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• Database sharing/versioning

  - by DarkJaff

  Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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• ImageMagick Reflection

  - by dbruns

  Brief: convert ( -size 585x128 gradient: ) NewImage.png How do I change the above ImageMagick command so it takes the width and height from an existing image? I need it to remain a one line command. Details: I'm trying to programatically create an image reflection using ImageMagick. The effect I am looking for is similar to what you would see when looking at an object on the edge of a pool of water. There is a pretty good thread on what I am trying to do here but the solution isn't exactly what I am looking for. Since I will be calling ImageMagick from a C#.Net application I want to use one call without any temp files and return the image through stdout. So far I have this... convert OriginalImage.png ( OriginalImage.png -flip -blur 3x5 \ -crop 100%%x30%%+0+0 -negate -evaluate multiply 0.3 \ -negate ( -size 585x128 gradient: ) +matte -compose copy_opacity -composite ) -append NewImage.png This works ok but doesn't give me the exact fade I am looking for. Instead of a nice solid fade from top to bottom it is giving me a fade from top left to bottom right. I added the (-negate -evaluate multiply 0.3 -negate) section in to lighten it up a bit more since I wasn't getting the fade I wanted. I also don't want to have to hard code in the size of the image when creating the gradient ( -size 585x128 gradient: ) I'm also going to want to keep the original image's transparency if possible. To go to stdout I plan on replacing "NewImage.png" with "-"

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• Starting with versioning mysql schemata without overkill. Good solutions?

  - by tharkun

  I've arrived at the point where I realise that I must start versioning my database schemata and changes. I consequently read the existing posts on SO about that topic but I'm not sure how to proceed. I'm basically a one man company and not long ago I didn't even use version control for my code. I'm on a windows environment, using Aptana (IDE) and SVN (with Tortoise). I work on PHP/mysql projects. What's a efficient and sufficient (no overkill) way to version my database schemata? I do have a freelancer or two in some projects but I don't expect a lot of branching and merging going on. So basically I would like to keep track of concurrent schemata to my code revisions. [edit] Momentary solution: for the moment I decided I will just make a schema dump plus one with the necessary initial data whenever I'm going to commit a tag (stable version). That seems to be just enough for me at the current stage.[/edit] [edit2]plus I'm now also using a third file called increments.sql where I put all the changes with dates, etc. to make it easy to trace the change history in one file. from time to time I integrate the changes into the two other files and empty the increments.sql[/edit]

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• MVVM pattern: ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

  - by Pavel Savara

  I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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• Email Collector / Implementation

  - by Tian

  I am implementing a simple RoR webpage that collect emails from visitors and store them as objects. I'm using it as a mini-project to try RoR and BDD. I can think of 3 features for Cucumber: 1. User submits a valid email address 2. User submits an existing email address 3. User submits an invalid email My question is, for scenarios 2 and 3, is it better to handle this via the controller? or as methods in a class? Perhaps something that throws errors if an instance is instantiated in sceanrio 2 or 3? Implementation is below, love to hear some code reviews in addition to answers to questions above. Thanks! MODEL: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessor :email end VIEW: <h1>Welcome To My Experiment</h1> <p>Find me in app/views/welcome/index.html.erb</p> <%= flash[:notice] %> <% form_for @contact, :url => {:action => "index"} do |f| %> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' %> <% end %> CONTROLLER: class WelcomeController < ApplicationController def index @contact = Contact.new unless params[:contact].nil? @contact = Contact.create!(params[:contact]) flash[:notice] = "Thank you for your interest, please check your mailbox for confirmation" end end end

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• Modifying my website to allow anonymous comments

  - by David

  I write the code for my own website as an educational/fun exercise. Right now part of the website is a blog (like every other site out there :-/) which supports the usual basic blog features, including commenting on posts. But I only have comments enabled for logged-in users; I want to alter the code to allow anonymous comments - that is, I want to allow people to post comments without first creating a user account on my site, although there will still be some sort of authentication involved to prevent spam. Question: what information should I save for anonymous comments? I'm thinking at least display name and email address (for displaying a Gravatar), and probably website URL because I eventually want to accept OpenID as well, but would anything else make sense? Other question: how should I modify the database to store this information? The schema I have for the comment table is currently comment_id smallint(5) // The unique comment ID post_id smallint(5) // The ID of the post the comment was made on user_id smallint(5) // The ID of the user account who made the comment comment_subject varchar(128) comment_date timestamp comment_text text Should I add additional fields for name, email address, etc. to the comment table? (seems like a bad idea) Create a new "anonymous users" table? (and if so, how to keep anonymous user ids from conflicting with regular user ids) Or create fake user accounts for anonymous users in my existing users table? Part of what's making this tricky is that if someone tries to post an anonymous comment using an email address (or OpenID) that's already associated with an account on my site, I'd like to catch that and prompt them to log in.

