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  • Compile and optimize for different target architectures

    - by Peter Smit
    Summary: I want to take advantage of compiler optimizations and processor instruction sets, but still have a portable application (running on different processors). Normally I could indeed compile 5 times and let the user choose the right one to run. My question is: how can I can automate this, so that the processor is detected at runtime and the right executable is executed without the user having to chose it? I have an application with a lot of low level math calculations. These calculations will typically run for a long time. I would like to take advantage of as much optimization as possible, preferably also of (not always supported) instruction sets. On the other hand I would like my application to be portable and easy to use (so I would not like to compile 5 different versions and let the user choose). Is there a possibility to compile 5 different versions of my code and run dynamically the most optimized version that's possible at execution time? With 5 different versions I mean with different instruction sets and different optimizations for processors. I don't care about the size of the application. At this moment I'm using gcc on Linux (my code is in C++), but I'm also interested in this for the Intel compiler and for the MinGW compiler for compilation to Windows. The executable doesn't have to be able to run on different OS'es, but ideally there would be something possible with automatically selecting 32 bit and 64 bit as well. Edit: Please give clear pointers how to do it, preferably with small code examples or links to explanations. From my point of view I need a super generic solution, which is applicable on any random C++ project I have later. Edit I assigned the bounty to ShuggyCoUk, he had a great number of pointers to look out for. I would have liked to split it between multiple answers but that is not possible. I'm not having this implemented yet, so the question is still 'open'! Please, still add and/or improve answers, even though there is no bounty to be given anymore. Thanks everybody!

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  • How do I find a source code position from an address given by a crash in Window CE

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a Windows mobile 4.0 application, written using EVC++ 4.0 SP4 with MFC, that is exhibiting a random occasional crash in the field. e.g. Exception ox800000002 at 00112584. It does not happen under various emulators and simulators, hence is very difficult to trace using a debugger. The crash throws up and address and exception type. Given that I have the PDB is there any way to track this address to the source. I can't recompile using VC++ 8 as it doesn't support the mobile 4 SDK. My guess is that without a stack trace I'm not going to have much joy, as the chances are that the exception may not be in my source. Worth a try all the same. Edit As suggested, I have looked at the address in the context of the .MAP file for the program. This reveals the following Address Publics by Value Rva+Base Lib:Object 0001:00000000 ?GetUnduValue@@YANMM@Z 00011000 f 7Par.obj ' ' ' 0001:001124b8 ?OnLButtonUp@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@AAVCPoint@@AAI@Z 001234b8 f gxseldrg.obj 0001:001126d8 ?OnSelDragStart@CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp@@UAAHPAVCGXGridCore@@KK@Z 001236d8 f gxseldrg.obj Which suggests the error occured during CGXGridUserDragSelectRangeImp::OnLButtonUp(), which seems a bit odd as I don't think there was a mouse / keyboard / screen button pressed at the time. Could be the stack got fragged before the crash got reported, and I'm wasting my time. I'll recompile with assembler output to try to isolate it to a given line, but don't hold out much hope :( Does the fact that the map file reports segmented addresses e.g. 0001:xxxxxxxxx and the crash report unsegmented addresses mean I have to carry out some computation to get the map address from the crash address?

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  • Lucene and Special Characters

    - by Brandon
    I am using Lucene.Net 2.0 to index some fields from a database table. One of the fields is a 'Name' field which allows special characters. When I perform a search, it does not find my document that contains a term with special characters. I index my field as such: Directory DALDirectory = FSDirectory.GetDirectory(@"C:\Indexes\Name", false); Analyzer analyzer = new StandardAnalyzer(); IndexWriter indexWriter = new IndexWriter(DALDirectory, analyzer, true, IndexWriter.MaxFieldLength.UNLIMITED); Document doc = new Document(); doc.Add(new Field("Name", "Test (Test)", Field.Store.YES, Field.Index.TOKENIZED)); indexWriter.AddDocument(doc); indexWriter.Optimize(); indexWriter.Close(); And I search doing the following: value = value.Trim().ToLower(); value = QueryParser.Escape(value); Query searchQuery = new TermQuery(new Term(field, value)); Searcher searcher = new IndexSearcher(DALDirectory); TopDocCollector collector = new TopDocCollector(searcher.MaxDoc()); searcher.Search(searchQuery, collector); ScoreDoc[] hits = collector.TopDocs().scoreDocs; If I perform a search for field as 'Name' and value as 'Test', it finds the document. If I perform the same search as 'Name' and value as 'Test (Test)', then it does not find the document. Even more strange, if I remove the QueryParser.Escape line do a search for a GUID (which, of course, contains hyphens) it finds documents where the GUID value matches, but performing the same search with the value as 'Test (Test)' still yields no results. I am unsure what I am doing wrong. I am using the QueryParser.Escape method to escape the special characters and am storing the field and searching by the Lucene.Net's examples. Any thoughts?

