Search Results

Search found 5121 results on 205 pages for 'the all foo'.

Page 29/205 | < Previous Page | 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36  | Next Page >

  • Nested Class member function can't access function of enclosing class. Why?

    - by Rahul
    Please see the example code below: class A { private: class B { public: foobar(); }; public: foo(); bar(); }; Within class A & B implementation: A::foo() { //do something } A::bar() { //some code foo(); //more code } A::B::foobar() { //some code foo(); //<<compiler doesn't like this } The compiler flags the call to foo() within the method foobar(). Earlier, I had foo() as private member function of class A but changed to public assuming that B's function can't see it. Of course, it didn't help. I am trying to re-use the functionality provided by A's method. Why doesn't the compiler allow this function call? As I see it, they are part of same enclosing class (A). I thought the accessibility issue for nested class meebers for enclosing class in C++ standards was resolved. How can I achieve what I am trying to do without re-writing the same method (foo()) for B, which keeping B nested within A? I am using VC++ compiler ver-9 (Visual Studio 2008). Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • Home_path issue with RoR testing locally on mobile device

    - by Amir
    When I use <%= link_to image_tag("foo.png"), home_path %> and display it on my localhost on my iPhone, it's broken. When I inspect on with firebug, the src of the image is http://localhost:3000/images/foo.png thus causing it to break on my iPhone. When I use <img src="/images/foo.png" /> it displays fine on my iPhone. I am pointing to the IP address of my PC running the server of my rails app in Safari. It's loading the text but all the css, JavaScript, and images are missing unless the path is absolute with using the rails default helpers. Is there a way to correct this path issue locally so it's absolute like /images/foo.png instead of http://localhost:3000/images/foo.png. Update CSS file paths are also affected. Instead of just making the path /stylesheets/foo.css, it's http://localhost:3000/stylesheets/foo.css. Update: Solution It's the Facebook plugin changing the asset host to the callback url of my facebook app settings which is currently set to http://localhost:3000/

    Read the article

  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails bizarre behavior with ActiveRecord error handling

    - by randombits
    Can anyone explain why this happens? mybox:$ ruby script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> foo = Foo.new => #<Foo id: nil, customer_id: nil, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> >> bar = Bar.new => #<Bar id: nil, bundle_id: nil, alias: nil, real: nil, active: true, list_type: 0, body_record_active: false, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> >> bar.save => false >> bar.errors.each_full { |msg| puts msg } Real can't be blank Real You must supply a valid email => ["Real can't be blank", "Real You must supply a valid email"] So far that is perfect, that is what i want the error message to read. Now for more: >> foo.bars << bar => [#<Bar id: nil, bundle_id: nil, alias: nil, real: nil, active: true, list_type: 0, body_record_active: false, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil>] >> foo.save => false >> foo.errors.to_xml => "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>\n<errors>\n <error>Bars is invalid</error>\n</errors>\n" That is what I can't figure out. Why am I getting Bars is invalid versus the error messages displayed above, ["Real can't be blank", "Real you must supply a valid email"] etc. My controller simply has a respond_to method with the following in it: format.xml { render :xml => @foo.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } How do I have this output the real error messages so the user has some insight into what they did wrong?

    Read the article

  • Py_INCREF/DECREF: When

    - by Izz ad-Din Ruhulessin
    Is one correct in stating the following: If a Python object is created in a C function, but the function doesn't return it, no INCREF is needed, but a DECREF is. [false]If the function does return it, you do need to INCREF, in the function that receives the return value.[/false] When assigning C typed variables as attributes, like double, int etc., to the Python object, no INCREF or DECREF is needed. Assigning Python objects as attributes to your other Python objects goes like this: PyObject *foo; foo = bar // A Python object tmp = self->foo; Py_INCREF(foo); self->foo = foo; Py_XDECREF(tmp); //taken from the manual, but it is unclear if this works in every situation EDIT: -- can I safely use this in every situation? (haven't run into one where it caused me problems) dealloc of a Python object needs to DECREF for every other Python object that it has as an attribute, but not for attributes that are C types. Edit With 'C type as an attribute I mean bar and baz: typedef struct { PyObject_HEAD PyObject *foo; int bar; double baz; } FooBarBaz;

