Search Results

Search found 5121 results on 205 pages for 'the all foo'.

Page 3/205 | < Previous Page | 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12  | Next Page >

  • What does 'foo' really mean?

    - by Prakash
    I hope this qualifies as a programming question, as in any programming tutorial, you eventually come across 'foo' in the code examples. (yeah, right?) what does 'foo' really mean? If it is meant to mean nothing, when did it begin to be used so? Cheers

    Read the article

  • Using DateTime in PHP, generating bad unix epoch time from $foo->format('U')

    - by Jazzepi
    I can't seem to get the correct Unix epoch time out of this PHP DateTime object. $startingDateTime = "2005/08/15 1:52:01 am"; $foo = new DateTime($startingDateTime, new DateTimeZone("America/New_York")); echo $foo-format('U'); which gives 1124085121 Which is Mon, 15 Aug 2005 00:52:01 GMT -500 (according to http://www.epochconverter.com/) but that's incorrect by an hour. It SHOULD be 1124088721 and spit back at me as Mon, 15 Aug 2005 01:52:01 GMT -500 Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Cannot call action method 'System.Web.Mvc.PartialViewResult Foo[T](T)' on controller 'Controller' be

    - by MedicineMan
    Cannot call action method 'System.Web.Mvc.PartialViewResult FooT' on controller 'Controller' because the action method is a generic method <% Html.RenderAction("Foo", model = Model}); %> Is there a workaround for this limitation on ASP MVC 2? I would really prefer to use a generic. The workaround that I have come up with is to change the model type to be an object. It works, but is not preferred: public PartialViewResult Foo<T>(T model) where T : class { // do stuff }

    Read the article

  • Is there any difference between "foo is None" and "foo == None"?

    - by Joe Shaw
    Is there any difference between: if foo is None: pass and if foo == None: pass The convention that I've seen in most Python code (and the code I myself write) is the former, but I recently came across code which uses the latter. None is an instance (and the only instance, IIRC) of NoneType, so it shouldn't matter, right? Are there any circumstances in which it might?

    Read the article

  • DNS add-on domain setup and redirect

    - by brian
    I have several domains which I'd like to point to another (I'll call it foo.com). A couple of things aren't entirely clear to me. First, the DNS. I'm using Kloxo/HyperVM. Do I need to create separate DNS entries for each domain? Or do I just create separate CNAME or other records under foo.com? I thought it was the latter but when I click on "Add CNAME" I'm prompted to fill in the subdomain portion of foo.com. The nameservers have already been set to point to my VPS. For the redirect, would the following be appropriate within the vhost conf for foo.com? ServerName www.foo.com ServerAlias foo.com foo.net foo.org bar.com bar.net bar.org RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^foo.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} *foo.net [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} *foo.org [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} *bar.com [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} *bar.net [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} *bar.org [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.foo.com/$1 [R=301,NC] (The first condition is just to force the "www" part)

    Read the article

  • Incompatible group permissions in Linux - Is it a bug?

    - by Sachin
    I am on Ubuntu 11.04. I am creating another user and placing an existing user in the group of other user, hoping to write in the home directory of other user. # uname -a Linux vini 2.6.38-11-generic #50-Ubuntu SMP Mon Sep 12 21:18:14 UTC 2011 i686 athlon i386 GNU/Linux # whoami sachin # su root # useradd -m -U foo // create user foo # usermod -a -G foo sachin // add user `sachin' to group `foo' # chmod 770 /home/foo/ # exit # whoami sachin # cd /home/foo/ bash: cd: /home/foo/: Permission denied # groups sachin sachin : sachin foo This is totally weird. Though user sachin is in group foo, and group bits for /home/foo/ is set to rwx, sachin can't chdir to /home/foo/. I am not able to understand this. But, if at the exit step, I switch to sachin user from root, this is what happens: # uname -a Linux vini 2.6.38-11-generic #50-Ubuntu SMP Mon Sep 12 21:18:14 UTC 2011 i686 athlon i386 GNU/Linux # whoami sachin # su root # useradd -m -U foo // create user foo # usermod -a -G foo sachin // add user `sachin' to group `foo' # chmod 770 /home/foo/ # su sachin # whoami sachin # cd /home/foo/ # ls examples.desktop Now, whatever is happening here is totally incomprehensible. Does su sachin inherits some permissions from the root user at this step? Any explanations would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Created .htaccess file in /var/www to redirect to folder /var/www/foo

