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  • IIS- defining a website as a dev site

    - by Lock
    I am new to IIS. Is there a way during the setup of IIS to have a variable of some sort set that I can use to tell my site that this is the development copy? I am using PHP via IIS 7.5 and would like to have a file with a few lines that define which databases etc is used by my application. Is this the purpose of web.config? I would love there to be a place in the setup of the website where I can set a few variables that are accessibly by my application. That way, when I migrate files to live, I don't need to worry about access details to databases etc.

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  • Performing text processing on flatpage content to include handling of custom tag

    - by Dzejkob
    Hi. I'm using flatpages app in my project to manage some html content. That content will include images, so I've made a ContentImage model allowing user to upload images using admin panel. The user should then be able to include those images in content of the flatpages. He can of course do that by manually typing image url into <img> tag, but that's not what I'm looking for. To make including images more convenient, I'm thinking about something like this: User edits an additional, let's say pre_content field of CustomFlatPage model (I'm using custom flatpage model already) instead of defining <img> tags directly, he uses a custom tag, something like [img=...] where ... is name of the ContentImage instance now the hardest part: before CustomFlatPage is saved, pre_content field is checked for all [img=...] occurences and they are processed like this: ContentImage model is searched if there's image instance with given name and if so, [img=...] is replaced with proper <img> tag. flatpage actual content is filled with processed pre_content and then flatpage is saved (pre_content is leaved unchanged, as edited by user) The part that I can't cope with is text processing. Should I use regular expressions? Apparently they can be slow for large strings. And how to organize logic? I assume it's rather algorithmic question, but I'm not familliar with text processing in Python enough, to do it myself. Can somebody give me any clues?

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  • Receiving POST data in ASP.NET

    - by grast
    Hi, I want to use ASP for code generation in a C# desktop application. To achieve this, I set up a simple host (derived from System.MarshalByRefObject) that processes a System.Web.Hosting.SimpleWorkerRequest via HttpRuntime.ProcessRequest. This processes the ASPX script specified by the incoming request (using System.Net.HttpListener to wait for requests). The client-part is represented by a System.ComponentModel.BackgroundWorker that builds the System.Net.HttpWebRequest and receives the response from the server. A simplified version of my client-part-code looks like this: private void SendRequest(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // create request with GET parameter var uri = "http://localhost:9876/test.aspx?getTest=321"; var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri); // append POST parameter request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; var postData = Encoding.Default.GetBytes("postTest=654"); var postDataStream = request.GetRequestStream(); postDataStream.Write(postData, 0, postData.Length); // send request, wait for response and store/print content using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _processsedContent = reader.ReadToEnd(); Debug.Print(_processsedContent); } } } My server-part-code looks like this (without exception-handling etc.): public void ProcessRequests() { // HttpListener at http://localhost:9876/ var listener = SetupListener(); // SimpleHost created by ApplicationHost.CreateApplicationHost var host = SetupHost(); while (_running) { var context = listener.GetContext(); using (var writer = new StreamWriter(context.Response.OutputStream)) { // process ASP script and send response back to client host.ProcessRequest(GetPage(context), GetQuery(context), writer); } context.Response.Close(); } } So far all this works fine as long as I just use GET parameters. But when it comes to receiving POST data in my ASPX script I run into trouble. For testing I use the following script: // GET parameters are working: var getTest = Request.QueryString["getTest"]; Response.Write("getTest: " + getTest); // prints "getTest: 321" // don't know how to access POST parameters: var postTest1 = Request.Form["postTest"]; // Request.Form is empty?! Response.Write("postTest1: " + postTest1); // so this prints "postTest1: " var postTest2 = Request.Params["postTest"]; // Request.Params is empty?! Response.Write("postTest2: " + postTest2); // so this prints "postTest2: " It seems that the System.Web.HttpRequest object I'm dealing with in ASP does not contain any information about my POST parameter "postTest". I inspected it in debug mode and none of the members did contain neither the parameter-name "postTest" nor the parameter-value "654". I also tried the BinaryRead method of Request, but unfortunately it is empty. This corresponds to Request.InputStream==null and Request.ContentLength==0. And to make things really confusing the Request.HttpMethod member is set to "GET"?! To isolate the problem I tested the code by using a PHP script instead of the ASPX script. This is very simple: print_r($_GET); // prints all GET variables print_r($_POST); // prints all POST variables And the result is: Array ( [getTest] = 321 ) Array ( [postTest] = 654 ) So with the PHP script it works, I can access the POST data. Why does the ASPX script don't? What am I doing wrong? Is there a special accessor or method in the Response object? Can anyone give a hint or even know how to solve this? Thanks in advance.