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  • What is the right approach to checksumming UDP packets

    - by mr.b
    I'm building UDP server application in C#. I've come across a packet checksum problem. As you probably know, each packet should carry some simple way of telling receiver if packet data is intact. Now, UDP already has 2-byte checksum as part of header, which is optional, at least in IPv4 world. Alternative method is to have custom checksum as part of data section in each packet, and to verify it on receiver. My question boils down to: is it better to rely on (optional) checksum in UDP packet header, or to make a custom checksum implementation as part of packet data section? Perhaps the right answer depends on circumstances (as usual), so one circumstance here is that, even though code is written and developed in .NET on Windows, it might have to run under platform-independent Mono.NET, so eventual solution should be compatible with other platforms. I believe that custom checksum algorithm would be easily portable, but I'm not so sure about the first one. Any thoughts? Also, shouts about packet checksumming in general are welcome.

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  • Java Performance measurement

    - by portoalet
    Hi, I am doing some Java performance comparison between my classes, and wondering if there is some sort of Java Performance Framework to make writing performance measurement code easier? I.e, what I am doing now is trying to measure what effect does it have having a method as "synchronized" as in PseudoRandomUsingSynch.nextInt() compared to using an AtomicInteger as my "synchronizer". So I am trying to measure how long it takes to generate random integers using 3 threads accessing a synchronized method looping for say 10000 times. I am sure there is a much better way doing this. Can you please enlighten me? :) public static void main( String [] args ) throws InterruptedException, ExecutionException { PseudoRandomUsingSynch rand1 = new PseudoRandomUsingSynch((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); int n = 3; ExecutorService execService = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(n); long timeBefore = System.currentTimeMillis(); for(int idx=0; idx<100000; ++idx) { Future<Integer> future = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future1 = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future2 = execService.submit(rand1); int random1 = future.get(); int random2 = future1.get(); int random3 = future2.get(); } long timeAfter = System.currentTimeMillis(); long elapsed = timeAfter - timeBefore; out.println("elapsed:" + elapsed); } the class public class PseudoRandomUsingSynch implements Callable<Integer> { private int seed; public PseudoRandomUsingSynch(int s) { seed = s; } public synchronized int nextInt(int n) { byte [] s = DonsUtil.intToByteArray(seed); SecureRandom secureRandom = new SecureRandom(s); return ( secureRandom.nextInt() % n ); } @Override public Integer call() throws Exception { return nextInt((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); } } Regards

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  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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  • Horizontally and Vertically Center Modal Div IE Issue

    - by aherrick
    I'm trying to horizontally and vertically center a modal window inside a div. I want it to be cross browser compatible. You can see from the picture below that when I resize IE8 then click, "show modal" button it displays not exactly horizontally centered. This does not seem to be an issue with Chrome. Any thoughts? How would you guys accomplish this? <html> <head> <title>test</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#modal').click(function() { // overlay $('<div id="overlay" />').css({ position: 'absolute', top: 0, left: 0, width: '100%', height: '100%', backgroundColor: 'black', opacity: 0 }).appendTo('body'); $('<div id="datamodal" />').css({ backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', border: '10px solid #999', height: '200px', width: '600px', position: 'absolute', top: '50%', left: '50%', marginTop: '-120px', marginLeft: '-320px', color: '#111111', fontWeight: 'bold', padding: '10px', display: 'none' }).append('<input type="text" />').appendTo('#overlay'); $('#overlay').fadeTo(300, 0.7); $('#datamodal').fadeIn(300); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input id="modal" type="button" value="show modal" /> </body> </html>

