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• method for creating PHP templates (ie html with variables)?

  - by Haroldo

  I'm designing my html emails, these are to be a block of html containing variables that i can store in a $template variable. My problem comes with the storing in the variable part. putting all my html into php makes it a pain in the bum to work with. for example, the below code is fine for a simple email but once i start getting nested tables etc its going to get really confusing... $template.= 'Welcome ' . $username . '<br /><br /><br />'; $template.= 'Thank-you for creating an account <br /><br />'; $template.= 'Please confirm your account by click the link below! <br /><br />'; $template.= '<a href="' . $sitepath . '?email=' . $email . '&conf_key=' . $key . '" style="color: #03110A;"><font size="5" font-family="Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif" color="#03110A">' . $key . '</font></a>'; $template.='</body></html>'; is there a way i can still store the html in a $var but not have to write it like this?

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• Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

  - by Jason

  I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

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• How to avoid concurrent execution of a time-consuming task without blocking?

  - by Diego V

  I want to efficiently avoid concurrent execution of a time-consuming task in a heavily multi-threaded environment without making threads wait for a lock when another thread is already running the task. Instead, in that scenario, I want them to gracefully fail (i.e. skip its attempt to execute the task) as fast as possible. To illustrate the idea considerer this unsafe (has race condition!) code: private static boolean running = false; public void launchExpensiveTask() { if (running) return; // Do nothing running = true; try { runExpensiveTask(); } finally { running = false; } } I though about using a variation of Double-Checked Locking (consider that running is a primitive 32-bit field, hence atomic, it could work fine even for Java below 5 without the need of volatile). It could look like this: private static boolean running = false; public void launchExpensiveTask() { if (running) return; // Do nothing synchronized (ThisClass.class) { if (running) return; running = true; try { runExpensiveTask(); } finally { running = false; } } } Maybe I should also use a local copy of the field as well (not sure now, please tell me). But then I realized that anyway I will end with an inner synchronization block, that still could hold a thread with the right timing at monitor entrance until the original executor leaves the critical section (I know the odds usually are minimal but in this case we are thinking in several threads competing for this long-running resource). So, could you think in a better approach?

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• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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• selenium and firefox timeout behavior

  - by Md. Reazul Karim

  I am facing this strange timeout behavior. I tried to load some page using: WebDriver drv = new FirefoxDriver(); drv.manage().timeouts().implicitlyWait(10, TimeUnit.SECONDS); drv.get(url); String email = ""; try { WebElement aElem = Util.safeFindElementByXpath(drv, "//p[1]/a[1]"); if (aElem != null) { email = aElem.getAttribute("href"); } } catch (Exception e) { } drv.quit(); return email; The safeFindElementByXpath is: static WebElement safeFindElementByXpath(WebDriver driver, String xpath) { try { return driver.findElement(By.xpath(xpath)); } catch (NoSuchElementException e) { return null; } } Now I set the firefox network.http.connection-timeout and network.http.connection-retry-timeout both to 10. Now if I restart the firefox I can see the new values. But if I try to run the above code - the firefox window opens and it waits for a particular website for a long time. Hence I open another tab in the same firefox window and check the values of timeout and find them to be 90 and 250. If I change the values on that same window, the selenium code immediately finishes requesting for the page (ie it goes after the exception block). So the thing is that the same code will work on many sites and I don't know beforehand which site is invalid/down and I was thinking of putting this code in a separate thread and kill the thread after some time from the calling thread. But that is not possible I guess because the child thread has no way to poll anything as it is stuck at page request and can't go to the polling code afterwards. Now the thing is that I want any kind of hack/workaround to accomplish this: try getting the emails for good sites and if there are bad sites just give up after a certain period (press the panic button sorta thing). Thanks

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• In Javascript, what's better than try/catch for exiting an outer scope?

  - by gruseom

  In Javascript, I sometimes want to return a value from a scope that isn't the current function. It might be a block of code within the function, or it might be an enclosing function as in the following example, which uses a local function to recursively search for something. As soon as it finds a solution, the search is done and the whole thing should just return. Unfortunately, I can't think of a simpler way to do this than by hacking try/catch for the purpose: function solve(searchSpace) { var search = function (stuff) { solution = isItSolved(stuff); if (solution) { throw solution; } else { search(narrowThisWay(stuff)); search(narrowThatWay(stuff)); }; }; try { return search(searchSpace); } catch (solution) { return solution; }; }; I realize one could assign the solution to a local variable and then check it before making another recursive call, but my question is specifically about transfer of control. Is there a better way than the above? Perhaps involving label/break?