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• Spring bean's DESTROY-METHOD attribute and web-application "prototype"d bean

  - by EugeneP

  Can get work the attribute "destroy-method". First, even if I type non-existing method name into "destroy-method" attribute, Spring initialization completes fine (already strange!). Next, when a bean has a "prototype" scope, then I suppose it must be destroyed before the application is closed. That not happens, it is simply never called in my case. Though, after extracting this bean I can call this method explicitly and it does its job. Could you explain why this method is never called in my Spring 2.5 case? p.s. The method exists, it is public and has no arguments. It seems to be a more difficult task then I thought. The problem is that this destroy method is called whenever the context is closed, and this is a rare case. My question is this: I have a web app. I have a "prototype"-scoped bean. What I need is when the current session is closed, this destroy method was automatically called by Spring. I can do it by hand, but is there any solution how to make Spring do this job? It destroys the bean after the session is destroyed, it might be possible for Spring to call a method on that bean before destroying it?

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• jQuery Collapse (with cookies), default open instead of closed?

  - by Christian

  Hi. I've got a jQuery snippet which basically allows a user to toggle a div, open or closed - their preference is saved in a cookie. (function($) { $.fn.extend({ collapse: function(options) { var defaults = { inactive : "inactive", active : "active", head : ".trigger", group : ".wrap-me-up", speed : 300, cookie : "collapse" }; // Set a cookie counter so we dont get name collisions var op = $.extend(defaults, options); cookie_counter = 0; return this.each(function() { // Increment cookie name counter cookie_counter++; var obj = $(this), sections = obj.find(op.head).addClass(op.inactive), panel = obj.find(op.group).hide(), l = sections.length, cookie = op.cookie + "_" + cookie_counter; // Look for existing cookies for (c=0;c<=l;c++) { var cvalue = $.cookie(cookie + c); if ( cvalue == 'open' + c ) { panel.eq(c).show(); panel.eq(c).prev().removeClass(op.inactive).addClass(op.active); }; }; sections.click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); var num = sections.index(this); var cookieName = cookie + num; var ul = $(this).next(op.group); // If item is open, slide up if($(this).hasClass(op.active)) { ul.slideUp(op.speed); $(this).removeClass(op.active).addClass(op.inactive); $.cookie(cookieName, null, { path: '/', expires: 10 }); return } // Else slide down ul.slideDown(op.speed); $(this).addClass(op.active).removeClass(op.inactive); var cookieValue = 'open' + num; $.cookie(cookieName, cookieValue, { path: '/', expires: 10 }); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); Demo: http://christianbullock.com/demo/ I'm just wondering how I can display the list open as default, and have the div collapse when the header is clicked? Many thanks. Christian.

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• rake test not copying development postgres db with sequences

  - by Robert Crida

  I am trying to develop a rails application on postgresql using a sequence to increment a field instead of a default ruby approach based on validates_uniqueness_of. This has proved challenging for a number of reasons: 1. This is a migration of an existing table, not a new table or column 2. Using parameter :default = "nextval('seq')" didn't work because it tries to set it in parenthesis 3. Eventually got migration working in 2 steps: change_column :work_commencement_orders, :wco_number_suffix, :integer, :null => false#, :options => "set default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq')" execute %{ ALTER TABLE work_commencement_orders ALTER COLUMN wco_number_suffix SET DEFAULT nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'); } Now this would appear to have done the correct thing in the development database and the schema looks like: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'::regclass) However, the tests are failing with PGError: ERROR: null value in column "wco_number_suffix" violates not-null constraint : INSERT INTO "work_commencement_orders" ("expense_account_id", "created_at", "process_id", "vo2_issued_on", "wco_template", "updated_at", "notes", "process_type", "vo_number", "vo_issued_on", "vo2_number", "wco_type_id", "created_by", "contractor_id", "old_wco_type", "master_wco_number", "deadline", "updated_by", "detail", "elective_id", "authorization_batch_id", "delivery_lat", "delivery_long", "operational", "state", "issued_on", "delivery_detail") VALUES(226, '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', 728, NULL, E'Default', '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', NULL, E'Procurement::Process', NULL, NULL, NULL, 226, NULL, 276, NULL, E'MWCO-213', '2010-06-14 07:02:16.756952', NULL, E'Name 4597', 220, NULL, NULL, NULL, 'f', E'pending', NULL, E'728 Test Road; Test Town; 1234; Test Land') RETURNING "id" The explanation can be found when you inspect the schema of the test database: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null So what happened to the default? I tried adding task: template: smmt_ops_development to the database.yml file which has the effect of issuing create database smmt_ops_test template = "smmt_ops_development" encoding = 'utf8' I have verified that if I issue this then it does in fact copy the default nextval. So clearly rails is doing something after that to suppress it again. Any suggestions as to how to fix this? Thanks Robert

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• Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

  - by Rodney Burton

  I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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• How do I locate a particular word in a text file using .NET

  - by cmrhema

  I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that?

