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  • Android onActivityResult is always 0

    - by Dean
    This has been killing me for two days now. I have a main Activity A which calls a second Activity B. Activity B simply presents the user with a listview. When I press an item on the list view I want a couple of strings to be passed back to the main Activity A and Activiy B will finish. The problem is I always get a resultcode of 0 and the data bundle is null. I really don't understand why this is happening. Here is my code. Start Activity B for result; Test.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(recipeActivity.this, BrowseLoadRecipes.class); startActivityForResult(i, RECIPE_CHOOSER); } }); This starts the second Activity fine. Activity B populates a listview and when I click an item I'm trying to send some data back to the calling Activity A. Any text at the moment, so I used the following in Activity B; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int position, long id) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("TEXT", "Please work... pleeeeaasee"); Intent mIntent = new Intent(); mIntent.putExtras(bundle); setResult(RESULT_OK, mIntent); finish(); } }); In the calling activity I have the following listening for the return as follows; protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch(requestCode) { //TODO case RECIPE_CHOOSER: Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "In recipe return", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "resultCode is " + String.valueOf(resultCode), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bundle b = getIntent().getExtras(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Returned " + b.getString("TEXT"), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } if (resultCode == RESULT_CANCELED) { } break; } } } I can see that the request code is correctly returned, but the resultcode is always a 0 and the data is always a null. I've ran through the debug and the setResult is doing its job and the bundle does indeed have the data I'm passing, but it's lost at some point along the way. Is there something in the manifest I'm missing or something. It's killed my progress on this project so far. Any help would truly be appreciated. Thanks, Dean

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  • L-Soft LISTSERV TCPGUI Interface for PHP Creation

    - by poolnoodl
    I'm trying to use LISTSERV's "API" in PHP. L-Soft calls this TCPGUI, and essentially, you can request data like over Telnet. To do this, I'm using PHP's TCP socket functions. I've seen this done in other languages but can't quite convert it to PHP. I can connect, I can change set ASCII or BINARY mode. But I can never quite craft the header packet the way I need to authenticate, so I'm thinking I'm messing up my conversion. C: http://www.lsoft.com/manuals/16.0/htmlhelp/advanced%20topics/TCPGUI.html#2334328 $origin = '[email protected]'; $pwd = 'password'; $host = "example.com"; $port = 2306; $email = "[email protected]"; $list = "mailinglist"; $command = "Query $list FOR $email"; $fp = stream_socket_client("tcp://$host:$port", $errno, $errstr, 30); $cmd = $command . " PW=" . $pwd; $len = strlen($cmd); $orglen = strlen($origin); $n = $len + $orglen + 1; $headerPacket[0] = "1"; $headerPacket[1] = "B"; $headerPacket[2] = "\r"; $headerPacket[3] = "\n"; $headerPacket[4] = ord($n / 256); $headerPacket[5] = ord($n + 255); $headerPacket[6] = ord($orglen); for ($i = 0; $i < $orglen; $i++) { $headerPacket[$i + 7] = ord($origin[$i]); } for ($i = 0; $i < $len; $i++) { $cmdPacket[$i] = ord($cmd[$i]); } fwrite($fp, implode($headerPacket)); while (!feof($fp)) { echo fgets($fp, 1024); } Any thoughts on where I'm going wrong? I'd much appreciate it if anyone could point me toward some code to do this, days of googling and searching here on SO has only lead me to examples in other languages. Of course, if you know C (or Java or Perl as linked below in my comment to bypass the spam filter), PHP, and socket programming fairly well, you could probably rewrite the whole of the code in an hour, maybe a few minutes. You'd have my eternal thanks for that.