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  • A map and set which uses contiguous memory and has a reserve function

    - by edA-qa mort-ora-y
    I use several maps and sets. The lack of contiguous memory, and high number of (de)allocations, is a performance bottleneck. I need a mainly STL-compatbile map and set class which can use a contiguous block of memory for internal objects (or multiple blocks). It also needs to have a reserve function so that I can preallocate for expected sizes. Before I write my own I'd like to check what is available first. Is there something in Boost which does this? Does somebody know of an available implementation elsewhere? Intrusive collection types are not usable here as the same objects need to exist in several collections. As far as I know STL memory pools are per-type, not per instance. These global pools are not efficient with respect to memory locality in mutli-cpu/core processing. Object pools don't work as the types will be shared between instance but their pool should not. In many cases a hash map may be an option in some cases.

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  • Advice on designing and building distributed application to track vehicles

    - by dario-g
    I'm working on application for tracking vehicles. There will be about 10k or more vehicles. Each will be sending ~250bytes in each minute. Data contains gps location and everything from CAN Bus (every data that we can read from vehicle computer and dashboard). Data are sent by GSM/GPRS (using UDP protocol). Estimated rows with this data per day is ~2000k. I see there 3 main blocks. 1. Multithreaded Socket Server (MSS) - I have it. MSS stores received data to the queue (using NServiceBus). 2. Rule Processor Server (RPS) - this is core of this system. This block is responsible for parsing received data, storing in the database, processing rules, sending messages to Notifier Server (this will be sending e-mails/sms texts). Rule example. As I said between received bytes there will be information about current speed. When speed will be above 120 then: show alert in web application for specified users, send e-mail, send sms text. (There can be more than one instance of RPS). 3. Web application - allows reporting and defining rules by users, monitoring alerts, etc. I'm looking for advice how to design communication between RPS and Web application. Some questions: - Should Web application and RPS have separated databases or one central database will be enough? I have one domain model in web application. If there will be one central database then can I use the same model (objects) on RPS? So, how to send changed rules to RPS? I try to decouple this blocks as much as possible. I'm planning to create different instance of application for each client (each client will have separated database). One client will be have 10k vehicles, others only 100 vehicles.

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  • Bug in CF9: values for unique struct keys referenced and overwritten by other keys.

    - by Gin Doe
    We've run into a serious issue with CF9 wherein values for certain struct keys can be referenced by other keys, despite those other keys never being set. See the following examples: Edit: Looks like it isn't just something our servers ate. This is Adobe bug-track ticket 81884: http://cfbugs.adobe.com/cfbugreport/flexbugui/cfbugtracker/main.html#bugId=81884. <cfset a = { AO = "foo" } /> <cfset b = { AO = "foo", B0 = "bar" } /> <cfoutput> The following should throw an error. Instead both keys refer to the same value. <br />Struct a: <cfdump var="#a#" /> <br />a.AO: #a.AO# <br />a.B0: #a.B0# <hr /> The following should show a struct with 2 distinct keys and values. Instead it contains a single key, "AO", with a value of "bar". <br />Struct b: <cfdump var="#b#" /> This is obviously a complete show-stopper for us. I'd be curious to know if anyone has encountered this or can reproduce this in their environment. For us, it happens 100% of the time on Apache/CF9 running on Linux, both RH4 and RH5. We're using the default JRun install on Java 1.6.0_14. To see the extent of the problem, we ran a quick loop to find other naming sequences that are affected and found hundreds of matches for 2 letter key names. A similar loop found more conflicts in 3 letter names. <cfoutput>Testing a range of affected key combinations. This found hundreds of cases on our platform. Aborting after 50 here.</cfoutput> <cfscript> teststring = "ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ0123456789"; stringlen = len(teststring); matchesfound = 0; matches = ""; for (i1 = 1; i1 <= stringlen; i1++) { symbol1 = mid(teststring, i1, 1); for (i2 = 1; i2 <= stringlen; i2++) { teststruct = structnew(); symbol2 = mid(teststring, i2, 1); symbolwhole = symbol1 & symbol2; teststruct[ symbolwhole ] = "a string"; for (q1 = 1; q1 <= stringlen; q1++) { innersymbol1 = mid(teststring, q1, 1); for (q2 = 1; q2 <= stringlen; q2++) { innersymbol2 = mid(teststring, q2, 1); innersymbolwhole = innersymbol1 & innersymbol2; if ((i1 != q1 || i2 != q2) && structkeyexists(teststruct, innersymbolwhole)) { // another affected pair of keys! writeoutput ("<br />#symbolwhole# = #innersymbolwhole#"); if (matchesfound++ > 50) { // we've seen enough abort; } } } } } } </cfscript> And edit again: This doesn't just affect struct keys but names in the variables scope as well. At least the variables scope has the presence of mind to throw an error, "can't load a null": <cfset test_b0 = "foo" /> <cfset test_ao = "bar" /> <cfoutput> test_b0: #test_b0# <br />test_ao: #test_ao# </cfoutput>