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  • What issues to consider when rolling your own data-backend for Silverlight / AJAX on non-ASP.NET ser

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have read-only Silverlight and AJAX apps which read static text and XML files from a PHP/Apache server, which works very nicely with features such as asynchronous loading, lazy-loading only what I need for each page, loading in the background, developed a little query language to get a PHP script to create custom XML files etc. it's pragmatic read-only REST, and all works fast and fine for read-only sites. Now I want to also add the ability to write data from these apps to a database on the same PHP/Apache server. For those of you who have built similar data-access layers, what do I need to consider while building this, especially regarding security so that not just any client can write and alter my database, e.g.: check HTTP_USER_AGENT for security check REMOTE_ADDR for security require a special code for security, perhaps a list of TAN codes (such as banks use for online transactions) each which can only be used once, both the client and server have these I wonder if there is some kind of standard REST query I should lean on for e.g. building SQL-like statements in the URL parameters, e.g. http://www.thedatalayersite.com/query?insertinto=customers&... Any thoughts, notes from experience, ideas, gotchas, especially ideas on tightening down security in this endeavor would be helpful.

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  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validator

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • How To Generate Parameter Set for the Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement Algorithm in Android

    - by sebby_zml
    Hello everyone, I am working on mobile/server security related project. I am now stuck in generating a Diffie-Hellman key agreement part. It works fine in server side program but it is not working in mobile side. Thus, I assume that it is not compactible with Android. I used the following class to get the parameters. It returns a comma-separated string of 3 values. The first number is the prime modulus P. The second number is the base generator G. The third number is bit size of the random exponent L. My question is is there anything wrong with the code or it is not compactible for android?What kind of changes should I do? Your suggestion and guidance would be very much help for me. Thanks a lot in advance. public static String genDhParams() { try { // Create the parameter generator for a 1024-bit DH key pair AlgorithmParameterGenerator paramGen = AlgorithmParameterGenerator.getInstance("DH"); paramGen.init(1024); // Generate the parameters AlgorithmParameters params = paramGen.generateParameters(); DHParameterSpec dhSpec = (DHParameterSpec)params.getParameterSpec(DHParameterSpec.class); // Return the three values in a string return ""+dhSpec.getP()+","+dhSpec.getG()+","+dhSpec.getL(); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { } catch (InvalidParameterSpecException e) { } return null; } Regards, Sebby

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  • file upload working in one and not the other help

    - by rod
    Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Chrome/Firefox (live demo included)?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • Using FBML in a ruby sinatra app

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm building an application in ruby using the sinatra framework and am having trouble with rendering some fbml elements. I'm currently trying to render an fb:multi-friend-selector so the user can select which friends they want to invite. However, when I write the following in my code: <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="/inviteFriends" method="POST" invite="true" type="MY APP" content="Invite Friends" > <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends to use YOUR APP NAME."> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> Nothing renders with the text above. I've included the regular facebook xsds for the taglibs in my html tag and have tested fbml on the page using the following code: <fb:name useyou="false" uid="USER_ID" linked="false"/> This code works correctly and displays the user's name. I've tried a simple example like that on http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Fb:random but again nothing is rendered in the browser. Do I need to include some special javascript or anything? I would greatly appreciate some help with this. Thanks in advance -gearoid.