    Read the article

  • invasive vs non-invasive ref-counted pointers in C++

    - by anon
    For the past few years, I've generally accepted that if I am going to use ref-counted smart pointers invasive smart pointers is the way to go -- However, I'm starting to like non-invasive smart pointers due to the following: I only use smart pointers (so no Foo* lying around, only Ptr) I'm starting to build custom allocators for each class. (So Foo would overload operator new). Now, if Foo has a list of all Ptr (as it easily can with non-invasive smart pointers). Then, I can avoid memory fragmentation issues since class Foo move the objects around (and just update the corresponding Ptr). The only reason why this Foo moving objects around in non-invasive smart pointers being easier than invasive smart pointers is: In non-invasive smart pointers, there is only one pointer that points to each Foo. In invasive smart pointers, I have no idea how many objects point to each Foo. Now, the only cost of non-invasive smart pointers ... is the double indirection. [Perhaps this screws up the caches]. Does anyone have a good study of expensive this extra layer of indirection is?

    Read the article

  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I best do balanced quoting with Perl's Regexp::Grammars?

    - by Evan Carroll
    Using Damian Conway's Regexp::Grammars, I'm trying to match different balanced quoting ('foo', "foo", but not 'foo") mechanisms -- such as parens, quotes, double quotes, and double dollars. This is the code I'm currently using. <token: pair> \'<literal>\'|\"<literal>\"|\$\$<literal>\$\$ <token: literal> [\S]+ This generally works fine and allows me to say something like: <rule: quote> QUOTE <.as>? <pair> My question is how do I reform the output, to exclude the needles notation for the pair token? { '' => 'QUOTE AS \',\'', 'quote' => { '' => 'QUOTE AS \',\'', 'pair' => { 'literal' => ',', '' => '\',\'' } } }, Here, there is obviously no desire to have pair in between, quote, and the literal value of it. Is there a better way to match 'foo', "foo", and $$foo$$, and maybe sometimes ( foo ) without each time creating a needless pair token? Can I preprocess-out that token or fold it into the above? Or, write a better construct entirely that eliminates the need for it?

    Read the article

  • __toString magic and type coercion

    - by TomcatExodus
    I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

    Read the article

  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

    Read the article

  • What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

    - by jboxer
    In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

    Read the article

  • C# function called after dependency property have been set

    - by mizipzor
    My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

    Read the article

  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • how to switch views according to command

    - by Veer
    I've a main view and many usercontrols. The main view contains a two column grid, with the first column filled with a listbox whose datatemplate consists of a usercontrol and the second column filled with another usercontrol. These two usercontrols have the same datacontext. MainView: <Grid> //Column defs ... <ListView Grid.Column="0" ItemSource="{Binding Foo}"> ... <DataTemplate> <Views: FooView1 /> </DataTemplate> </ListView> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Count}" /> <StackPanel Grid.Column="1"> <Views: FooView2 /> </StackPanel> <Grid> FooView1: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Title}"> </UserControl> FooView2: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail1}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail2}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail3}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail4}"> </UserControl> I've no IDE here. Excuse me if there is any syntax error When the user clicks on a button. These two usercontrols have to be replaced by another two usercontrols, so the datacontext changes, the main ui remaining the same. ie, FooView1 by BarView1 and FooView2 by BarView2 In short i want to bind this view changes in mainview to my command (command from Button) How can i do this? Also tell me if i could merge the usercontrol pairs, so that only one view exists for each viewmodel ie, FooView1 and FooView2 into FooView and so on...