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • .NET Windows Service with timer stops responding

    - by Biri
    I have a windows service written in c#. It has a timer inside, which fires some functions on a regular basis. So the skeleton of my service: public partial class ArchiveService : ServiceBase { Timer tickTack; int interval = 10; ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { tickTack = new Timer(1000 * interval); tickTack.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(tickTack_Elapsed); tickTack.Start(); } protected override void OnStop() { tickTack.Stop(); } private void tickTack_Elapsed(object sender, ElapsedEventArgs e) { ... } } It works for some time (like 10-15 days) then it stops. I mean the service shows as running, but it does not do anything. I make some logging and the problem can be the timer, because after the interval it does not call the tickTack_Elapsed function. I was thinking about rewrite it without a timer, using an endless loop, which stops the processing for the amount of time I set up. This is also not an elegant solution and I think it can have some side effects regarding memory. The Timer is used from the System.Timers namespace, the environment is Windows 2003. I used this approach in two different services on different servers, but both is producing this behavior (this is why I thought that it is somehow connected to my code or the framework itself). Does somebody experienced this behavior? What can be wrong? Edit: I edited both services. One got a nice try-catch everywhere and more logging. The second got a timer-recreation on a regular basis. None of them stopped since them, so if this situation remains for another week, I will close this question. Thank you for everyone so far. Edit: I close this question because nothing happened. I mean I made some changes, but those changes are not really relevant in this matter and both services are running without any problem since then. Please mark it as "Closed for not relevant anymore".

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  • Counting point size based on chart area during zooming/unzoomin

    - by Gacek
    Hi folks. I heave a quite simple task. I know (I suppose) it should be easy, but from the reasons I cannot understand, I try to solve it since 2 days and I don't know where I'm making the mistake. So, the problem is as follows: - we have a chart with some points - The chart starts with some known area and points have known size - we would like to "emulate" the zooming effect. So when we zoom to some part of the chart, the size of points is getting proportionally bigger. In other words, the smaller part of the chart we select, the bigger the point should get. So, we have something like that. We know this two parameters: initialArea; // Initial area - area of the whole chart, counted as width*height initialSize; // initial size of the points Now lets assume we are handling some kind of OnZoom event. We selected some part of the chart and would like to count the current size of the points float CountSizeOnZoom() { float currentArea = CountArea(...); // the area is counted for us. float currentSize = initialSize * initialArea / currentArea; return currentSize; } And it works. But the rate of change is too fast. In other words, the points are getting really big too soon. So I would like the currentSize to be invertly proportional to currentArea, but with some scaling coefficient. So I created the second function: float CountSizeOnZoom() { float currentArea = CountArea(...); % the area is counted for us. // Lets assume we want the size of points to change ten times slower, than area of the chart changed. float currentSize = initialSize + 0.1f* initialSize * ((initialArea / currentArea) -1); return currentSize; } Lets do some calculations in mind. if currentArea is smaller than initialArea, initialArea/currentArea > 1 and then we add "something" small and postive to initialSize. Checked, it works. Lets check what happens if we would un-zoom. currentArea will be equal to initialArea, so we would have 0 at the right side (1-1), so new size should be equal to initialSize. Right? Yeah. So lets check it... and it doesn't work. My question is: where is the mistake? Or maybe you have any ideas how to count this scaled size depending on current area in some other way?

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  • Casting between variant and bstr_t causing inconsisten crash in Windows 2008