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  • Batch script crashing

    - by TamirGali
    My Batch script keeps crashing with the note: "set was unexpected at this time" which I could only see via video recording and checking frame by frame. here is the script: @echo off color 6f set min=0 set max=25 goto REDIR :REDIR set var=0 goto TOP :TOP cls set /a var=%var%+1 set /a rand%var%=%random% %% (max - min + 1)+ min if %rand2%==%rand1% set var=0&goto TOP if %rand3%==%rand2% set var=1&goto TOP if %rand4%==%rand3% set var=2&goto TOP if %rand5%==%rand4% set var=3&oto TOP if %rand6%==%rand5% set var=4&goto TOP if %rand7%==%rand6% set var=5&goto TOP if %rand8%==%rand7% set var=6&goto TOP if %rand9%==%rand8% set var=7&goto TOP if %rand10%==%rand9% set var=8&goto TOP if %rand11%==%rand10% set var=9&goto TOP if %rand12%==%rand11% set var=10&goto TOP if %rand13%==%rand12% set var=11&goto TOP if %rand14%==%rand13% set var=12&goto TOP if %rand15%==%rand14% set var=13&goto TOP if %rand16%==%rand15% set var=14&goto TOP if %rand17%==%rand16% set var=15&goto TOP if %rand18%==%rand17% set var=16&goto TOP if %rand19%==%rand18% set var=17&goto TOP if %rand20%==%rand19% set var=18&goto TOP if %rand21%==%rand20% set var=19&goto TOP if %rand22%==%rand21% set var=20&goto TOP if %rand23%==%rand22% set var=21&goto TOP if %rand24%==%rand23% set var=22&goto TOP if %rand25%==%rand24% set var=23&goto TOP if %rand26%==%rand25% set var=24&goto TOP if %var%==26 goto SHOW goto TOP :SHOW cls echo A=%rand1% echo B=%rand2% echo C=%rand3% echo D=%rand4% echo E=%rand5% echo F=%rand6% echo G=%rand7% echo H=%rand8% echo I=%rand9% echo J=%rand10% echo K=%rand11% echo L=%rand12% echo M=%rand13% echo N=%rand14% echo O=%rand15% echo P=%rand16% echo Q=%rand17% echo R=%rand18% echo S=%rand19% echo T=%rand20% echo U=%rand21% echo V=%rand22% echo W=%rand23% echo X=%rand24% echo Y=%rand25% echo Z=%rand26% pause goto REDIR

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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  • ASP.NET RadioButton messing with the name (groupname)

    - by Hojou
    I got a templated control (a repeater) listing some text and other markup. Each item has a radiobutton associated with it, making it possible for the user to select ONE of the items created by the repeater. The repeater writes the radiobutton setting its id and name generated with the default asp.net naming convention making each radiobutton a full 'group'. This means all radiobuttons are independant on each other, which again unfortunately means i can select all radiobuttons at the same time. The radiobutton has the clever attribute 'groupname' used to set a common name so they get grouped together and thus should be dependant (so i can only select one at a time). The problem is - this doesn't work - the repeater makes sure the id and thus the name (which controls the grouping) are different. Since i use a repeater (could have been a listview or any other templated databound control) i can't use the RadioButtonList. So where does that leave me? I know i've had this problem before and solved it. I know almost every asp.net programmer must have had it too, so why can't i google and find a solid solution to the problem? I came across solutions to enforce the grouping by javascript (ugly!) or even to handle the radiobuttons as non-server controls, forcing me to do a Request.Form[name] to read the status. I also tried experimenting with overriding the name attribute on the PreRender event - unfortunately the owning page and masterpage again overrides this name to reflect the full id/name so i end up with the same wrong result. If you have no better solution than i posted, you are still very welcome to post your thoughts - atleast i'll know that my friend 'jack' is right about how messed up 'asp.net' is sometimes ;)

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  • Where and how to start on C# and .Net Framework ?