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• A question about TBB/C++ code

  - by Jackie

  I am reading The thread building block book. I do not understand this piece of code: FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); What do these directive mean? class object reference and new work together? Thanks for explanation. The following code is the defination of this class FibTask. class FibTask: public task { public: const long n; long* const sum; FibTask(long n_,long* sum_):n(n_),sum(sum_) {} task* execute() { if(n FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); set_ref_count(3); spawn(b); spawn_and_wait_for_all(a); *sum=x+y; } return 0; } };

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• Hide elements for current visit only

  - by deanloh

  I need to display a banner that sticks to the bottom of the browser. So I used these codes: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#footie').css('display','block'); $('#footie').hide().slideDown('slow'); $('#footie_close').click(function(){ $('#footie_close').hide(); $('#footie').slideUp('slow'); }); }); And here's the HTML: <div id="footie"> {banner here} <a id="footie_close">Close</a> </div> I added the close link there to let user have the option to close the banner. How ever, when user navigates to next page, the banner shows up again. What can I do to set the banner to remained hidden just for this visit? In other words, as long as the browser remained open, the banner will not show up again. But if user returns to the same website another time, the banner should load again. Thanks in advance for any help!

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• Method returns an IDisposable - Should I dispose of the result, even if it's not assigned to anythin

  - by mjd79

  This seems like a fairly straightforward question, but I couldn't find this particular use-case after some searching around. Suppose I have a simple method that, say, determines if a file is opened by some process. I can do this (not 100% correctly, but fairly well) with this: public bool IsOpen(string fileName) { try { File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None); } catch { // if an exception is thrown, the file must be opened by some other process return true; } } (obviously this isn't the best or even correct way to determine this - File.Open throws a number of different exceptions, all with different meanings, but it works for this example) Now the File.Open call returns a FileStream, and FileStream implements IDisposable. Normally we'd want to wrap the usage of any FileStream instantiations in a using block to make sure they're disposed of properly. But what happens in the case where we don't actually assign the return value to anything? Is it still necessary to dispose of the FileStream, like so: try { using (File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None)); { /* nop */ } } catch { return true; } Should I create a FileStream instance and dispose of that? try { using (FileStream fs = File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None)); } ... Or are these totally unnecessary? Can we simply call File.Open and not assign it to anything (first code example), and let the GC dispose of it right away?

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• C++ new memory allocation fragmentation

  - by tamulj

  I was trying to look at the behavior of the new allocator and why it doesn't place data contiguously. My code: struct ci { char c; int i; } template <typename T> void memTest() { T * pLast = new T(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; ++i) { T * pNew = new T(); cout << (pNew - pLast) << " "; pLast = pNew; } } So I ran this with char, int, ci. Most allocations were a fixed length from the last, sometimes there were odd jumps from one available block to another. sizeof(char) : 1 Average Jump: 64 bytes sizeof(int): 4 Average Jump: 16 sizeof(ci): 8 (int has to be placed on a 4 byte align) Average Jump: 9 Can anyone explain why the allocator is fragmenting memory like this? Also why is the jump for char so much larger then ints and a structure that contains both an int and char.

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• How do I pass a value to a method in Objective C

  - by user268124

  I'm new to Obj-C and I have run in to a very, very basic mental block that's making me feel a little stupid. I want to pass a variable from one method to another in an purely objective-C way. So far I'm stuck and have resorted to writing it in C. In C it goes as follows; //detect the change in the segmented switch so we can; change text - (IBAction)switchChanged:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Switch change detected"); //grab the info from the sender UISegmentedControl *selector = sender; //grab the selected segment info from selector. This returns a 0 or a 1. int selectorIndex = [selector selectedSegmentIndex]; changeText (selectorIndex); } int changeText (int selectorPosition) { NSLog(@"changeText received a value. Selector position is %d", selectorPosition); //Idea is to receive a value from the segmented controler and change the screen text accordingly return 0; } This works perfectly well, but I want to learn how to do this with objects and messages. How would I rewrite these two methods to do this? Cheers Rich

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• Jasper Reports and iReport issue

  - by William

  I am having an issue with JasperReports I can not solve. I am using Eclipse, OpenReports 3.2 and IReport 3.7 The issue I am having is that the report does nothing. When I preview the report in IReport I can at least get a "Document has no pages" message but when I try to open it using OpenReports it doesn't do anything. I get the open reports header and the copyright message but nothing between them. I was able to track it down to line 150 in ReportRunAction.java in OpenReports. That line is: jasperPrint = jasperEngine.fillReport(reportInput); At least that is the line the page dies on. It trips the catch block that the line is inside of but the error is empty. When I try to print the description it is null. I can't swear that the issue isn't that parameter. Through looking around all I have been able to find is something about how the report needs to be compiled with the same version of the jasperreports.jar that OpenReports uses. I have no idea how to tell if/what version of jasper reports is being bundled into the .jasper file though. Is that my problem? If so how do I tell/set the version of the jar that gets bundled? If not; help!