    - by user58470
    We have a C# application, calling a simple C++ wrapper class, that then calls an existing C++ DLL. The C++ code is all VC++ 6.0. We are getting inconsistent behaviour, but the crash, when it happens, always happens within the C++ wrapper DLL, and always in the same spot (have confirmed using painful logging statements). It never happens on any environment except on Windows 2008, so we suspect some bad-but-not-fatal memory trashing is going on that somehow Windows 2008 is being more mindful of. Here's the relevant code, if anyone has any ideas on why this might be crashing it would be much appreciated. We've been tearing our hair out for a few days and project timelines are slipping all for the want of being able to return a simple string back to C#... I've been told we've tried setting the VARIANT vresult using VariantInit, and clearing it when we are done with VariantClear, but that didn't help. // JobMgrDll.cpp : Defines the entry point for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "JobMgrDll.h" #include "jobmgr.h" CString gcontext; CString guser; CString ghost; CString glog; JOBMGRDLL_API int nJobMgrDll=0; extern "C" JOBMGRDLL_API char* perform_billcalc(char* cmd, char* context, char* user,char* host,BSTR* log,int* loglen) { char* result = new char[1000]; memset(result,0,999); result[999] = '\0'; bstr_t bt_command = cmd; UUID uuid = __uuidof(BRLib::Rules); VARIANT vresult; char *p_rv; gcontext = context; guser = user; ghost = host; write_log("execute_job"); p_rv = execute_job(uuid, "none", bt_command, &vresult); write_log("DONE execute_job"); CString message; write_log ("Intializing bstr_t with variant"); // WE ALWAYS GET HERE bstr_t res(vresult); //message.Format("%s result = %s",p_rv,res); //write_log(message); write_log("copying Result"); // WE DON'T ALWAYS GET HERE, BUT SOMETIMES WE DO strcpy(result,(char*)res); write_log(CString(result)); *loglen = glog.GetLength(); *log = glog.AllocSysString(); return result; } Again, any ideas much, much appreciated.

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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  • Returning JSON in CFFunction and appending it to layer is causing an error

    - by Mel
    I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to generate a dynamic tooltip. I'm getting an error in my JS, and I'm unsure if its source is the JSON or the JS. The tooltip calls the following function: (sorry about all this code, but it's necessary) <cffunction name="fGameDetails" access="remote" returnType="any" returnformat="JSON" output="false" hint="This grabs game details for the games.cfm page"> <!---Argument, which is the game ID---> <cfargument name="gameID" type="numeric" required="true" hint="CFC will look for GameID and retrieve its details"> <!---Local var---> <cfset var qGameDetails = ""> <!---Database query---> <cfquery name="qGameDetails" datasource="#REQUEST.datasource#"> SELECT titles.titleName AS tName, titles.titleBrief AS tBrief, games.gameID, games.titleID, games.releaseDate AS rDate, genres.genreName AS gName, platforms.platformAbbr AS pAbbr, platforms.platformName AS pName, creviews.cReviewScore AS rScore, ratings.ratingName AS rName FROM games Inner Join platforms ON platforms.platformID = games.platformID Inner Join titles ON titles.titleID = games.titleID Inner Join genres ON genres.genreID = games.genreID Inner Join creviews ON games.gameID = creviews.gameID Inner Join ratings ON ratings.ratingID = games.ratingID WHERE (games.gameID = #ARGUMENTS.gameID#); </cfquery> <cfreturn qGameDetails> </cffunction> This function returns the following JSON: { "COLUMNS": [ "TNAME", "TBRIEF", "GAMEID", "TITLEID", "RDATE", "GNAME", "PABBR", "PNAME", "RSCORE", "RNAME" ], "DATA": [ [ "Dark Void", "Ancient gods known as 'The Watchers,' once banished from our world by superhuman Adepts, have returned with a vengeance.", 154, 54, "January, 19 2010 00:00:00", "Action & Adventure", "PS3", "Playstation 3", 3.3, "14 Anos" ] ] } The problem I'm having is every time I try to append the JSON to the layer #catalog, I get a syntax error that says "missing parenthetical." This is the JavaScript I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { url: '/gamezilla/resources/components/viewgames.cfc?method=fGameDetails', data: { gameID: $(this).attr('href').match(/gameID=([0-9]+)$/)[1] }, method: 'get' }, api: { beforeContentUpdate: function(content) { var json = eval('(' + content + ')'); content = $('<div />').append( $('<h1 />', { html: json.TNAME })); return content; } }, style: { width: 300, height: 300, padding: 0, name: 'light', tip: { corner: 'leftMiddle', size: { x: 40, y : 40 } } }, position: { corner: { target: 'rightMiddle', tooltip: 'leftMiddle' } } }); }); }); Any ideas where I'm going wrong? I tried many things for several days and I can't find the issue. Many thanks!