    - by Rachel
    Currently, I have been working as an PHP developer for approximately 1 year now and I want learn about C# and .Net Framework, I do not have any experience with .Net Framework and C# and also there is not firm basis as to why I am going for C# and .Net Framework vs Java or any other programming languages, this decision is mere on career point of view and job opportunities. So my question is about: Is my decision wise to go for C# and .Net Framework route after working for sometime as an PHP Developer ? What are the good resources which I can refer and learn from to get knowledge on C# and .NET Framework ? How should I go about learning on C# and .NET Framework ? What all technologies should I be learning OR have experience with to be considered as an C#/.Net Developer, I am mentioning some technologies, please add or suggest one, if am missing out any ? Technologies C#-THE LANGUAGE GUI APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT WINDOWS CONTROL LIBRARY DELEGATES DATA ACCESS WITH ADO.NET MULTI THREADING ASSEMBLIES WINDOWS SERVICES VB INTRODUCTION TO VISUAL STUDIO .NET WINDOWS CONTROL LIBRARY DATA ACCESS WITH ADO.NET ASP.NET WEB TECHNOLOGIES CONTROLS VALIDATION CONTROL STATE MANAGEMENT CACHING ASP.NET CONFIGURATION ADO.NET ASP.NET TRACING & SECURITY IN ASP.NET XMLPROGRAMMING WEB SERVICES CRYSTAL REPORTS SSRS (SQL Server Reporting Services) MS-Reports LINQ: NET Language-Integrated Query NET Language-Integrated Query LINQ to SQL: SQL Integration WCF: Windows Communication Foundation What Is Windows Communication Foundation? Fundamental Windows Communication Foundation Concepts Windows Communication Foundation Architecture WPF: Windows Presentation Foundation Getting Started (WPF) Application Development WPF Fundamentals What are your thoughts, suggestions on this and from Job and Market Perspective, what areas of C#/.Net Development should I put my focus on ? I know this is very subjective and long question but advice would be highly appeciated. Thanks.

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  • How to get user input before saving a file in Sublime Text

    - by EddieJessup
    I'm making a plugin in Sublime Text that prompts the user for a password to encrypt a file before it's saved. There's a hook in the API that's executed before a save is executed, so my naïve implementation is: class TranscryptEventListener(sublime_plugin.EventListener): def on_pre_save(self, view): # If document is set to encode on save if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE'): self.view = view # Prompt user for password message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) The problem with this is, by the time the input panel appears for the user to enter their password, the document has already been saved (despite the trigger being 'on_pre_save'). Then once the user hits enter, the document is encrypted fine, but the situation is that there's a saved plaintext file, and a modified buffer filled with the encrypted text. So I need to make Sublime Text wait until the user's input the password before carrying out the save. Is there a way to do this? At the moment I'm just manually re-saving once the encryption has been done: def on_pre_save(self, view, encode=False): if view.settings().get('ON_SAVE') and not view.settings().get('ENCODED'): self.view = view message = "Create a Password:" view.window().show_input_panel(message, "", self.on_done, None, None) def on_done(self, password): self.view.run_command("encode", {password": password}) self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', True) self.view.run_command('save') self.view.settings().set('ENCODED', False) but this is messy and if the user cancels the encryption then the plaintext file gets saved, which isn't ideal. Any thoughts? Edit: I think I could do it cleanly by overriding the default save command. I hoped to do this by using the on_text_command or on_window_command triggers, but it seems that the save command doesn't trigger either of these (maybe it's an application command? But there's no on_application_command). Is there just no way to override the save function?

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  • Data Mappers, Models and Images

    - by James
    Hi, I've seen and read plenty of blog posts and forum topics talking about and giving examples of Data Mapper / Model implementations in PHP, but I've not seen any that also deal with saving files/images. I'm currently working on a Zend Framework based project and I'm doing some image manipulation in the model (which is being passed a file path), and then I'm leaving it to the mapper to save that file to the appropriate location - is this common practise? But then, how do you deal with creating say 3 different size images from the one passed in? At the moment I have a "setImage($path_to_tmp_name)" which checks the image type, resizes and then saves back to the original filename. A call to "getImagePath()" then returns the current file path which the data mapper can use and then change with a call to "setImagePath($path)" once it's saved it to the appropriate location, say "/content/my_images". Does this sound practical to you? Also, how would you deal with getting the URL to that image? Do you see that as being something that the model should be providing? It seems to me like that model should worry about where the images are being stored or ultimately how they're accessed through a browser and so I'm inclined to put that in the ini file and just pass the URL prefix to the view through the controller. Does that sound reasonable? I'm using GD for image manipulation - not that that's of any relevance. UPDATE: I've been wondering if the image resizing should be done in the model at all. The model could require that it's provided a "main" image and a "thumb" image, both of certain dimensions. I've thought about creating a "getImageSpecs()" function in the model that would return something that defines the required sizes, then a separate image manipulation class could carry out the resizing and (perhaps in the controller?) and just pass the final paths in to the model using something like "setImagePaths($images)". Any thoughts much appreciated :) James.