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• Serializing a part of object graph

  - by Felix

  Hi all, I have a problem regarding Java custom serialization. I have a graph of objects and want to configure where to stop when I serialize a root object from client to server. Let's make it a bit concrete, clear by giving a sample scenario. I have Classes of type Company Employee (abstract) Manager extends Employee Secretary extends Employee Analyst extends Employee Project Here are the relations: Company(1)---(n)Employee Manager(1)---(n)Project Analyst(1)---(n)Project Imagine, I'm on the client side and I want to create a new company, assign it 10 employees (new or some existing) and send this new company to the server. What I expect in this scenario is to serialize the company and all bounding employees to the server side, because I'll save the relations on the database. So far no problem, since the default Java serialization mechanism serializes the whole object graph, excluding the field which are static or transient. My goal is about the following scenario. Imagine, I loaded a company and its 1000 employees from the server to the client side. Now I only want to rename the company's name (or some other field, that directly belongs to the company) and update this record. This time, I want to send only the company object to the server side and not the whole list of employees (I just update the name, the employees are in this use case irrelevant). My aim also includes the configurability of saying, transfer the company AND the employees but not the Project-Relations, you must stop there. Do you know any possibility of achieving this in a generic way, without implementing the writeObject, readObject for every single Entity-Object? What would be your suggestions? I would really appreciate your answers. I'm open to any ideas and am ready to answer your questions in case something is not clear.

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• JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

  - by MgSam

  I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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• django powering multiple shops from one code base on a single domain

  - by imanc

  Hey, I am new to django and python and am trying to figure out how to modify an existing app to run multiple shops through a single domain. Django's sites middleware seems inappropriate in this particular case because it manages different domains, not sites run through the same domain, e.g. : domain.com/uk domain.com/us domain.com/es etc. Each site will need translated content - and minor template changes. The solution needs to be flexible enough to allow for easy modification of templates. The forms will also need to vary a bit, e.g minor variances in fields and validation for each country specific shop. I am thinking along the lines of the following as a solution and would love some feedback from experienced django-ers: In short: same codebase, but separate country specific urls files, separate templates and separate database Create a middleware class that does IP localisation, determines the country based on the URL and creates a database connection, e.g. /au/ will point to the au specific database and so on. in root urls.py have routes that point to a separate country specific routing file, e..g (r'^au/',include('urls_au')), (r'^es/',include('urls_es')), use a single template directory but in that directory have a localised directory structure, e.g. /base.html and /uk/base.html and write a custom template loader that looks for local templates first. (or have a separate directory for each shop and set the template directory path in middleware) use the django internationalisation to manage translation strings throughout slight variances in forms and models (e.g. ZA has an ID field, France has 'door code' and 'floor' etc.) I am unsure how to handle these variations but I suspect the tables will contain all fields but allowing nulls and the model will have all fields but allowing nulls. The forms will to be modified slightly for each shop. Anyway, I am keen to get feedback on the best way to go about achieving this multi site solution. It seems like it would work, but feels a bit "hackish" and I wonder if there's a more elegant way of getting this solution to work. Thanks, imanc

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• Collecting high-volume video viewing data

  - by DanK

  I want to add tracking to our Flash-based media player so that we can provide analytics that show what sections of videos are being watched (at the moment, we just register a view when a video starts playing) For example, if a viewer watches the first 30 seconds of a video and then clicks away to something else, we want the data to reflect that. Likewise, if someone watches the first 10 seconds, then scrubs the timeline to the last minute of the video and watches that, we want to register viewing on the parts watched and not the middle section. My first thought was to collect up the viewing data in the player and send it all to the server at the end of a viewing session. Unfortunately, Flash does not seem to have an event that you can hook into when a viewer clicks away from the page the movie is on (probably a good thing - it would be open to abuse) So, it looks like we're going to have to make regular requests to the server as the video is playing. This is obviously going to lead to a high volume of requests when there are large numbers of simultaneous viewers. The simple approach of dumping all these 'heartbeat' events from clients to a database feels like it will quickly become unmanageable so I'm wondering whether I should be taking an approach where viewing sessions are cached in memory and flushed to database when they become inactive (based on a timeout). That way, the data could be stored as time spans rather than individual heartbeats. So, to the question - what is the best way to approach dealing with this kind of high-volume viewing data? Are there any good existing architectures/patterns? Thanks, Dan.