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  • Copy constructor bug

    - by user168715
    I'm writing a simple nD-vector class, but am encountering a strange bug. I've stripped out the class to the bare minimum that still reproduces the bug: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template<unsigned int size> class nvector { public: nvector() {data_ = new double[size];} ~nvector() {delete[] data_;} template<unsigned int size2> nvector(const nvector<size2> &other) { data_ = new double[size]; int i=0; for(; i<size && i < size2; i++) data_[i] = other[i]; for(; i<size; i++) data_[i] = 0; } double &operator[](int i) {return data_[i];} const double&operator[](int i) const {return data_[i];} private: const nvector<size> &operator=(const nvector<size> &other); //Intentionally unimplemented for now double *data_; }; int main() { nvector<2> vector2d; vector2d[0] = 1; vector2d[1] = 2; nvector<3> vector3d(vector2d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << vector3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 nvector<3> other3d(vector3d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << other3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 } //Segfault??? On the surface this seems to work fine, and both tests print out the correct values. However, at the end of main the program crashes with a segfault, which I've traced to nvector's destructor. At first I thought the (incorrect) default assignment operator was somehow being called, which is why I added the (currently) unimplemented explicit assignment operator to rule this possibility out. So my copy constructor must be buggy, but I'm having one of those days where I'm staring at extremely simple code and just can't see it. Do you guys have any ideas?

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • Translate parse_git_branch function to zsh from bash (for prompt)

    - by yar
    I am using this function in Bash function parse_git_branch { git_status="$(git status 2> /dev/null)" pattern="^# On branch ([^${IFS}]*)" if [[ ! ${git_status}} =~ "working directory clean" ]]; then state="*" fi # add an else if or two here if you want to get more specific if [[ ${git_status} =~ ${pattern} ]]; then branch=${BASH_REMATCH[1]} echo "(${branch}${state})" fi } but I'm determined to use zsh. While I can use this perfectly as a shell script (even without a shebang) in my .zshrc the error is a parse error on this line if [[ ! ${git_status}}... What do I need to do to get it ready for zshell? Edit: The "actual error" I'm getting is " parse error near } and it refers to the line with the strange double }}, which works on Bash. Edit: Here's the final code, just for fun: parse_git_branch() { git_status="$(git status 2> /dev/null)" pattern="^# On branch ([^[:space:]]*)" if [[ ! ${git_status} =~ "working directory clean" ]]; then state="*" fi if [[ ${git_status} =~ ${pattern} ]]; then branch=${match[1]} echo "(${branch}${state})" fi } setopt PROMPT_SUBST PROMPT='$PR_GREEN%n@$PR_GREEN%m%u$PR_NO_COLOR:$PR_BLUE%2c$PR_NO_COLOR%(!.#.$)' RPROMPT='$PR_GREEN$(parse_git_branch)$PR_NO_COLOR' Thanks to everybody for your patience and help. Edit: The best answer has schooled us all: git status is porcelain (UI). Good scripting goes against GIT plumbing. Here's the final function: parse_git_branch() { in_wd="$(git rev-parse --is-inside-work-tree 2>/dev/null)" || return test "$in_wd" = true || return state='' git diff-index HEAD --quiet 2>/dev/null || state='*' branch="$(git symbolic-ref HEAD 2>/dev/null)" test -z "$branch" && branch='<detached-HEAD>' echo "(${branch#refs/heads/}${state})" } PROMPT='$PR_GREEN%n@$PR_GREEN%m%u$PR_NO_COLOR:$PR_BLUE%2c$PR_NO_COLOR%(!.#.$)' RPROMPT='$PR_GREEN$(parse_git_branch)$PR_NO_COLOR' Note that only the prompt is zsh-specific. In Bash it would be your prompt plus "\$(parse_git_branch)". This might be slower (more calls to GIT, but that's an empirical question) but it won't be broken by changes in GIT (they don't change the plumbing). And that is very important for a good script moving forward. Days Later: Ugh, it turns out that diff-index HEAD is NOT the same as checking status against working directory clean. So will this mean another plumbing call? I surely don't have time/expertise to write my own porcelain....