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  • Finding a picture in a picture with java?

    - by tarrasch
    what i want to to is analyse input from screen in form of pictures. I want to be able to identify a part of an image in a bigger image and get its coordinates within the bigger picture. Example: would have to be located in And the result would be the upper right corner of the picture in the big picture and the lower left of the part in the big picture. As you can see, the white part of the picture is irrelevant, what i basically need is just the green frame. Is there a library that can do something like this for me? Runtime is not really an issue. What i want to do with this is just generating a few random pixel coordinates and recognize the color in the big picture at that position, to recognize the green box fast later. And how would it decrease performance, if the white box in the middle is transparent? The question has been asked several times on SO as it seems without a single answer. I found i found a solution at http://werner.yellowcouch.org/Papers/subimg/index.html . Unfortunately its in C++ and i do not understand a thing. Would be nice to have a Java implementation on SO.

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  • How do I process the configure file when cross-compiling with mingw?

    - by vy32
    I have a small open source program that builds with an autoconf configure script. I ran configure I tried to compile with: make CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" That didn't work because the configure script found include files that were not available to the mingw system. So then I tried: ./configure CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" But that didn't work; the configure script gives me this error: ./configure: line 5209: syntax error near unexpected token `newline' ./configure: line 5209: ` *_cv_*' Because of this code: # The following way of writing the cache mishandles newlines in values, # but we know of no workaround that is simple, portable, and efficient. # So, we kill variables containing newlines. # Ultrix sh set writes to stderr and can't be redirected directly, # and sets the high bit in the cache file unless we assign to the vars. ( for ac_var in `(set) 2>&1 | sed -n 's/^\(a-zA-Z_a-zA-Z0-9_*\)=.*/\1/p'`; do eval ac_val=\$$ac_var case $ac_val in #( *${as_nl}*) case $ac_var in #( *_cv_* fi Which is generated then the AC_OUTPUT is called. Any thoughts? Is there a correct way to do this?

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  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

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  • System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization Namespace Fine in One Class but Not in Another

    - by jxpx777
    Hi. I'm getting this error The type or namespace name 'DataVisualization' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Here is my using section of the class: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Borders3D; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartTypes; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Data; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Formulas; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Utilities; namespace myNamespace { public class myClass { // Usual class stuff } } The thing is that I am using the same DataVisualization includes in another class. The only thing that I can think that is different is that the classes that are giving this missing namespace error are Solution Items rather than specific to a project. The projects reference them by link. Anyone have thoughts on what the problem is? I've installed the chart component, .Net 3.5 SP1, and the Chart Add-in for Visual Studio 2008. UPDATE: I moved the items from Solution Items to be regular members of my project and I'm still seeing the same behavior. UPDATE 2: Removing the items from the Solution Items and placing them under my project worked. Another project was still referencing the files which is why I didn't think it worked previously. I'm still curious, though, why I couldn't use the namespace when the classes were Solution Items but moving them underneath a project (with no modifications, mind you) instantly made them recognizable. :\

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  • Custom types as key for a map - C++

    - by Appu
    I am trying to assign a custom type as a key for std::map. Here is the type which I am using as key. struct Foo { Foo(std::string s) : foo_value(s){} bool operator<(const Foo& foo1) { return foo_value < foo1.foo_value; } bool operator>(const Foo& foo1) { return foo_value > foo1.foo_value; } std::string foo_value; }; When used with std::map, I am getting the following error. error C2678: binary '<' : no operator found which takes a left-hand operand of type 'const Foo' (or there is no acceptable conversion) c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 8\vc\include\functional 143 If I change the struct like the below, everything worked. struct Foo { Foo(std::string s) : foo_value(s) {} friend bool operator<(const Foo& foo,const Foo& foo1) { return foo.foo_value < foo1.foo_value; } friend bool operator>(const Foo& foo,const Foo& foo1) { return foo.foo_value > foo1.foo_value; } std::string foo_value; }; Nothing changed except making the operator overloads as friend. I am wondering why my first code is not working? Any thoughts?

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