    Read the article

  • Rails load path questions

    - by HelpMe
    Say I have some custom classes that don't belong in models, controllers etc, I should put this in /lib correct? In rails < 3 I would add this directory to my loadpath and in rails 3+ I would add this to my autoload_path. Is this correct? Now say I have some classes that extends already defined classes. Where should I put this so its run on startup. Forexample say I want to add the method 'foo' on String. class String def foo 'foo; end end Where should I put this class so it's defined on startup? Another weird bug I have is when I try to namespace classes in lib. module MyProject class Foo end end Now in a console: ruby-1.9.2-p136 :004 Bags::Foo LoadError: Expected /Users/me/workspace/my_project/lib/foo.rb to define Foo from /Users/rob/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/activesupport-3.0.3/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:492:in `load_missing_constant' from /Users/rob/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/gems/activesupport-3.0.3/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:183:in `block in const_missing' I keep getting this error. How can I load this file? Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

    Read the article

  • Help renaming svn repository

    - by rascher
    Here is the deal: I created an SVN repository, say, foo. It is at http://www.example.com/foo. Then I did an svn checkout. I made some updates and changes to my local copy of the code over the week. I haven't committed yet. I realized that I wanted to rename the repository. So I did this: svn copy http://example.com/foo http://example.com/bar svn delete http://example.com/foo I finish my changes (and local svn still thinks I'm working under "foo".) svn commit fails because the repo has been renamed. I try to use svn switch --relocate but it yells at me because svn is awful. I try using the script here to replace "foo" with "bar" in my billion .svn/ folders. This replace is taking a long time. I wonder if something hung? Or maybe sshfs failed? I kill it. Ctrl-C. I look and see that half my files have "foo" and the others have "bar" in the URLs in the sundry .svn/ folders. All I want to do is commit my files with the new name. I could re-checkout the branch, but then I have no way to remember which files I changed, which is why I was using version control in the first place, and svn is so godawful at moving and renaming things. What do I need to do to: Have a "clean" copy of my "bar" svn branch? and, most importantly: Commit the changes I made?

    Read the article

  • Does this code depend on string interning to work?

    - by Nick Gotch
    I'm creating a key for a dictionary which is a structure of two strings. When I test this method in a console app, it works, but I'm not sure if the only reason it works is because the strings are being interned and therefore have the same references. Foo foo1 = new Foo(); Foo foo2 = new Foo(); foo1.Key1 = "abc"; foo2.Key1 = "abc"; foo1.Key2 = "def"; foo2.Key2 = "def"; Dictionary<Foo, string> bar = new Dictionary<Foo, string>(); bar.Add(foo1, "found"); if(bar.ContainsKey(foo2)) System.Console.WriteLine("This works."); else System.Console.WriteLine("Does not work"); The struct is simply: public struct Foo { public string Key1; public string Key2; } Are there any cases which would cause this to fail or am I good to rely on this as a unique key?

    Read the article

  • How to properly assign a value to the member of a struct that has a class data type?

    - by sasayins
    Hi, Please kindly see below for the codes. Its compiling successfully but the expected result is not working. Im very confused because my initialization of the array is valid, //cbar.h class CBar { public: class CFoo { public: CFoo( int v ) : m_val = v {} int GetVal() { return m_val; } private: int m_val; }; public: static const CFoo foo1; static const CFoo foo2; public: CBar( CFoo foo ) m_barval( foo.GetVal() ){} int GetFooVal() { return m_barval; } private: int m_barval; }; //cbar.cpp const CBar::CFoo foo1 = CBar::CFoo(2); const CBar::CFoo foo2 = CBar::CFoo(3); //main.cpp struct St { CBar::CFoo foo; }; St st[] = { CBar::foo1, CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } But then when I change the St::foo to a pointer. And like assign the address of CBar::foo1 or CBar::foo2, its working, like this, //main.cpp struct St { const CBar::CFoo *foo; }; St st[] = { &CBar::foo1, &CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( *st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } The real problem is. The app should output 2 3 Please advice. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • What happens when ToArray() is called on IEnumerable ?

