a 'Ring' with a 'Key', where each Key has a Value that represents a type. This works functionally but we've discovered it becomes very sluggish and performs poorly. We also dislike this approach because it begins to feel as if everything is 'dumped' into one class; which makes management and logical structure difficult to adhere to. I was hoping someone else might have some ideas on what I could do with this problem. It's really driving me up the wall; To summarize; the goal is to build a type (Unit) that can be used as a base type (Table per Type) for generic reference across a relatively global scope, without having to dump everything into a single collection. I can use an Interface to determine actual behavior so that isn't too big of an issue. This is 'roughly' the same idea expressed in the Entity Framework.

    Read the article

  • Array Sorting Question for News System

    - by lemonpole
    Hello all. I'm currently stuck trying to figure out how to sort my array files. I have a simple news posting system that stores the content in seperate .dat files and then stores them in an array. I numbered the files so that my array can sort them from lowest number to greatest; however, I have run into a small problem. To begin here is some more information on my system so that you can understand it better. The function that gathers my files is: function getNewsList() { $fileList = array(); // Open the actual directory if($handle = opendir(ABSPATH . ADMIN . "data")) { // Read all file from the actual directory while($file = readdir($handle)) { if(!is_dir($file)) { $fileList[] = $file; } } } // Return the array. return $fileList; } On a seperate file is the programming that processes the news post. I didn't post that code for simplicity's sake but I will explain how the files are named. The files are numbered and the part of the post's title is used... for the numbering I get a count of the array and add "1" as an offset. I get the title of the post, encode it to make it file-name-friendly and limit the amount of text so by the end of it all I end up with: // Make the variable that names the file that will contain // the post. $filename = "00{$newnumrows}_{$snipEncode}"; When running print_r on the above function I get: Array ( [0] => 0010_Mira_mi_Soledad.dat [1] => 0011_WOah.dat [2] => 0012_Sinep.dat [3] => 0013_Living_in_Warfa.dat [4] => 0014_Hello.dat [5] => 001_AS.dat [6] => 002_ASASA.dat [7] => 003_SSASAS.dat ... [13] => 009_ASADADASADAFDAF.dat ) And this is how my content is displayed. For some reason according to the array sorting 0010 comes before 001...? Is there a way I can get my array to sort 001 before 0010?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34  | Next Page >