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• ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

  - by tster

  I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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• Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

  - by Filip Ekberg

  Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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• [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

  - by pbean

  I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

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• C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

  - by Eric

  When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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• Using callback functions for error handling in C

  - by Earlz

  Hi, I have been thinking about the difficulty incurred with C error handling.. like who actually does if(printf("hello world")==-1){exit(1);} But you break common standards by not doing such verbose, and usually useless coding. Well what if you had a wrapper around the libc? like so you could do something like.. //main... error_catchall(my_errors); printf("hello world"); //this will automatically call my_errors on an error of printf ignore=1; //this makes it so the function will return like normal and we can check error values ourself if(fopen.... //we want to know if the file opened or not and handle it ourself. } int my_errors(){ if(ignore==0){ _exit(1); //exit if we aren't handling this error by flagging ignore } return 0; //this is called when there is an error anywhere in the libc } ... I am considering making such a wrapper as I am synthesizing my own BSD licensed libc(so I already have to touch the untouchable..), but I would like to know what people think about it.. would this actually work in real life and be more useful than returning -1?

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• C#, Can I check on a lock without trying to acquire it?

  - by Biff MaGriff

  Hello, I have a lock in my c# web app that prevents users from running the update script once it has started. I was thinking I would put a notification in my master page to let the user know that the data isn't all there yet. Currently I do my locking like so. protected void butRefreshData_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(UpdateDatabase)); t.Start(this); //sleep for a bit to ensure that javascript has a chance to get rendered Thread.Sleep(100); } public static void UpdateDatabase(object con) { if (Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) { Updater.RepopulateDatabase(); Monitor.Exit(myLock); } else { Common.RegisterStartupScript(con, AlreadyLockedJavaScript); } } And I do not want to do if(Monitor.TryEnter(myLock)) Monitor.Exit(myLock); else //show processing labal As I imagine there is a slight possibility that it might display the notification when it isn't actually running. Is there an alternative I can use? Edit: Hi Everyone, thanks a lot for your suggestions! Unfortunately I couldn't quite get them to work... However I combined the ideas on 2 answers and came up with my own solution.

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• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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• Visual Studio and .NET programming

  - by Vit

  Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

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• How I May Have Taken A Wrong Path in Programming

  - by Ygam

  I am in a major stump right now. I am a BSIT graduate, but I only started actual programming less than a year ago. I observed that I have the following attitude in programming: I tend to be more of a purist, scorning unelegant approaches to solving problems using code I tend to look at anything in a large scale, planning everything before I start coding, either in simple flowcharts or complex UML charts I have a really strong impulse on refactoring my code, even if I miss deadlines or prolong development times I am obsessed with good directory structures, file naming conventions, class, method, and variable naming conventions I tend to always want to study something new, even, as I said, at the cost of missing deadlines I tend to see software development as something to engineer, to architect; that is, seeing how things relate to each other and how blocks of code can interact (I am a huge fan of loose coupling) i.e the OOP thinking I tend to combine OOP and procedural coding whenever I see fit I want my code to execute fast (thus the elegant approaches and refactoring) This bothers me because I see my colleagues doing much better the other way around (aside from the fact that they started programming since our first year in college). By the other way around I mean, they fire up coding, gets the job done much faster because they don't have to really look at how clean their codes are or how elegant their algorithms are, they don't bother with OOP however big their projects are, they mostly use web APIs, piece them together and voila! Working code! CLients are happy, they get paid fast, at the expense of a really unmaintainable or hard-to-read code that lacks structure and conventions, or slow executions of certain actions (which the common reasoning against would be that internet connections are much faster these days, hardware is more powerful). The excuse I often receive is clients don't care about how you write the code, but they do care about how long you deliver it. If it works then all is good. Now, did my "purist" approach to programming may have been the wrong way to start programming? Should I just dump these purist concepts and just code the hell up because I have seen it: clients don't really care how beautifully coded it is?

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• Schema for element with Attributes and Child nodes

  - by Matthew

  I am trying to write xsd type schema for an element that has a custom type to include addition attributes to extend a base type. I am running into trouble getting the syntax right. <xs:element name="graphs"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="graph" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="graphType"> <!-- child elements --> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:complexType name="graphType"> <xs:simpleContent> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> <xs:attribute name="title" type="xs:string"/> <xs:attribute name="type" type="xs:string"/> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> I thought this would be something very common, but having read many tuts and forums, I cant seem to find an answer that works for me.

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• Is there a term for this concept, and does it exist in a static-typed language?