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    PLEASE NOTE: I am reposting as the original was not answered correctly... I AM LOOKING FOR THE WHY - NOT THE SOLUTION - I KNOW THE SOLUTION, WHAT I DON'T UNDERSTAND IS THE WHY! I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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  • Escaping single quote in PHP when inserting into MySQL

    - by hairdresser-101
    I have a perplexing issue that I can't seem to comprehend... I'm hoping someone here might be able to point me in the right direction... I have two SQL statements: - the first enters information from a form into the database. - the second takes data from the database entered above, sends an email and then logs the details of the transaction The problem is that it a appears that a single quote is triggering a MySQL error on the second entry only!!! The first instance works without issue but the second instance triggers the mysql_error(). Does the data from a form get handled differently from the data captured in a form? Query#1 - This works without issue (and without escaping the single quote) $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO job_log (order_id, supplier_id, category_id, service_id, qty_ordered, customer_id, user_id, salesperson_ref, booking_ref, booking_name, address, suburb, postcode, state_id, region_id, email, phone, phone2, mobile, delivery_date, stock_taken, special_instructions, cost_price, cost_price_gst, sell_price, sell_price_gst, ext_sell_price, retail_customer, created, modified, log_status_id) VALUES ('$order_id', '$supplier_id', '$category_id', '{$value['id']}', '{$value['qty']}', '$customer_id', '$user_id', '$salesperson_ref', '$booking_ref', '$booking_name', '$address', '$suburb', '$postcode', '$state_id', '$region_id', '$email', '$phone', '$phone2', '$mobile', STR_TO_DATE('$delivery_date', '%d/%m/%Y'), '$stock_taken', '$special_instructions', '$cost_price', '$cost_price_gst', '$sell_price', '$sell_price_gst', '$ext_sell_price', '$retail_customer', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '1')"); Query#2 - This fails when entering a name with a single quote (i.e. O'Brien) $query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO message_log (order_id, timestamp, message_type, email_from, supplier_id, primary_contact, secondary_contact, subject, message_content, status) VALUES ('$order_id', '".date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())."', '$email', '$from', '$row->supplier_id', '$row->primary_email' ,'$row->secondary_email', '$subject', '$message_content', '1')");

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • .Net Finalizer Order / Semantics in Esent and Ravendb

    - by mattcodes
    Help me understand. I've read that "The time and order of execution of finalizers cannot be predicted or pre-determined" Correct? However looking at RavenDB source code TransactionStorage.cs I see this ~TransactionalStorage() { try { Trace.WriteLine( "Disposing esent resources from finalizer! You should call TransactionalStorage.Dispose() instead!"); Api.JetTerm2(instance, TermGrbit.Abrupt); } catch (Exception exception) { try { Trace.WriteLine("Failed to dispose esent instance from finalizer because: " + exception); } catch { } } } The API class (which belongs to Managed Esent) which presumable takes handles on native resources presumably using a SafeHandle? So if I understand correctly the native handles SafeHandle can be finalized before TransactionStorage which could have undesired effects, perhaps why Ayende has added an catch all clause around this? Actually diving into Esent code, it does not use SafeHandles. According to CLR via C# this is dangerous? internal static class SomeType { [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] // This prototype is not robust private static extern IntPtr CreateEventBad( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name); // This prototype is robust [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] private static extern SafeWaitHandle CreateEventGood( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name) public static void SomeMethod() { IntPtr handle = CreateEventBad(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); SafeWaitHandle swh = CreateEventGood(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); } } Managed Esent (NativeMEthods.cs) looks like this (using Ints vs IntPtrs?): [DllImport(EsentDll, CharSet = EsentCharSet, ExactSpelling = true)] public static extern int JetCreateDatabase(IntPtr sesid, string szFilename, string szConnect, out uint dbid, uint grbit); Is Managed Esent handling finalization/dispoal the correct way, and second is RavenDB handling finalizer the corret way or compensating for Managed Esent?

