Search Results

Search found 9366 results on 375 pages for 'common lisp'.

Page 296/375 | < Previous Page | 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303  | Next Page >

  • git: correct way to merge/rebase with respect to svn dcommit

    - by Albert
    I have the following situation (mostly because I didn't really thought it through in the beginning -- or more exactly, I thought it shouldn't be a problem the way I did this but now I am stumbled): ... --- A --- B1 --- ... --- Bn ... --- git-svn Whereby A and git-svn are at the same state (exactly the same files and file content) but they don't have any common point in history. And I want: ... --- git-svn --- B1 --- ... --- Bn Or at least, when I do the svn dcommit, I want exactly to get the commits B1 to Bn and nothing else. I am not exactly sure how dcommit works. So if I would get something like this: ... ------------ A --- B1 --- ... --- Bn \ \ ... --- git-svn -- A' ----------------- B' would the dcommit behave in the way I want? Because if so, that would be easy to get (merging A into git-svn does work just fine because they are content-wise the same). Or should I do some sort of rebase? But I don't want to rebase A on git-svn, just B1 to Bn.

    Read the article

  • Problem implementing Interceptor pattern

    - by ph0enix
    I'm attempting to develop an Interceptor framework (in C#) where I can simply implement some interfaces, and through the use of some static initialization, register all my Interceptors with a common Dispatcher to be invoked at a later time. The problem lies in the fact that my Interceptor implementations are never actually referenced by my application so the static constructors never get called, and as a result, the Interceptors are never registered. If possible, I would like to keep all references to my Interceptor libraries out of my application, as this is my way of (hopefully) enforcing loose coupling across different modules. Hopefully this makes some sense. Let me know if there's anything I can clarify... Does anyone have any ideas, or perhaps a better way to go about implementing my Interceptor pattern? Update: I came across Spring.NET. I've heard of it before, but never really looked into it. It sounds like it has a lot of great features that would be very useful for what I'm trying to do. Does anyone have any experience with Spring.NET? TIA, Jeremy

    Read the article

  • How frequently IP packets are fragmented at the source host?

    - by Methos
    I know that if IP payload MTU then routers usually fragment the IP packet. Finally all the fragmented packets are assembled at the destination using the fields IP-ID, IP fragment offsets and fragmentation flags. Max length of IP payload is 64K. Thus its very plausible for L4 to hand over payload which is 64K. If the L2 protocol is Ethernet, which often is the case, then the MTU will be about 1600 bytes. Hence IP packet will be fragmented at the source host itself. However, a quick search about IP implementation in Linux tells me that in recent kernels, L4 protocols are fragment friendly i.e. they try to save the fragmentation work for IP by handing over buffers of size which is close to MTU. Considering these two facts, I am wondering about how frequently does the IP packet gets fragmented at the source host itself. Does it occur sometimes/rarely/never? Does anyone know if there are exceptions to the rule of fragmentation in linux kernel (i.e. are there situations where L4 protocols are not fragment friendly)? How is this handled in other common OSes like windows? In general how frequently IP packets are fragmented?

    Read the article

  • Compiling Objective-C project on Linux (Ubuntu)

    - by Alex
    How to make an Objective-C project work on Ubuntu? My files are: Fraction.h #import <Foundation/NSObject.h> @interface Fraction: NSObject { int numerator; int denominator; } -(void) print; -(void) setNumerator: (int) n; -(void) setDenominator: (int) d; -(int) numerator; -(int) denominator; @end Fraction.m #import "Fraction.h" #import <stdio.h> @implementation Fraction -(void) print { printf( "%i/%i", numerator, denominator ); } -(void) setNumerator: (int) n { numerator = n; } -(void) setDenominator: (int) d { denominator = d; } -(int) denominator { return denominator; } -(int) numerator { return numerator; } @end main.m #import <stdio.h> #import "Fraction.h" int main( int argc, const char *argv[] ) { // create a new instance Fraction *frac = [[Fraction alloc] init]; // set the values [frac setNumerator: 1]; [frac setDenominator: 3]; // print it printf( "The fraction is: " ); [frac print]; printf( "\n" ); // free memory [frac release]; return 0; } I've tried two approaches to compile it: Pure gcc: $ sudo apt-get install gobjc gnustep gnustep-devel $ gcc `gnustep-config --objc-flags` -o main main.m -lobjc -lgnustep-base /tmp/ccIQKhfH.o:(.data.rel+0x0): undefined reference to `__objc_class_name_Fraction' I created a GNUmakefile Makefile: include ${GNUSTEP_MAKEFILES}/common.make TOOL_NAME = main main_OBJC_FILES = main.m include ${GNUSTEP_MAKEFILES}/tool.make ... and ran: $ source /usr/share/GNUstep/Makefiles/GNUstep.sh $ make Making all for tool main... Linking tool main ... ./obj/main.o:(.data.rel+0x0): undefined reference to `__objc_class_name_Fraction' So in both cases compiler gets stuck at undefined reference to `__objc_class_name_Fraction' Do you have and idea how to resolve this issue?