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • How to add fadeIn and fadeOut to idTabs plugin's JS snippet?

    - by iMagdy
    Hi, I am using the jQuery plugin idTabs [ [www.sunsean.com/idTabs][1] ] and it allows me to line tabs and tabs' content via element#id and element href="#id" Ok, so I use this snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#requestPool").idTabs(); $(".tabs").idTabs(); $(".miniTabs").idTabs(".active"); $(".switchers").idTabs(".activePanel"); }); </script> To run the plugin on two different areas: div#requestPool this has it's own tabs and it's own tab content, Also the div.tabs which is another place and has it's own tabs and it's own tabs content. The div.miniTabs and div.switchers are the divs that includes the tabs links (tabs headers) and I putted them in the snippet to change the default selected tab class from .selected to .active and .activePanel Now, what I would love to add is a nice fadeIn and fadeOut effects to the content of my tabs while browsing through them. Thanks Here is the HTML code for one of the tabbed areas: <div id="requestPool"> <!-- The tabs heads --> <div class="miniTabs"> <a href="#today" class="active">Today</a> <!-- First active tab --> <a href="#tomorrow">Tomorrow</a> <a href="#friday">Friday</a> <a href="#saturday">Saturday</a> <a href="#sunday">Sunday</a> <a href="#monday">Monday</a> <a href="#tuesday">Tuesday</a> </div> <!-- The tabs contents (the ones that I want them to fade in and out while browsing through them using the tabs above) --> <div id="today"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="tomorrow"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="friday"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="saturday"class="miniTab"></div> <div id="sunday"class="miniTab"></div> ...etc the week days </div> Thanks very much (again the tabs are working very fine, but without the fade effect which I want to have).

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • Copy image to BLOB from client pc aka Java function in Oracle

    - by mumich
    Hi guys, I've been stuck with this for past two days. I've go java function stored in Oracle system which is supposed to copy image from local drive do remote database and store it in BLOB - it's called CopyBLOB and looks like this: import java.sql.*; import oracle.sql.*; import java.io.*; public class CopyBLOB { static int id; static String fileName = null; static Connection conn = null; public CopyBLOB(int idz, String f) { id = idz; fileName = f; } public static void copy(int ident, String path) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CopyBLOB cpB = new CopyBLOB(ident, path); cpB.getConnection(); cpB.callUpdate(id, fileName); } public void getConnection() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver (new oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver()); try { conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:oracle:thin:@oraserv.ms.mff.cuni.cz:1521:db", "xxx", "xxx"); } catch (SQLException sqlex) { System.out.println("SQLException while getting db connection: "+sqlex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { System.out.println("Exception while getting db connection: "+ex); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } } public void callUpdate(int id, String file ) throws SQLException, FileNotFoundException { CallableStatement cs = null; try { conn.setAutoCommit(false); File f = new File(file); FileInputStream fin = new FileInputStream(f); cs = (CallableStatement) conn.prepareCall( "begin add_image(?,?); end;" ); cs.setInt(1, id ); cs.setBinaryStream(2, fin, (int) f.length()); cs.execute(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); } catch ( SQLException sqlex ) { System.out.println("SQLException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + sqlex.getMessage() ); } catch ( FileNotFoundException fnex ) { System.out.println("FileNotFoundException in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + fnex.getMessage() ); } finally { try { if (cs != null) cs.close(); if (conn != null) conn.close(); } catch ( Exception ex ) { System.out.println("Some exception in callUpdateUsingStream method of given status : " + ex.getMessage( ) ); } } } } The wrapper function is defined in package "MyPackage" as folows: procedure image_adder( id varchar2, path varchar2 ) AS language java name 'CopyBLOB.copy(java.lang.String, java.lang.String)'; And the inserting function called image_add is as simple as this: procedure add_image( id numeric(10), pic blob) AS BEGIN insert into pictures values (seq_pic.nextval, id, pic); END add_image; Now the problem: When I type call MyPackage.image_adder(1, 'd:\samples\img.jpg'); I get the ORA-29531 Error: No method copy in class CopyBLOB. Can you help me, please?