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  • Does NULL and nil are equal?

    - by monish
    Hi Guys, Actually my question here is does Null and nil are equal or not? I had an Example but I am confused when they are equal when they are not. NSNull *nullValue = [NSNull null]; NSArray *arrayWithNull = [NSArray arrayWithObject:nullValue]; NSLog(@"arrayWithNull: %@", arrayWithNull); id aValue = [arrayWithNull objectAtIndex:0]; if (aValue == nil) { NSLog(@"equals nil"); } else if (aValue == [NSNull null]) { NSLog(@"equals NSNull instance"); if ([aValue isEqual:nil]) { NSLog(@"isEqual:nil"); } } Here in the above case it shows that both Null and nil are not equal and it displays "equals NSNull instance" NSString *str=NULL; id str1=nil; if(str1 == str) { printf("\n IS EQUAL........"); } else { printf("\n NOT EQUAL........"); } And in the second case it shows both are equal and it displays "IS EQUAL". Anyone's help will be much appreciated. Thank you, Monish.

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  • proper way to dynamically assign backbone.js view el

    - by kikuchiyo
    I would like to create two ( or more ) view instances, each with different el attributes, and have events bound to them via backbone.js view's events hash ( not through jQuery ). Getting events to trigger when all instantiations have the same el is easy: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: '#someDiv', events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); So far, if I assign el in the initialize function, and set events normally as follows, events do not trigger: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); My first instinct was to have el be a function that returns the string representation of the dom element of interest: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: function(){ return '#someDiv-' + this.someNumber }, events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.someNumber = options.someNumber }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); However, this triggers someFunction x times if I have x instantiations of someView. Next I tried setting both the el and events attributes in initialize: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el this.events = { 'click': 'someFunction' } }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); but this does not trigger events. At this point I'm pretty much fishing. Does anyone know how instantiate a backbone.js view with an el specific to that instance that has events that only trigger for that instance, and not other instances of the View?

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  • Access the failing addresses within bounce_message_file in exim

    - by mkurz
    We are running exim version 4.72 I'm using bounce_message_file to customize our bounce messages, like desribed in the documentation Within this bounce message template I can access various variables like $message_exim_id, etc. Is there also a way to access the list of the failing addresses (maybe with their error messages) in such a variable (as string, list,... whatever) or in any other way? It does not really matter how and in which format they are, I just want access them within the bounce message template file. (I am referencing to the failed addresses usually listed automatically after the line "This is a permanent error. The following address(es) failed:") Thank you very much for your help!

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  • Serialize a C# class to xml. Store the XML as a string in SQL Server and then restore the class late

    - by BrianK
    I want to serialize a class to xml and store that in a field in a database. I can serialize with this: StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer xmlser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); xmlser.Serialize(sw, myClassVariable); string s = sw.ToString(); sw.Close(); Thats works, but it has the namesapces in it. xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Will these slow down the deserialization because it will go out to those and verify the XML? I got rid of the namespaces by creating a blank XmlSerializerNamespaces and using that to serialize, but then the xml still had namespaces around integer variables: <anyType xmlns:q1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" d3p1:type="q1:int" xmlns:d3p1="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> 3 </anyType> My question is: Is it necessary to have the namesapces for deserialization and if not, how to get rid of them? How do I tell it fields are ints so it doesnt put in "anytype" Thanks, Brian

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  • Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

    - by Tzur Gazit
    I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • Stringing multiple ShellExecute calls