    Read the article

  • Vertex Buffers in opengl

    - by JB
    I'm making a small 3d graphics game/demo for personal learning. I know d3d9 and quite a bit about d3d11 but little about opengl at the moment so I'm intending to abstract out the actual rendering of the graphics so that my scene graph and everything "above" it needs to know little about how to actually draw the graphics. I intend to make it work with d3d9 then add d3d11 support and finally opengl support. Just as a learning exercise to learn about 3d graphics and abstraction. I don't know much about opengl at this point though, and don't want my abstract interface to expose anything that isn't simple to implement in opengl. Specifically I'm looking at vertex buffers. In d3d they are essentially an array of structures, but looking at the opengl interface the equivalent seems to be vertex arrays. However these seem to be organised rather differently where you need a separate array for vertices, one for normals, one for texture coordinates etc and set the with glVertexPointer, glTexCoordPointer etc. I was hoping to be able to implement a VertexBuffer interface much like the the directx one but it looks like in d3d you have an array of structures and in opengl you need a separate array for each element which makes finding a common abstraction quite hard to make efficient. Is there any way to use opengl in a similar way to directx? Or any suggestions on how to come up with a higher level abstraction that will work efficiently with both systems?

    Read the article

  • Is there a standard pattern for scanning a job table executing some actions?

    - by Howiecamp
    (I realize that my title is poor. If after reading the question you have an improvement in mind, please either edit it or tell me and I'll change it.) I have the relatively common scenario of a job table which has 1 row for some thing that needs to be done. For example, it could be a list of emails to be sent. The table looks something like this: ID Completed TimeCompleted anything else... ---- --------- ------------- ---------------- 1 No blabla 2 No blabla 3 Yes 01:04:22 ... I'm looking either for a standard practice/pattern (or code - C#/SQL Server preferred) for periodically "scanning" (I use the term "scanning" very loosely) this table, finding the not-completed items, doing the action and then marking them completed once done successfully. In addition to the basic process for accomplishing the above, I'm considering the following requirements: I'd like some means of "scaling linearly", e.g. running multiple "worker processes" simultaneously or threading or whatever. (Just a specific technical thought - I'm assuming that as a result of this requirement, I need some method of marking an item as "in progress" to avoid attempting the action multiple times.) Each item in the table should only be executed once. Some other thoughts: I'm not particularly concerned with the implementation being done in the database (e.g. in T-SQL or PL/SQL code) vs. some external program code (e.g. a standalone executable or some action triggered by a web page) which is executed against the database Whether the "doing the action" part is done synchronously or asynchronously is not something I'm considering as part of this question.