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• Question about creating device-compatible bitmaps in C#

  - by MusiGenesis

  I am storing bitmap-like data in a two-dimensional int array. To convert this array into a GDI-compatible bitmap (for use with BitBlt), I am using this function: public IntPtr GetGDIBitmap(int[,] data) { int w = data.GetLength(0); int h = data.GetLength(1); IntPtr ret = IntPtr.Zero; using (Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(w, h)) { for (int x = 0; x < w; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < h; y++) { Color color = Color.FromArgb(data[x, y]); bmp.SetPixel(x, y, color); } } ret = bmp.GetHbitmap(); } return ret; } This works as expected, but the call to bmp.GetHbitmap() has to allocate memory for the returned bitmap. I'd like to modify this method in two (probably related) ways: I'd like to remove the intermediate Bitmap from the above code entirely, and go directly from my int[,] array to the device-compatible bitmap (i.e. the IntPtr). I presume this would involve calling CreateCompatibleBitmap, but I don't know how to go from that call to actually manipulating the pixel values. This should logically follow from the answer to the first, but I'd also like my method to re-use existing GDI bitmap handles (instead of creating a new bitmap each time). How can I do this? NOTE: I don't really use Bitmap.SetPixel(), as its performance could best be described as "glacial". The code is just for illustration.

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• Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

  - by Adam

  I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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• Getting "" at the beginning of my XML File after save()

  - by Remy

  I'm opening an existing XML file with c# and I replace some nodes in there. All works fine. Just after I save it, I get the following characters at the beginning of the file:  (EF BB BF in HEX) The whole first line: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> The rest of the file looks like a normal XML file. The simplified code is here: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(xmlSourceFile); XmlNode translation = doc.SelectSingleNode("//trans-unit[@id='127']"); translation.InnerText = "testing"; doc.Save(xmlTranslatedFile); I'm using a C# WinForm Application. With .NET 4.0. Any ideas? Why would it do that? Can we disable that somehow? It's for Adobe InCopy and it does not open it like this. UPDATE: Alternative Solution: Saving it with the XmlTextWriter works too: XmlTextWriter writer = new XmlTextWriter(inCopyFilename, null); doc.Save(writer);

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• Translating Where() to sql

  - by MBoros

  Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

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• Libtool versioning of a library that depends on other libraries.

  - by Artyom

  Hello, I have a framework that uses Boost and CgiCC in the core application and in its interface. How should I version the library binary interface (a.k.a. libtool -version-info)? I have no problems tracking the changes in library itself when I make various changes. As it is clear for me how should I version. But... Both Boost and CgiCC libraries do not provide any backward compatible API/ABI and my library may be linked with quite arbitrary versions Boost and CgiCC so I can't provide any promise about the interfaces, so I can't really specify -version-info because even the same library compiled against different versions of Boost and CgiCC would not be compatible. So... What should I do? How should I version library? I know that I should not depend on Boost and CgiCC interfaces in first place, but this is what I get so far for existing stable version. This issue is addressed in next major release but I still have and want to maintain current release as it is very valuable.

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• How do I exclude data from local table schema_migrations from being pushed to Heroku DB?

  - by Thierry Lam

  I was able to push my Ruby on Rails app with MySQL(local dev) to the Heroku server along with migrating my model with the command heroku rake db:migrate. I have also read the documentation on Database Import/Export. Is that doc referring to pushing actual data from my local dev DB to whichever Heroku's DB? Do I need to modify anything in the file database.yml to make it happen? I ran the following command: heroku db:push and I am getting the error: Sending data 2 tables, 3 records !!! Caught Server Exception | ETA: --:--:-- Taps Server Error: PGError ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "unique_schema_migrations" I have 2 tables, one I create for my app and the other schema_migrations. The total number of entries among the 2 tables is 3. I'm also printing the number of entries I have in the table I have created and it's showing 0. Any ideas what I might be missing or what I am doing wrong? EDIT: I figured out the above, Heroku's DB already have schema_migrations the moment I ran migrate. New question: Does anyone know how I can exclude data from a specific table from being pushed to Heroku DB. The table to exclude in this case will be schema_migrations. Not so good solution: I googled around and someone else was having the same issue. He suggested naming the schema_migrations table to zschema_migrations. In this way data from the other tables will be pushed properly until it fails on the last table. It's a pretty bad solution but will do for the time being. A better solution will be to use an existing Rails command which can reset a specific table from a database. I don't think Rake can do that.