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  • Getting up to speed on modern architecture

    - by Matt Thrower
    Hi, I don't have any formal qualifications in computer science, rather I taught myself classic ASP back in the days of the dotcom boom and managed to get myself a job and my career developed from there. I was a confident and, I think, pretty good programmer in ASP 3 but as others have observed one of the problems with classic ASP was that it did a very good job of hiding the nitty-gritty of http so you could become quite competent as a programmer on the basis of relatively poor understanding of the technology you were working with. When I changed on to .NET at first I treated it like classic ASP, developing stand-alone applications as individual websites simply because I didn't know any better at the time. I moved jobs at this point and spent the next several years working on a single site whose architecture relied heavily on custom objects: in other words I gained a lot of experience working with .NET as a middle-tier development tool using a quite old-fashioned approach to OO design along the lines of the classic "car" class example that's so often used to teach OO. Breaking down programs into blocks of functionality and basing your classes and methods around that. Although we worked under an Agile approach to manage the work the whole setup was classic client/server stuff. That suited me and I gradually got to grips with .NET and started using it far more in the manner that it should be, and I began to see the power inherent in the technology and precisely why it was so much better than good old ASP 3. In my latest job I have found myself suddenly dropped in at the deep end with two quite young, skilled and very cutting-edge programmers. They've built a site architecture which is modelling along a lot of stuff which is new to me and which, in truth I'm having a lot of trouble understanding. The application is built on a cloud computing model with multi-tenancy and the architecture is all loosely coupled using a lot of interfaces, factories and the like. They use nHibernate a lot too. Shortly after I joined, both these guys left and I'm now supposedly the senior developer on a system whose technology and architecture I don't really understand and I have no-one to ask questions of. Except you, the internet. Frankly I feel like I've been pitched in at the deep end and I'm sinking. I'm not sure if this is because I lack the educational background to understand this stuff, if I'm simply not mathematically minded enough for modern computing (my maths was never great - my approach to design is often to simply debug until it works, then refactor until it looks neat), or whether I've simply been presented with too much of too radical a nature at once. But the only way to find out which it is is to try and learn it. So can anyone suggest some good places to start? Good books, tutorials or blogs? I've found a lot of internet material simply presupposes a level of understanding that I just don't have. Your advice is much appreciated. Help a middle-aged, stuck in the mud developer get enthusastic again! Please!

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  • FILE_NOT_FOUND when trying to open COM port C++

    - by Moutabreath
    I am trying to open a com port for reading and writing using C++ but I can't seem to pass the first stage of actually opening it. I get an INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE on the handle with GetLastError FILE_NOT_FOUND. I have searched around the web for a couple of days I'm fresh out of ideas. I have searched through all the questions regarding COM on this website too. I have scanned through the existing ports (or so I believe) to get the name of the port right. I also tried combinations of _T("COM1") with the slashes, without the slashes, with colon, without colon and without the _T I'm using windows 7 on 64 bit machine. this is the code i got I'll be glad for any input on this void SendToCom(char* data, int len) { DWORD cbNeeded = 0; DWORD dwPorts = 0; EnumPorts(NULL, 1, NULL, 0, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); //What will be the return value BOOL bSuccess = FALSE; LPCSTR COM1 ; BYTE* pPorts = static_cast<BYTE*>(malloc(cbNeeded)); bSuccess = EnumPorts(NULL, 1, pPorts, cbNeeded, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); if (bSuccess){ PORT_INFO_1* pPortInfo = reinterpret_cast<PORT_INFO_1*>(pPorts); for (DWORD i=0; i<dwPorts; i++) { //If it looks like "COMX" then size_t nLen = _tcslen(pPortInfo->pName); if (nLen > 3) { if ((_tcsnicmp(pPortInfo->pName, _T("COM"), 3) == 0) ){ COM1 =pPortInfo->pName; //COM1 ="\\\\.\\COM1"; HANDLE m_hCommPort = CreateFile( COM1 , GENERIC_READ|GENERIC_WRITE, // access ( read and write) 0, // (share) 0:cannot share the COM port NULL, // security (None) OPEN_EXISTING, // creation : open_existing FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, // we want overlapped operation NULL // no templates file for COM port... ); if (m_hCommPort==INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { DWORD err = GetLastError(); if (err == ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else if(err == ERROR_INVALID_NAME) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_INVALID_NAME",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else { MessageBox(hWnd,"unkown error",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } } else{ WriteAndReadPort(m_hCommPort,data); } } pPortInfo++; } } } }