    Read the article

  • php automatically commented with apache

    - by clement
    We have installed apache 2.2, and activeperl to run bugzilla, all that on a Windows Server 2003. Here We want to install PHP on the server to install a wiki. I followed those steps: tutorial to install PHP and enable it from Apache. After all those steps, I restart couples of times, and When I try a simple phpinfo() on PHP, the whole PHP code is commented: < ! - - ?php phpinfo(); ? - - Now, the httpd.conf was already edited for the PERL and it can be those edits that make the mistake. Here is the whole httpd.conf file: ServerRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2" Listen 6969 LoadModule actions_module modules/mod_actions.so LoadModule alias_module modules/mod_alias.so LoadModule asis_module modules/mod_asis.so LoadModule auth_basic_module modules/mod_auth_basic.so LoadModule php5_module "c:/php/php5apache2_2.dll" LoadModule authn_default_module modules/mod_authn_default.so LoadModule authn_file_module modules/mod_authn_file.so LoadModule authz_default_module modules/mod_authz_default.so LoadModule authz_groupfile_module modules/mod_authz_groupfile.so LoadModule authz_host_module modules/mod_authz_host.so LoadModule authz_user_module modules/mod_authz_user.so LoadModule autoindex_module modules/mod_autoindex.so LoadModule cgi_module modules/mod_cgi.so LoadModule dir_module modules/mod_dir.so LoadModule env_module modules/mod_env.so LoadModule include_module modules/mod_include.so LoadModule isapi_module modules/mod_isapi.so LoadModule log_config_module modules/mod_log_config.so LoadModule mime_module modules/mod_mime.so LoadModule negotiation_module modules/mod_negotiation.so LoadModule setenvif_module modules/mod_setenvif.so User daemon Group daemon ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot C:/bugzilla-4.4.2/ Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Options Indexes FollowSymLinks ExecCGI AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all ScriptInterpreterSource Registry-Strict DirectoryIndex index.html index.html.var index.cgi index.php Order allow,deny Deny from all Satisfy All ErrorLog "logs/error.log" LogLevel warn LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" common <IfModule logio_module> LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\" %I %O" combinedio </IfModule> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/cgi-bin/" AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all DefaultType text/plain AddType application/x-compress .Z AddType application/x-gzip .gz .tgz AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AddType application/x-httpd-php .php SSLRandomSeed startup builtin SSLRandomSeed connect builtin PHPIniDir "c:/php"

    Read the article

  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

    Read the article

  • How to upload files to server using JSP/Servlet?

    - by Thang Pham
    How can I upload files to server using JSP/Servlet? I tried this: <form action="upload" method="post"> <input type="text" name="description" /> <input type="file" name="file" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> However, I only get the file name, not the file content. When I add enctype="multipart/form-data" to the <form>, then request.getParameter() returns null. During research I stumbled upon Apache Common FileUpload. I tried this: FileItemFactory factory = new DiskFileItemFactory(); ServletFileUpload upload = new ServletFileUpload(factory); List items = upload.parseRequest(request); // This line is where it died. Unfortunately, the servlet threw an exception without a clear message and cause. Here is the stacktrace: SEVERE: Servlet.service() for servlet UploadServlet threw exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Servlet execution threw an exception at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:313) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637)

    Read the article

  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

    Read the article

  • Does a CS PhD Help for Software Engineering Career?

    - by SiLent SoNG
    I would like to seek advice on whether or not to take a PhD offer from a good university. My only concern is the PhD will take at least 4 year's commitment. During the period I won't have good monetary income. I am also concerned whether the PhD will help my future career development. My career goal is software engineering only. Some of the PhD info: The PhD is CS related. The research area is Information Retrieval, Machine Learning, and Nature Language Processing. More specifically, the research topic is Deep Web search. Some of backgrounds: I worked in Oracle for 3 years in database development after obtained a CS degree from some good university. In last year I received an email telling an interesting project from a professor and thereafter I was lured into his research team. The team consists of 4 PhD students; those students have little or no industry experiences and their coding skills are really really bad. By saying bad I mean they do not know some common patterns and they do not know pitfalls of the programming languages as well as idioms for doing things right. I guess a at least 4 year commitment is worth of serious consideration. I am 27 at this moment. If I take the offer, that implies I will be 31+ upon graduation. Wah... becoming.. what to say, no longer young. Hence, here I am seeking advice on whether it is good or not to take the PhD offer, and whether a CS PhD is good for my future career growth as a software engineer? I do not intent to go for academia.