  - by Strilanc

  Recently I started noticing a repetition in some of my code. Of course, once you notice a repetition, it becomes grating. Which is why I'm asking this question. The idea is this: sometimes you write different versions of the same class: a raw version, a locked version, a read-only facade version, etc. These are common things to do to a class, but the translations are highly mechanical. Surround all the methods with lock acquires/releases, etc. In a dynamic language, you could write a function which did this to an instance of a class (eg. iterate over all the functions, replacing them with a version which acquires/releases a lock.). I think a good term for what I mean is 'reflected class'. You create a transformation which takes a class, and returns a modified-in-a-desired-way class. Synchronization is the easiest case, but there are others: make a class immutable [wrap methods so they clone, mutate the clone, and include it in the result], make a class readonly [assuming you can identify mutating methods], make a class appear to work with type A instead of type B, etc. The important part is that, in theory, these transformations make sense at compile-time. Even though an ActorModel<T> has methods which change depending on T, they depend on T in a specific way knowable at compile-time (ActorModel<T> methods would return a future of the original result type). I'm just wondering if this has been implemented in a language, and what it's called.

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• Will my LinqToSql execution be deffered if i filter with IEnumerable<T> instead of IQueryable<T>?

  - by cottsak

  I have been using these common EntityObjectFilters as a "pipes and filters" way to query from a collection a particular item with an ID: public static class EntityObjectFilters { public static T WithID<T>(this IQueryable<T> qry, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return qry.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } public static T WithID<T>(this IList<T> list, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return list.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } } ..but i wondered to myself: "can i make this simpler by just creating an extension for all IEnumerable<T> types"? So i came up with this: public static class EntityObjectFilters { public static T WithID<T>(this IEnumerable<T> qry, int ID) where T : IEntityObject { return qry.SingleOrDefault<T>(item => item.ID == ID); } } Now while this appears to yield the same result, i want to know that when applied to IQueryable<T>s will the expression tree be passed to LinqToSql for evaluating as SQL code or will my qry be evaluated in it's entirety first, then iterated with Funcs? I'm suspecting that (as per Richard's answer) the latter will be true which is obviously what i don't want. I want the same result, but the added benefit of the delayed SQL execution for IQueryable<T>s. Can someone confirm for me what will actually happen and provide simple explanation as to how it would work?

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• How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

  - by AbeP

  Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

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• What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

  - by ZoFreX

  I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

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• Warning: cast increases required alignment

  - by dash-tom-bang

  I'm recently working on this platform for which a legacy codebase issues a large number of "cast increases required alignment to N" warnings, where N is the size of the target of the cast. struct Message { int32_t id; int32_t type; int8_t data[16]; }; int32_t GetMessageInt(const Message& m) { return *reinterpret_cast<int32_t*>(&data[0]); } Hopefully it's obvious that a "real" implementation would be a bit more complex, but the basic point is that I've got data coming from somewhere, I know that it's aligned (because I need the id and type to be aligned), and yet I get the message that the cast is increasing the alignment, in the example case, to 4. Now I know that I can suppress the warning with an argument to the compiler, and I know that I can cast the bit inside the parentheses to void* first, but I don't really want to go through every bit of code that needs this sort of manipulation (there's a lot because we load a lot of data off of disk, and that data comes in as char buffers so that we can easily pointer-advance), but can anyone give me any other thoughts on this problem? I mean, to me it seems like such an important and common option that you wouldn't want to warn, and if there is actually the possibility of doing it wrong then suppressing the warning isn't going to help. Finally, can't the compiler know as I do how the object in question is actually aligned in the structure, so it should be able to not worry about the alignment on that particular object unless it got bumped a byte or two?

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• AJAX AutoCompletExtender doesn't allow to move ahead of first item with arrow-key

  - by dharmbhav

  Hi, I am using an AJAX AutoCompleteExtender to display a list of suburbs-postcodes after the user presses 3 keys in the given textbox. The problem is that on the page, I can't move my selection below the first item (with down arrow key/mouse). However with mouse if I click on any item, it gets selected. <asp:TextBox ID="txtPostalSuburb" runat="server" CssClass="select_insert_menu_text1" MaxLength="40" TabIndex="9"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtPostalSuburb_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServicePath="~/Web/Common/ListingService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtPostalSuburb" UseContextKey="False" ServiceMethod="GetSuburbList" MinimumPrefixLength="3" CompletionListCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list" OnClientItemSelected="AutoCompleteExtender_ItemSelected" CompletionListItemCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list-item" > </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> CSS: .contact-details-suggestion-list { background-color: window; color: windowtext; cursor: default; list-style-image: none; list-style-position: outside; list-style-type: none; padding:0px; text-align: left; border: solid 1px #005883; margin-top: 0px; font-size: 10px; } .contact-details-suggestion-list-item { border-bottom: dotted 1px black; } Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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• DefaultTableCellRenderer getTableCellRendererComponent never gets called