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• UIViewController parentViewController access properties

  - by Dave

  I know this question has been asked several times and I did read existing posts on this topic but I still need help. I have 2 UIViewControllers - Parent and Child. I display the child view using the presentModalViewController as below: ChildController *child = [[ChildController alloc[ initWithNibName:@"ChildView" bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:child animated:YES]; [child release]; The child view has a UIPickerView. When user selects an item from UIPickerView and clicks done, I have to dismiss the modal view and display the selected item on a text field in the parent view. In child's button click delegate, I do the following: ParentController *parent = (ParentController *)[self.navigationController parentViewController]; [parent.myTextField setText:selectedText]; [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; Everything works without errors. But I don't know how to load the Parent View so that it displays the updated text field. I tried [parent reloadInputViews]; doesn' work. Please help.

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• Apache - "dynamic" rewrite rule

  - by Christian A. Rasmussen

  Hi there. I'm working on a Zend Framework project where I've stumbled across a bit of a problem. The problem originates from the fact that modules are 2nd class citizens in Zend Framework. In my project, I'd like for each module to have a folder containing files which are to be accessed from the outside - files such as stylesheets, javascripts and images. Now, how is this to be done. With a Zend Framework project I have a folder structure which looks like this: application/ modules/ moduleOne/ public/ stylesheet.css moduleTwo/ moduleThree/ public/ index.php The standard .htaccess file located in the public/ folder holds this: SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] The way it works, is that the project's apache DocumentRoot is the public/ folder. All requests gets redirected through the index.php file where Zend Framework's router component takes over. Now, I'm by no means an expert with Apache nor mod_rewrite so pardon me if this is just silly. I imagine that I implement an extra step in the existing rewrite rule so that if I request http://project/public/moduleOne/stylesheet.css it will for instance resolve to /var/www/project/application/modules/moduleOne/public/stylesheet.css. So the steps which need to be done is to check if the first element in the URI is public/ if it is, we take the next segment as the modules name and use that in the path we're trying to resolve to and attempt to serve the file. Is this at all possible or does anyone have a better suggestion? Thank you for your time Christian Rasmussen

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• Automated UAT/functional tests on Swing applications without source code

  - by jas

  Our team is now working on a big Swing application. Our job basically focuses on writing extensions to the existing framework. A typical job would be adding a new panel/ or adding a new tab with some extra functionalities that suit our need. It seems FEST can help a lot in terms of unit-test our code. I am going to try it out this week. But the question here is if there is a way to do automated functional testing on the whole application. In another word, we do not only need to test our code but also the framework. After all, UAT is the most important part. I am currently considering decompiling the jar files we got into source code then we can identify the components and then use FEST. So, before I get started to give this approach a shot, I think I just ask for ideas and inspirations here. There must be people who have done similar things before. Would be nice if I could learn from the veterans who fought against this before . Thanks,

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• How to make an entity out of a join table without primary key

  - by tputkonen

  I'm trying to generate JPA entities out of an existing database having an "interesting" design. Database has a table called UserSet, which can have links to several other UserSets. There is a one to many relation between UserSets and LinkedUserSets. LinkedUserSets also has one to one relation to UserSets. I tried to generate a JPA Entity out of the database structure using Dali JPA Tools. The resulting entity Linkeduserset misses @Id or @EmbeddedId annotation and thus failes to compile. As the resulting entity contains only two @JoinColumns (which cannot be marked as @Id), I have not so far found a way around this issue. Database structure can not be modified in any way. Is there a way to overcome this somehow? Relevant pars of create table statements: CREATE TABLE `LinkedUserSets` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , `ChildID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , CONSTRAINT `fk_LinkedUserSets_UserSet1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `UserSet` (`UsrSetID` )); CREATE TABLE `UserSet` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`UsrSetID`), CONSTRAINT `fk_UserSet_LinkedUserSets1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `LinkedUserSets` (`ChildID` )); Generated entities: @Entity @Table(name="linkedusersets") public class Linkeduserset { //bi-directional many-to-one association to Userset @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="UsrSetID") private Userset userset1; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Userset @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name="ChildID") private Userset userset2; } @Entity @Table(name="userset") public class Userset { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column(name="UsrSetID") private int jngSetID; //bi-directional many-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToMany(mappedBy="userset1") private Set<Linkeduserset> linkedusersets; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToOne(mappedBy="userset2") private Linkeduserset linkeduserset; } Error message: Entity "Linkeduserset" has no Id or EmbeddedId

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