    Read the article

  • Django: How to dynamically add tag field to third party apps without touching app's source code

    - by Chris Lawlor
    Scenario: large project with many third party apps. Want to add tagging to those apps without having to modify the apps' source. My first thought was to first specify a list of models in settings.py (like ['appname.modelname',], and call django-tagging's register function on each of them. The register function adds a TagField and a custom manager to the specified model. The problem with that approach is that the function needs to run BEFORE the DB schema is generated. I tried running the register function directly in settings.py, but I need django.db.models.get_model to get the actual model reference from only a string, and I can't seem to import that from settings.py - no matter what I try I get an ImportError. The tagging.register function imports OK however. So I changed tactics and wrote a custom management command in an otherwise empty app. The problem there is that the only signal which hooks into syncdb is post_syncdb which is useless to me since it fires after the DB schema has been generated. The only other approach I can think of at the moment is to generate and run a 'south' like database schema migration. This seems more like a hack than a solution. This seems like it should be a pretty common need, but I haven't been able to find a clean solution. So my question is: Is it possible to dynamically add fields to a model BEFORE the schema is generated, but more specifically, is it possible to add tagging to a third party model without editing it's source. To clarify, I know it is possible to create and store Tags without having a TagField on the model, but there is a major flaw in that approach in that it is difficult to simultaneously create and tag a new model.

    Read the article

  • Flex Modules vs RSL

    - by nil
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused about when is better to use Flex Modules or RSL libriaries (in Flex 3.5). My goal is split my project in several unit projects, so I can test and work separately. Let's assume I have a Customer app and Vendor app. I also have a front-end panel with two buttons. Each button launches Customer app or Vendor app. These applications make different things. They share some .as functions and common components, too. I understand that if I make a main project (for user login and to show a first panel) and two modules (customer, vendor) I must have all that components in my Eclipse project, isn't it? Instead of doing modules, should I create SWC for Vendor and other for Customer app and call from main app by using RSL? So, which option is more suitable? What do you advise me? Which are the trade-offs of each option? On the other side, this flex application is integrated with Java through Blaze and ibatis for persistence managment, and hold by a web apache server. I considered also to create independent war files to keep this indpendence, but I thought this do not optimize flex code. I'm right? Thank you. Nil

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

    Read the article

  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

    Read the article

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

    Read the article

  • Need feedback on two member functions of a Table class in C++

    - by George
    int Table::addPlayer(Player player, int position) { deque<Player>::iterator it = playerList.begin()+position; deque<Player>::iterator itStart = playerList.begin()+postion; while(*it != "(empty seat)") { it++; if (it == playerList.end()) { it = playerList.begin(); } if (it == itStart) { cout << "Table full" << endl; return -1; } } //TODO overload Player assignment, << operator *it = player; cout << "Player " << player << " sits at position " << it - playerList.begin() << endl; return it - playerList.begin(); } } int Table::removePlayer(Player player) { deque<Player>::iterator it = playerList.begin(); //TODO Do I need to overload != in Player? while(*it != player) { it++; if (it == playerList.end()) { cout << "Player " << player << " not found" << endl; return -1; } } *it = "(empty seat)"; cout << "Player " << player << " stands up from position " << it - playerList.begin() << endl; return it - playerList.begin(); } Would like some feedback on these two member functions of a Table class for Texas Hold Em Poker simulation. Any information syntax, efficiency or even common practices would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

    - by jr
    I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

    Read the article

  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

    Read the article

  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

    Read the article

  • Getting rid of nested using(...) statements

    - by Ghostrider
    Sometimes I need to use several disposable objects within a function. Most common case is having StreamReader and StreamWriter but sometimes it's even more than this. Nested using statements quickly add up and look ugly. To remedy this I've created a small class that collects IDisposable objects and disposes of them when it itself is disposed. public class MultiDispose : HashSet<IDisposable>, IDisposable { public MultiDispose(params IDisposable[] objectsToDispose) { foreach (IDisposable d in objectsToDispose) { this.Add(d); } } public T Add<T>(T obj) where T : IDisposable { base.Add(obj); return obj; } public void DisposeObject(IDisposable obj) { obj.Dispose(); base.Remove(obj); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { foreach (IDisposable d in this) { d.Dispose(); } } #endregion } So my code now looks like this: using (MultiDispose md = new MultiDispose()) { StreamReader rdr = md.Add(new StreamReader(args[0])); StreamWriter wrt = md.Add(new StreamWriter(args[1])); WhateverElseNeedsDisposing w = md.Add(new WhateverElseNeedsDisposing()); // code } Is there anything wrong with this approach that can cause problems down the road? I left the Remove function inherited from the HashSet on purpose so that the class would be more flexible. Surely misusing this function can lead to objects not being disposed of properly, but then there many other ways to shoot yourself in the foot without this class.

    Read the article

  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303  | Next Page >