    - by IVlad
    Consider the following code and its executable - runner.exe: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <windows.h> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { SHELLEXECUTEINFO shExecInfo; shExecInfo.cbSize = sizeof(SHELLEXECUTEINFO); shExecInfo.fMask = NULL; shExecInfo.hwnd = NULL; shExecInfo.lpVerb = "open"; shExecInfo.lpFile = argv[1]; string Params = ""; for ( int i = 2; i < argc; ++i ) Params += argv[i] + ' '; shExecInfo.lpParameters = Params.c_str(); shExecInfo.lpDirectory = NULL; shExecInfo.nShow = SW_SHOWNORMAL; shExecInfo.hInstApp = NULL; ShellExecuteEx(&shExecInfo); return 0; } These two batch files both do what they're supposed to, which is run notepad.exe and run notepad.exe and tell it to try to open test.txt: 1. runner.exe notepad.exe 2. runner.exe notepad.exe test.txt Now, consider this batch file: 3. runner.exe runner.exe notepad.exe This one should run runner.exe and send notepad.exe as one of its command line arguments, shouldn't it? Then, that second instance of runner.exe should run notepad.exe - which doesn't happen. If I print the argc argument, it's 14 for the second instance of runner.exe, and they are all weird stuff like Files\Microsoft, SQL, Files\Common and so on. I can't figure out why this happens. I want to be able to string as many runner.exe calls using command line arguments as possible, or at least 2. How can I do that? I am using Windows 7 if that makes a difference.

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  • Detecting Singularities in a Graph

    - by nasufara
    I am creating a graphing calculator in Java as a project for my programming class. There are two main components to this calculator: the graph itself, which draws the line(s), and the equation evaluator, which takes in an equation as a String and... well, evaluates it. To create the line, I create a Path2D.Double instance, and loop through the points on the line. To do this, I calculate as many points as the graph is wide (e.g. if the graph itself is 500px wide, I calculate 500 points), and then scale it to the window of the graph. Now, this works perfectly for most any line. However, it does not when dealing with singularities. If, when calculating points, the graph encounters a domain error (such as 1/0), the graph closes the shape in the Path2D.Double instance and starts a new line, so that the line looks mathematically correct. Example: However, because of the way it scales, sometimes it is rendered correctly, sometimes it isn't. When it isn't, the actual asymptotic line is shown, because within those 500 points, it skipped over x = 2.0 in the equation 1 / (x-2), and only did x = 1.98 and x = 2.04, which are perfectly valid in that equation. Example: In that case, I increased the window on the left and right one unit each. My question is: Is there a way to deal with singularities using this method of scaling so that the resulting line looks mathematically correct? I myself have thought of implementing a binary search-esque method, where, if it finds that it calculates one point, and then the next point is wildly far away from the last point, it searches in between those points for a domain error. I had trouble figuring out how to make it work in practice, however. Thank you for any help you may give!

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  • Openstack keystone issue

    - by kevin
    i am having an issue with keystone,keystone is configured with users nova,glance and admin user and their endpoints are also defined. when performing keystone token-get it is showing token,but for commands like keystone user-list its showing No handlers could be found for logger "keystoneclient.client" Unable to communicate with identity service: 404 Not Found The resource could not be found. . (HTTP 404) but after setting these env variables it worked export SERVICE_ENDPOINT=http://192.168.10.15:35357/v2.0 export SERVICE_TOKEN=token but after that for keystone token-get its showing 'Client' object has no attribute 'service_catalog' Why is it so?How can it be fixed any ideas

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  • Python: query a class's parent-class after multiple derivations ("super()" does not work)

    - by henry
    Hi, I have built a class-system that uses multiple derivations of a baseclass (object-class1-class2-class3): class class1(object): def __init__(self): print "class1.__init__()" object.__init__(self) class class2(class1): def __init__(self): print "class2.__init__()" class1.__init__(self) class class3(class2): def __init__(self): print "class3.__init__()" class2.__init__(self) x = class3() It works as expected and prints: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class1.__init__() Now I would like to replace the 3 lines object.__init__(self) ... class1.__init__(self) ... class2.__init__(self) with something like this: currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() ... currentParentClass().__init__() So basically, i want to create a class-system where i don't have to type "classXYZ.doSomething()". As mentioned above, I want to get the "current class's parent-class". Replacing the three lines with: super(type(self), self).__init__() does NOT work (it always returns the parent-class of the current instance - class2) and will result in an endless loop printing: class3.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() class2.__init__() ... So is there a function that can give me the current class's parent-class? Thank you for your help! Henry -------------------- Edit: @Lennart ok maybe i got you wrong but at the moment i think i didn't describe the problem clearly enough.So this example might explain it better: lets create another child-class class class4(class3): pass now what happens if we derive an instance from class4? y = class4() i think it clearly executes: super(class3, self).__init__() which we can translate to this: class2.__init__(y) this is definitly not the goal(that would be class3.__init__(y)) Now making lots of parent-class-function-calls - i do not want to re-implement all of my functions with different base-class-names in my super()-calls.