    - by Serg
    Context: How can I configure a NameCheap domain to point to an Apache subfolder? Following Devin's answer here I've created a .htaccess file in /var/www and wrote in the following: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond !sergiotapia.me RewriteRule (.*) sergiotapia.me/$1 [QSA] My folder structure is such: /var/www/ /var/www/sergiotapia.me When visiting the URL sergiotapia.me I see the contents of /var/www when I would like to be directly redirected to /var/www/sergiotapia.me Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Lambda Functions in PHP aren't Logical

    - by Chacha102
    Note: I have condensed this article into my person wiki: http://wiki.chacha102.com/Lambda - Enjoy I am having some troubles with Lambda style functions in PHP. First, This Works: $foo = function(){ echo "bar"; }; $foo(); Second, This Works: class Bar{ public function foo(){ echo "Bar"; } Third, This works: $foo = new stdClass; $foo->bar = function(){ echo "bar"; }; $test = $foo->bar; $test(); But, this does not work: $foo = new stdClass; $foo->bar = function(){ echo "bar"; }; $foo->bar(); And, this does not work class Bar{ public function foo(){ echo "Bar"; } $foo = new Bar; $foo->foo = function(){ echo "foo"; }; $foo->foo(); // echo's bar instead of Foo. My Question is Why?, and how can I assure that both this: $foo->bar = function(){ echo "test"; }; $foo->bar(); and this $foo = new Bar; $foo->bar(); are called properly? Extra Points if you can point to documentation stating why this problem occurs.

    Read the article

  • How to emulate "-lib foo.jar" from _within_ build.xml

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    By specifying "-lib foo.jar" to ant I get the behaviour that the classes in foo.jar is added to the ant classloader and are available for various tasks taking a class name argument. I'd like to be able to specify the same behaviour but only from inside build.xml (so we can do this on a vanilla ant). For taskdefs we have functioning code looking like: <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antlib.xml" description="for/foreach tasks"> <classpath> <pathelement location="${active.workspace}/ant-contrib-1.X/lib/ant-contrib.jar" /> </classpath> </taskdef> where the definition is completely provided from the ant-contrib.jar listed. What is the equivalent mechanism for the "global" ant classpath? (I have thought out that this is the way to get <javac> use ecj-3.5.jar to compile with on a JRE - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2364006/specifying-the-eclipse-compiler-completely-from-within-build-xml - in a way compatible with ant 1.7. Better suggestions are welcome :) EDIT: It appears that the about-to-be-released version 1.0 of ant4eclipse includes ecj. This does not answer the question, but may solve my basic problem.

    Read the article

  • Clean way to use mutable implementation of Immutable interfaces for encapsulation