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• JSP includes and MVC pattern

  - by xingyu

  I am new to JSP/Servlets/MVC and am writing a JSP page (using Servlets and MVC pattern) that displays information about recipies, and want the ability for users to "comment" on it too. So for the Servlet, on doGet(), it grabs all the required info into a Model POJO and forwards the request on to a JSP View for rendering. That is working just fine. I'd like the "comment" part to be a separate JSP, so on the RecipeView.jsp I can use to separate these views out. So I've made that, but am now a little stuck. The form in the CommentOnRecipe.jsp posts to a CommentAction servlet that handles the recording of the comment just fine. So when I reload the Recipe page, I can see the comment I just made. I'd like to: Reload the page automatically after commenting (no AJAX for now) Block the user from making more than one comment on each Recipe over a 1 day timeframe (via a Cookie). So I store a cookie indicating the product ID whenever the user makes a comment, so we can check this later? How would it work in a MVC context? Show a message to the user that they have already commented on the Recipe when they visit one which they have commented on I'm confused about using beans/including JSPs etc on how to achieve this. I know in ASP.NET land, it would be a UseControl that I would place on a page, or in ASP.NET MVC, it would be a PartialView of some sort. I'm just confused with the way this works in a JSP/Servlets/MVC context.

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• How important is the website logo on a page?

  - by meo

  I have stopped to insert "img" tags for the logo of the page. Because its not an image that is part of the content, its a design element but its still a information I want to have control over. So I just write the title in a "a" element as display: block, overflow: hidden and I push the text out with some padding. I think thats a good solution for SEO because you are keeping control of how important the logo should be on a page. But now my dilemma is starting. How important is the logo of a page? "A list apart" puts the logo in a h1 element. But is the logo really that important? On article pages you have two H1 elements (the logo and the title of the article) Most of the sites just use a img balbal /a, but I don't like this solution. Because I just want to use img for images that are part of the content... Its kinda philosophical question, I hope you can give me some input or some articles to read about that...

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• Do double forward slashes direct IE to use specific css?

  - by kjh

  I have just found something very weird while developing a website. While trying to get a div element to display across the top of the screen, I noticed that I wasn't achieving a desired result in any browser except for old versions of IE. In order to test some different code, instead of deleting the faulty line, I used '//' to comment it out (I'm not really even sure if that works in css) but what happened was, the compatible browsers used the uncommented code, while IE used the code marked by '//'. here is the code: #ban-menu-div{ position:fixed;top:0; //position:relative; //<-- IE keeps the banner with rel pos while the other display:block; // browsers used fixed margin:auto; padding:0px; width:100%; text-align:center; background:black; } so basically, it seems as though // can be used to instruct newer browsers to ignore specific lines of code, and instruct older versions of IE to use it? If this is common practice someone please let me know. it sure makes developing for older browsers a hell of a lot easier

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• ajax on parked domain

  - by Daryl

  I'm currently writing this jquery and for some reason (I don't know why) it works on the normal domain, but on the parked domain it doesn't. Normal domain - http://www.thefinishedbox.com Parked domain - http://www.tfbox.com If you scroll down to the colony news and hit the click me link you'll see it will retrieve data via jquery ajax on the Normal domain, but on the parked domain it wont. Here is the jQuery code I have so far (its pretty standard): $(function() { $.ajaxSetup({ cache: false }); var ajax_load = "Load me plz"; // load() functions var loadUrl = "http://thefinishedbox.com/wp-content/themes/tfbox-beta/test.php"; $('.overlay').css({ opacity: '0' }); $('.toggle').click(function() { $('.overlay').css({ display: 'block' }).animate({ opacity: '1' }, 300); $(".overlay .content").html(ajax_load).load(loadUrl); return false; }); $('.close').click(function() { $('.overlay').animate({ opacity: '0' }, 300); $('.overlay').queue(function() { $(this).css({ display: 'none' }); $(this).dequeue(); }); return false; }); I'm a complete noob when it comes to ajax so any help would be massivly appreciated.