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  • jquery ajax form success callback not being called

    - by Michael Merchant
    I'm trying to upload a file using "AJAX", process data in the file and then return some of that data to the UI so I can dynamically update the screen. I'm using the JQuery Ajax Form Plugin, jquery.form.js found at http://jquery.malsup.com/form/ for the javascript and using Django on the back end. The form is being submitted and the processing on the back end is going through without a problem, but when a response is received from the server, my Firefox browser prompts me to download/open a file of type "application/json". The file has the json content that I've been trying to send to the browser. I don't believe this is an issue with how I'm sending the json as I have a modularized json_wrapper() function that I'm using in multiple places in this same application. Here is what my form looks after Django templates are applied: <form method="POST" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="/test_suites/active/upload_results/805/"> <p> <label for="id_resultfile">Upload File:</label> <input type="file" id="id_resultfile" name="resultfile"> </p> </form> You won't see any submit buttons because I'm calling submit with a button else where and am using ajaxSubmit() from the jquery.form.js plugin. Here is the controlling javascript code: function upload_results($dialog_box){ $form = $dialog_box.find("form"); var options = { type: "POST", success: function(data){ alert("Hello!!"); }, dataType: "json", error: function(){ console.log("errors"); }, beforeSubmit: function(formData, jqForm, options){ console.log(formData, jqForm, options); }, } $form.submit(function(){ $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); return false; }); $form.ajaxSubmit(options); } As you can see, I've gotten desperate to see the success callback function work and simply have an alert message created on success. However, we never reach that call. Also, the error function is not called and the beforeSubmit function is executed. The file that I get back has the following contents: {"count": 18, "failed": 0, "completed": 18, "success": true, "trasaction_id": "SQEID0.231"} I use 'success' here to denote whether or not the server was able to run the post command adequately. If it failed the result would look something like: {"success": false, "message":"<error_message>"} Your time and help is greatly appreciated. I've spent a few days on this now and would love to move on.

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  • AngularJS recursive directive with a dynamic HTML template (bounty)

    - by Nazar Sobchuk
    I have a realy hard task here. I am working on an AngularJS web app, which is capable of sending different HTTP methods to our project's Restful Web Service and receiving responses in JSON. Basicaly it looks like this: You can create some REST resource from this application. Let's say an exam. To create an exam - you pick a resource from a list of available resources. This triggers a function, that sends a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/resorceName and gets a description for this resource. Description looks like this: http://jsonblob.com/534fc022e4b0bb44248d6460 After receiving a response - I start building input fields like follows (allFields - array of field objects for this resource, enumValues - enum values for resource's field if it's property isEnum = true): <div ng-repeat="field in allFields"> <div ng-show={{!field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <input type="text" ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control" placeholder="{{parseClassName(field.type)}}"> </div> <div ng-show={{field.isEnum}}> <p ng-show={{field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}*: </p> <p ng-show={{!field.isRequired}}>{{field.name}}: </p> <select ng-model="updateEntityResource[field.name]" ng-change="getUpdateEntityAsText()" class="form-control"> <option></option> <option ng-repeat="enumValue in field.enumValues" label={{enumValue.name}}>{{enumValue.ordinal}}</option> </select> </div> </div> Now, the problem. I need to create a recursive directive, which would be capable of generating fields in such maner as described above for every resource's field that has "restResourceName" not null. To get all it's fields you just send a request to localhost:8080/STEP/api/explain/restResourceName and get similar JSON response as shown above, which is then used to build HTML elements for inputing values into model. Does anyone know how this can be achieved using angular recursive directive? Every useful answer is highly appreciated and evaluated. The correct answer will get +50 or I will start a bounty, because I'm realy stuck with this for 2 days. If you need any additional info - let me know. Thank you.