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  • (PHP) User is being forced to RE-LOGIN after trying to do something on an admin page

    - by hatorade
    I have created an admin panel for a client in PHP, which requires a login. Here is the code at the top of the admin page requiring the user to be logged in: admin.php <?php session_start(); require("_lib/session_functions.php"); require("_lib/db.php"); db_connect(); //if the user has not logged in if(!isLoggedIn()) { header('Location: login_form.php'); die(); } ?> Obviously, the if statement is what catches them and forces them to log in. Here is the code on the resulting login page: login_form.php <form name="login" action="login.php" method="post"> Username: <input type="text" name="username" /> Password: <input type="password" name="password" /> <input type="submit" value="Login" /> </form> Which posts info to this controller page: login.php <?php session_start(); //must call session_start before using any $_SESSION variables include '_lib/session_functions.php'; $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; include '_lib/db.php'; db_connect(); // Connect to the DB $username = mysql_real_escape_string($username); $query = "SELECT password, salt FROM users WHERE username = '$username';"; $result = mysql_query($query); if(mysql_num_rows($result) < 1) //no such user exists { header('Location: login_form.php?login=fail'); die(); } $userData = mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC); db_disconnect(); $hash = hash('sha256', $password . $userData['salt']); if($hash != $userData['password']) //incorrect password { header('Location: login_form.php?login=fail'); die(); } else { validateUser(); //sets the session data for this user } header('Location: admin.php'); ?> and the session functions page that provides login functions contains this: session_functions.php <?php function validateUser() { session_regenerate_id (); //this is a security measure $_SESSION['valid'] = 1; $_SESSION['userid'] = $username; } function isLoggedIn() { if($_SESSION['valid']) return true; return false; } function logout() { $_SESSION = array(); //destroy all of the session variables if (ini_get("session.use_cookies")) { $params = session_get_cookie_params(); setcookie(session_name(), '', time() - 42000, $params["path"], $params["domain"], $params["secure"], $params["httponly"] ); } session_destroy(); } ?> I grabbed the sessions_functions.php code of an online tutorial, so it could be suspicious. Any ideas why the user logs in to the admin panel, tries to do something, is forced to re-login, and THEN is allowed to do stuff like normal in the admin panel?

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  • Can't set up IIS Web Server on Server 2008 x64 correctly (what have I missed?)

    - by balexandre
    Using a VM I installed Windows 2008 Server x64 and as the image below shows, added the IIS Role full image and assigned all role features of IIS full image But if I have an ASP.NET (aspx) page that does (C#) Session["test-session"] = "A"; and read in other page I always get nothing! NOTE: I do have an entire ASP.NET web application, the example above is to be succinct and explicit on what is the problem I'm facing. Can anyone know what do I have to do to the Server, so I can use the Session variables? All help is greatly appreciated, Thank you

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  • WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

    - by Matt F
    Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

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  • SQL Azure Federation - how much data before performance benefits?

    - by Donald Hughes
    To avoid premature optimization, I don't want to implement SQL Azure's Federation too early. Is there a rule of thumb for how much data a table would need to have before seeing performance benefits from sharding? I know there won't be a precise answer as there are too many variables to consider, especially with much of SQL Azure's resources being hidden/unknown. To put it into several, more concrete examples, would Federation improve performance in any of the below table scenarios: 100,000 rows (~ 200 MB) 1,000,000 rows (~ 2 GB) 10,000,000 rows (~ 20 GB) 100,000,000 rows (~ 200 GB) For the sake of elaboration, we can assume this is the largest table that would be federated, which consists of order details, which is joined to an orders table with a 'customer_id' foreign key, which would be the distribution key. This is a fairly standard multi-tenant, CRUD order entry system, with a typical assortment of reporting needs (customer order totals by day/month/year, etc).

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  • ft_stopword_file not picked up

    - by Alex Holsgrove
    I have a VPS server with a company called Webfusion. I want to remove some or all of the FULLTEXT stopwords because some specific words needs to be searchable with my DB content. I opened /etc/mysql/my.cnf and added the line ft_stopword_file="". I restarted the mysql service, ran a repair table and then tried my MATCH query with no success. I ran SHOW VARIABLES LIKE 'ft_%' and it simply shows (built-in) next to the stopword file. I am running WAMP on my workstation, and whilst I realise this isn't configured the same as a commercial VPS, the above method worked just fine. Couple someone please offer some guidance?

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