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• next previous button in div jquery mobile

  - by satine kianne

  i have a total of 11 div in my app. what i want to do is to display 3 divs in between 2 permanent div it should look like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |div 2| |div 3| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| when i click on next is should look like this |first permanent div| |div 2| |div 3| |div 4| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| and so on. and when im not div 1,2,3 the previous should be disabled and when im no 7,8,9 the next should be disabled. but i cant make it i'm using this fiddle as a sample http://jsfiddle.net/WGkPV/1/ its working but only one div is shown in the center of my two permanent div which is not in my plan.im getting like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| any suggestion will be taken seriously. here is the code of the fiddle im working on as tutorial $(document).ready(function () { var divs = $('.mydivs>div'); var now = 0; // currently shown div divs.hide().first().show(); $("button[name=next]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now + 1 < divs.length) ? now + 1 : 0; divs.eq(now).show(); // show next }); $("button[name=prev]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now > 0) ? now - 1 : divs.length - 1; divs.eq(now).show(); // or .css('display','block'); //console.log(divs.length, now); }); }); <div class="mydivs"> <div>div 1</div> <div>div 2</div> <div>div 3</div> <div>div 4</div> </div>

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• Revalidate and repaint - Java Swing

  - by bosra

  I have a JPanel that I am adding JLabel's to. I then want to remove all the JLabels and add some new ones. So I do the following: panel.removeAll();panel.repaint(); panel.add(new JLabel("Add something new"); panel.revalidate(); This works fine. My problem arises when I start a new thread after this like: panel.removeAll();panel.repaint(); (1)panel.add(new JLabel("Add something new"); panel.revalidate(); //new thread to start - this thread creates new JLabels that should appear under (1) firstProducer.start(); try { firstProducer.join(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Then the output from the original JLabels is still visible. I have read that the revalidate process is a long running task and hence the firstProducer thread is getting started while the revalidation is going on and a conflict is arising. What is the best way to deal with this?

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• Holding variables in memory, C++

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Today something strange came to my mind. When I want to hold some string in C (C++) the old way, without using string header, I just create array and store that string into it. But, I read that any variable definition in C in local scope of function ends up in pushing these values onto the stack. So, the string is actually 2* bigger than needed. Because first, the push instructions are located in memory, but then when they are executed (pushed onto the stack) another "copy" of the string is created. First the push instructions, than the stack space is used for one string. So, why is it this way? Why doesn't compiler just add the string (or other variables) to the program instead of creating them once again when executed? Yes, I know you cannot just have some data inside program block, but it could just be attached to the end of the program, with some jump instruction before. And than, we would just point to these data? Because they are stored in RAM when the program is executed. Thanks.

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• Getting the value of an input inside a td for each row with jQuery

  - by Anne

  I am still having so many problems with this: function padTitles() { $('tr').each(function () { var tds = $(this).find('input'), text = tds.filter('[id^="TempRowKey_"]').val(), tdToPad = tds.filter('[id^="title_"]'), pad; if (/0\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 10; else if (/\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 35; else pad = 60; tdToPad.css('paddingLeft', pad); }); } Note: here is what I was using before. This worked when the value was not inside an input: var tds = $(this).find('td'), text = tds.filter('[id^="refKey_"]').text(), It is supposed to get the Value of the Inputs with id's that start with TempRowKey_ and then use these for padding. But the code does nothing. Here is my HTML: <tr id="row_1"> <td id="tempRowKey_1" > <input type="text" size="10" value="1.0.0" class="updatable" id="TempRowKey_1"> </td> <td id="title_1"> <input id="Title_1" class="updatable" type="text" value="zxxx" size="100" name="item.Title"> </td>. <td ... </tr> Is there some way I can test this. I can't get access to anything inside the jQuery block?

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• is there something equivalent to 'Address of' or offset operator in .net?

  - by Gio

  We have nested stuctures as such, used as an interface for some device drivers. On occasion we have to update individual elements. An 'address of' operator would be helpful, but an 'offset' function or operator is what I'm really looking for, but not sure how to go about it. In other words, how far is structureN.elementX away from the start of the structure in bytes? [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct s1 { UInt16 elem1; UInt16 elem2; UInt16 elem3; } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct s2 { UInt16 elem1; UInt16 elem2; UInt16 elem3; } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct driver { public S1 s1; public S2 s2; } For instance we need to send the device driver some data to update driver.s1.elem3, by way of providing an offset address, data block and length. We would update our local copy, then call the device api with the afore mentioned data. Not sure I have to do this with 'unsafe' method calls. Any help?