    - by Sir Psycho
    I'm having trouble understanding what happens when a ToArray() is called on an IEnumerable. I've always assumed that only the references are copied. I would expect the output here to be: true true But instead I get true false What is going on here? class One { public bool Foo { get; set; } } class Two { public bool Foo { get; set; } } void Main() { var collection1 = new[] { new One(), new One() }; IEnumerable<Two> stuff = Convert(collection1); var firstOne = stuff.First(); firstOne.Foo = true; Console.WriteLine (firstOne.Foo); var array = stuff.ToArray(); Console.WriteLine (array[0].Foo); } IEnumerable<Two> Convert(IEnumerable<One> col1) { return from c in col1 select new Two() { Foo = c.Foo }; }

    Read the article

  • C++ RPC library suggestions

    - by Oxsnarder
    I'm looking for suggestions regarding RPC libraries implemented in C++, for C++ developers. Some requirements constraints: Should work on both linux/unix and win32 systems Be able to execute free function and class methods Hopefully written in modern C++ not 90's/java-esque C++ Be able to function over networks and hetrogenous architectures Not too slow or inefficient Hopefully provide interfaces for TR1 style std::function's et al. My example usage is to invoke the free function foo on a remote machine. ---snip--- // foo translation unit int foo(int i, int j) { return i + j; } ---snip--- ---snip--- // client side main int main() { //register foo on client and server //setup necassary connections and states int result; if (RPCmechanism.invoke("foo",4,9,result)) std::cout << "foo(4,9) = " result << std::endl; else std::cout << "failed to invoke foo(4,9)!" << std::endl; return 0; } ---snip--- Something that can achieve the above or similar would be great.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

    - by Anatoliy Gusarov
    class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

    Read the article

  • Generic delegate instances

    - by Luc C
    I wonder if C# (or the underlying .NET framework) supports some kind of "generic delegate instances": that is a delegate instance that still has an unresolved type parameter, to be resolved at the time the delegate is invoked (not at the time the delegate is created). I suspect this isn't possible, but I'm asking it anyway... Here is an example of what I'd like to do, with some "???" inserted in places where the C# syntax seems to be unavailable for what I want. (Obviously this code doesn't compile) class Foo { public T Factory<T>(string name) { // implementation omitted } } class Test { public void TestMethod() { Foo foo = new Foo(); ??? magic = foo.Factory; // No type argument given here yet to Factory! // What would the '???' be here (other than 'var' :) )? string aString = magic<string>("name 1"); // type provided on call int anInt = magic<int>("name 2"); // another type provided on another call // Note the underlying calls work perfectly fine, these work, but i'd like to expose // the generic method as a delegate. string aString2 = foo.Factory<string>("name 1"); int anInt2 = foo.Factory<int>("name 2"); } } Is there a way to actually do something like this in C#? If not, is that a limitation in the language, or is it in the .NET framework?

    Read the article

  • Using enum values to represent binary operators (or functions)

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm looking for an elegant way to use values in a Java enum to represent operations or functions. My guess is, since this is Java, there just isn't going to be a nice way to do it, but here goes anyway. My enum looks something like this: public enum Operator { LT, LTEQ, EQEQ, GT, GTEQ, NEQ; ... } where LT means < (less than), LTEQ means <= (less than or equal to), etc - you get the idea. Now I want to actually use these enum values to apply an operator. I know I could do this just using a whole bunch of if-statements, but that's the ugly, OO way, e.g.: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; // one of the enum values if (foo == Operator.LT) { return a < b; } else if (foo == Operator.LTEQ) { return a <= b; } else if ... // etc What I'd like to be able to do is cut out this structure and use some sort of first-class function or even polymorphism, but I'm not really sure how. Something like: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return foo.apply(a, b); or even int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return a foo.convertToOperator() b; But as far as I've seen, I don't think it's possible to return an operator or function (at least, not without using some 3rd-party library). Any suggestions?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36  | Next Page >