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • A program where user enters a string and the program counts the instances of the letters

    - by user1865183
    This is the first C++ program I have ever written and I'm having trouble understanding the order in which operands must be put in. This is for a class, but it looks like I'm not supposed to use the homework tag. Sorry if I'm doing this wrong. This is my input // Get DNA string string st; cout << "Enter the DNA sequence to be analysed: "; cin >> st; This seems to work ok, but I thought I would include it incase this is what I'm doing wrong. This is what I have so far to check that the input is exclusively C,T,A, or G. It runs through the program and simply prints "Please enter a valid sequnce1, please enter a valid sequence2, ... ect. I'm sure I'm doing something very stupid, I just can't figure it out. // Check that the sequence is all C, T, A, G while (i <= st.size()){ if (st[i] != 'c' && st[i] != 'C' && st[i] != 'g' && st[i] != 'G' && st[i] != 't' && st[i] != 'T' && st[i] != 'a' && st[i] != 'A'); cout << "Please enter a valid sequence" << i++; else if (st[i] == c,C,G,t,T,a,A) i++; The second half of my program is to count the number of Cs and Gs in the sequence for (i < st.size() ; i++ ;); for (loop <= st.size() ; loop++;) if (st[loop] == 'c') { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == C) { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == g) { count_g++; } else if (st[loop] == G); { count_g++; } cout << "Number of instances of C = " << count_c; cout << "Number of instances of G = " << count_g; It seems like it's not looping, it will count 1 of one of the letters. How do I make it loop? I can't seem to put in endl; anywhere without getting an error back, although I know I'll need it somewhere. Any help or tips to point me in the right direction would be greatly appreciated - I've been working on this code for two days (this is embarrassing to admit).

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inheriting from ProfileBase

    - by Glen
    I have 2 related issues. I inherited from ProfileBase and I have a couple of properites as such public SomeType PropertyName { get { return (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; Save(); } } I also have a User class (UserId, UserName, Profile, LastActivityDate) that has 2 additional properties out of the profile that I retrieve in my View to show a list of Users (i.e. @Model.Profile.PropertyName). However, everytime I access a property (from my View) it seems to update the LastActivityDate in the aspnet_Users table because when I show the LastActivityDate as well as the profile properties on my screen the LastActivtyDate is out of sync with the database. Also there is a LastActivityDate property available in my profile which unfortunately is not available and is in fact set to null and throws an exception when accessing it saying the property UserName is null. So the static Create method provided by ProfileBase seems to retrieve the correct profile properties but does not set the base's UserName property even though you pass in a UserName parameter to the Create method. Is this a internal bug? I was kind of hoping if by accessing the property because the LastActivityDate is updated then I could store that value to update my LastActivityDate in my User class before it is rendered to the page. The only way I can think of doing it is: public SomeType PropertyName { get { SomeType result = (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; OnLastActivityDateChanged(); return result; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; } } then in my User class: ... public MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged += Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ~MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged -= Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ... void Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Run a query to get the latest LastActivityDate this.LastActivityDate = ... } It seems I have to make 1 call to retrieve the full list to my aspnet_Users table then another call for each row just to get the latest activity date. ARGGGGHHH!!! Am I going about this the wrong way! I put an ajax refresh hyperlink next to each User row and when I click it, immediately after loading the page, the value changes. Therefore my suspision is valid that calling a property via the inherited profilebase class updates the value. Is there a workaround? It is a bit miss leading when my page says User Smith has no activity for 4 days then I click my ajax refresh link (or refresh the whole page for that matter) and now it says Smith was active but it was just me meally showing the page that indirectly caused an activity read event.

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