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• MySQL: optimization of table (indexing, foreign key) with no primary keys

  - by Haradzieniec

  Each member has 0 or more orders. Each order contains at least 1 item. memberid - varchar, not integer - that's OK (please do not mention that's not very good, I can't change it). So, thera 3 tables: members, orders and order_items. Orders and order_items are below: CREATE TABLE `orders` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `memberid` VARCHAR( 20 ), `Time` TIMESTAMP NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP , `info` VARCHAR( 3200 ) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (orderid) , FOREIGN KEY (memberid) REFERENCES members(memberid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE TABLE `order_items` ( `orderid` INT(11) UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `item_number_in_cart` tinyint(1) NOT NULL , --- 5 items in cart= 5 rows `price` DECIMAL (6,2) NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY (orderid) REFERENCES orders(orderid) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; So, order_items table looks like: orderid - item_number_in_cart - price: ... 1000456 - 1 - 24.99 1000456 - 2 - 39.99 1000456 - 3 - 4.99 1000456 - 4 - 17.97 1000457 - 1 - 20.00 1000458 - 1 - 99.99 1000459 - 1 - 2.99 1000459 - 2 - 69.99 1000460 - 1 - 4.99 ... As you see, order_items table has no primary keys (and I think there is no sense to create an auto_increment id for this table, because once we want to extract data, we always extract it as WHERE orderid='1000456' order by item_number_in_card asc - the whole block, id woudn't be helpful in queries). Once data is inserted into order_items, it's not UPDATEd, just SELECTed. The questions are: I think it's a good idea to put index on item_number_in_cart. Could anybody please confirm that? Is there anything else I have to do with order_items to increase the performance, or that looks pretty good? I could miss something because I'm a newbie. Thank you in advance.

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• Controlling race condition at startup.

  - by Will Hartung

  I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

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• How to store <TR> id value in array, when I toggle?

  - by James123

  I am toggling 'tr.subCategory1'and its siblings .RegText. at the same time I am trying to store its ids in the array like this list_Visible_Ids[$(this).attr('id')] = $(this).css('display') != 'none' ? 1 : null; (When I collapsed I need store 'null' in array at its id place, If I expand I need store I need store 1 at its id place). But everytime alert($(this).css('display')) showing block. How can I handle this?. So When I collapsed or expanded it is storing 1 only. $(document).ready(function() { $('tr[@class^=RegText]').hide().children('td'); list_Visible_Ids = []; var idsString, idsArray; idsString = $('#myVisibleRows').val(); idsArray = idsString.split(','); $.each(idsArray, function() { if (this != "" || this != null) { $('#' + this).siblings('.RegText').toggle(); list_Visible_Ids[this] = 1; } }); $('tr.subCategory1') .css("cursor", "pointer") .attr("title", "Click to expand/collapse") .click(function() { $(this).siblings('.RegText').toggle(); $(this).siblings('.VolumeRegText').toggle(); //alert($(this).css('display')) list_Visible_Ids[$(this).attr('id')] = $(this).css('display') != 'none' ? 1 : null; }); $('#form1').submit(function() { idsString = ''; for (var index in list_Visible_Ids) { idsString += (idsString != '' ? ',' : '') + index; } $('#myVisibleRows').val(idsString); form1.submit(); }); });

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• On android how would I go about creating a prompt for an app that requires a user to enter a username before fully launching the app?

  - by racl101

  I'll preface this with I'm really new to working on Android. So I have to work on an existing app and create a screen that prompts the user for a username if one isn't entered then it won't launch the currently existing main activity (i.e. it won't fully launch the app. Instead it will just sit on that screen until a username is entered.) I suppose that it's tantamount to a web app login page in that it will not let a user past that page if the user is not authenticated and authorized. However, there's no authentication nor authorization in this app. Instead, on first run a user must simply register with a username and that username gets saved to the database and for any subsequent runs the app's main activity will just start because a user has registered to that phone. In fact, the app will not prompt the user for their name again unless the app gets deleted with all its data and reinstalled again. This implicitly means that I have to save the user's name in the database or some other kind of storage. So I was wondering what would be the best way of doing this in an app with an existing main activity? Should I try to accomplish this on that existing main activity or create a new activity to display this prompt screen and, in effect, block the main activity from running until the user enters their name? Any tutorials or links would be helpful and thank you in advance for any help.

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