  - by Dean Schulze

  I need to render a java.util.Date in a JTable. I've implemented a custom renderer that extends DefaultTableCellRenderer (below). I've set it as the renderer for the column, but the method getTableCellRendererComponent() never gets called. This is a pretty common problem, but none of the solutions I've seen work. public class DateCellRenderer extends DefaultTableCellRenderer { String sdfStr = "yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.SSS"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat(sdfStr); public Component getTableCellRendererComponent(JTable table, Object value, boolean isSelected, boolean hasFocus, int row, int column) { super.getTableCellRendererComponent(table, value, isSelected, hasFocus, row, column); if (value instanceof Date) { this.setText(sdf.format((Date) value)); } else logger.info("class: " + value.getClass().getCanonicalName()); return this; } } I've installed the custom renderer (and verified that it has been installed) like this: DateCellRenderer dcr = new DateCellRenderer(); table.getColumnModel().getColumn(2).setCellRenderer(dcr); I've also tried table.setDefaultRenderer( java.util.Date.class, dcr ); Any idea why the renderer gets installed, but never called?

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• C++, function pointer to the template function pointer

  - by Ian

  I am having a pointer to the common static method class MyClass { private: static double ( *pfunction ) ( const Object *, const Object *); ... }; pointing to the static method class SomeClass { public: static double getA ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2); ... }; Initialization: double ( *MyClass::pfunction ) ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2 ) = &SomeClass::getA; I would like to convert this pointer to the static template function pointer: template <class T> static T ( *pfunction ) ( const Object <T> *, const Object <T> *); //Compile error where: class SomeClass { public: template <class T> static double getA ( const Object <T> *o1, const Object <T> *o2); ... }; But there is some error... Thanks for your help...

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• What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

  - by Chris Cooper

  I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

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• "SpeechHypothesized event not raised"

  - by Jankhana

  Hi all, I need to detect the user voice when they pick-up the reciever on the other end. Because Modems usually start playing files (playback terminal) when the first ring goes there. So I planned to use speech recognition when they say "hello", it can start playing the file until wait for playing file. Or even any noise interference it can start speak. I accomplished this with few settings. I found few common words that my engine detects when we speak and the words that comes when it's ringing. It works fine as a stand alone application but if I try to integrate this with my application it just does not raises "SpeechHypothesized" event. I cant understand why this happens. If i see using a break point, the engine is having the delegate assign and invocation property also is initialized properly but than to is doesn't call the event. For calling I'm using C4F tapi manager and for speech recognition i'm using System.Speech library of .Net 3.5. The code for events is as follows : engine.SpeechDetected += new EventHandler<SpeechDetectedEventArgs>(engine_SpeechDetected); engine.SpeechRecognized += new EventHandler<SpeechRecognizedEventArgs>(engine_SpeechRecognized); engine.SpeechHypothesized+=new EventHandler<SpeechHypothesizedEventArgs> (engine_SpeechHypothesized); engine.SpeechRecognitionRejected += new EventHandler<SpeechRecognitionRejectedEventArgs>(engine_SpeechRecognitionRejected); All event's are raised except the speechhypothesized event. Any idea why this happens ????

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• Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

  - by Major Major

  The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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• Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

  - by Yishai

  I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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• What is the corrrect way to increment a field making up part of a composit key

  - by Tr1stan

  I have a bunch of tables whose primary key is made up of the foreign keys of other tables (Composite key). Therefore for example the attributes (as a very cut down version) might look like this: A[aPK, SomeFields] 1:M B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields] 1:M C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields] as data this could look like: A[aPK, SomeFields]: 1, Foo 2, Bar B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, FooData1 2, 1, FooData2 1, 2, BarData1 2, 2, BarData2 C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, 1, FooData1More 2, 1, 1, FooData1More 1, 2, 1, FooData2More 2, 2, 1, FooData2More 1, 1, 2, BarData1More 2, 1, 2, BarData1More 1, 2, 2, BarData2More 2, 2, 2, BarData2More I've got this running in a MSSQL DBMS and I'm looking for the best way to increment the left most column, in each table when a new tuple is added to it. I can't use the Auto Increment Identity Specification option as that has no idea that it is part of a composite key. I also don't want to use any aggregate function such as: MAX(field)+1 as this will have adverse affects with multiple users inputting data, rolling back etc. There might however be a nice trigger based option here, but I'm not sure. This must be a common issue so I'm hoping that someone has a lovely solution. As a side which may or may not affect the answer, I'm using Entity Framework 1.0 as my ORM, within a c# MVC application.

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• return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

  - by Danny Chen

  Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

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• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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