    - by dsollen
    My code is working on some compost relationship which creates a tree structure, class A has many children of type B, which has many children of type C etc. The lowest level class, call it bar, also points to a connected bar class. This effectively makes nearly every object in my domain inter-connected. Immutable objects would be problematic due to the expense of rebuilding almost all of my domain to make a single change to one class. I chose to go with an interface approach. Every object has an Immutable interface which only publishes the getter methods. I have controller objects which constructs the domain objects and thus has reference to the full objects, thus capable of calling the setter methods; but only ever publishes the immutable interface. Any change requested will go through the controller. So something like this: public interface ImmutableFoo{ public Bar getBar(); public Location getLocation(); } public class Foo implements ImmutableFoo{ private Bar bar; private Location location; @Override public Bar getBar(){ return Bar; } public void setBar(Bar bar){ this.bar=bar; } @Override public Location getLocation(){ return Location; } } public class Controller{ Private Map<Location, Foo> fooMap; public ImmutableFoo addBar(Bar bar){ Foo foo=fooMap.get(bar.getLocation()); if(foo!=null) foo.addBar(bar); return foo; } } I felt the basic approach seems sensible, however, when I speak to others they always seem to have trouble envisioning what I'm describing, which leaves me concerned that I may have a larger design issue then I'm aware of. Is it problematic to have domain objects so tightly coupled, or to use the quasi-mutable approach to modifying them? Assuming that the design approach itself isn't inherently flawed the particular discussion which left me wondering about my approach had to do with the presence of business logic in the domain objects. Currently I have my setter methods in the mutable objects do error checking and all other logic required to verify and make a change to the object. It was suggested that this should be pulled out into a service class, which applies all the business logic, to simplify my domain objects. I understand the advantage in mocking/testing and general separation of logic into two classes. However, with a service method/object It seems I loose some of the advantage of polymorphism, I can't override a base class to add in new error checking or business logic. It seems, if my polymorphic classes were complicated enough, I would end up with a service method that has to check a dozen flags to decide what error checking and business logic applies. So, for example, if I wanted to have a childFoo which also had a size field which should be compared to bar before adding par my current approach would look something like this. public class Foo implements ImmutableFoo{ public void addBar(Bar bar){ if(!getLocation().equals(bar.getLocation()) throw new LocationException(); this.bar=bar; } } public interface ImmutableChildFoo extends ImmutableFoo{ public int getSize(); } public ChildFoo extends Foo implements ImmutableChildFoo{ private int size; @Override public int getSize(){ return size; } @Override public void addBar(Bar bar){ if(getSize()<bar.getSize()){ throw new LocationException(); super.addBar(bar); } My colleague was suggesting instead having a service object that looks something like this (over simplified, the 'service' object would likely be more complex). public interface ImmutableFoo{ ///original interface, presumably used in other methods public Location getLocation(); public boolean isChildFoo(); } public interface ImmutableSizedFoo implements ImmutableFoo{ public int getSize(); } public class Foo implements ImmutableSizedFoo{ public Bar bar; @Override public void addBar(Bar bar){ this.bar=bar; } @Override public int getSize(){ //default size if no size is known return 0; } @Override public boolean isChildFoo return false; } } public ChildFoo extends Foo{ private int size; @Override public int getSize(){ return size; } @Override public boolean isChildFoo(); return true; } } public class Controller{ Private Map<Location, Foo> fooMap; public ImmutableSizedFoo addBar(Bar bar){ Foo foo=fooMap.get(bar.getLocation()); service.addBarToFoo(foo, bar); returned foo; } public class Service{ public static void addBarToFoo(Foo foo, Bar bar){ if(foo==null) return; if(!foo.getLocation().equals(bar.getLocation())) throw new LocationException(); if(foo.isChildFoo() && foo.getSize()<bar.getSize()) throw new LocationException(); foo.setBar(bar); } } } Is the recommended approach of using services and inversion of control inherently superior, or superior in certain cases, to overriding methods directly? If so is there a good way to go with the service approach while not loosing the power of polymorphism to override some of the behavior?

    Read the article

  • Mocking property sets

    - by mehfuzh
    In this post, i will be showing how you can mock property sets with your expected values or even action using JustMock. To begin, we have a sample interface: public interface IFoo {     int Value { get; set; } } Now,  we can create a mock that will throw on any call other than the one expected, generally its a strict mock and we can do it like: bool expected = false;  var foo = Mock.Create<IFoo>(BehaviorMode.Strict);  Mock.ArrangeSet(() => { foo.Value = 1; }).DoInstead(() => expected  = true);    foo.Value = 1;    Assert.True(expected); Here , the method for running though our expectation for set is Mock.ArrangeSet , where we can directly set our expectations or can even set matchers into it like: var foo = Mock.Create<IFoo>(BehaviorMode.Strict);   Mock.ArrangeSet(() => foo.Value = Arg.Matches<int>(x => x > 3));   foo.Value = 4; foo.Value = 5;   Assert.Throws<MockException>(() => foo.Value = 3);   In the example, any set for value not satisfying matcher expression will throw an MockException as this is a strict mock but what will be the case for loose mocks, where we also have to assert it. Here, let’s take an interface with an indexed property. Indexers are treated in the same way as properties, as with basic indexers let you access your class if it were an array. public interface IFooIndexed {     string this[int key] { get; set; } } We want to  setup a value for a particular index,  we then will pass that mock to some implementer where it will be actually called. Once done, we want to assert that if it has been invoked properly. var foo = Mock.Create<IFooIndexed>();   Mock.ArrangeSet(() => foo[0] = "ping");   foo[0] = "ping";   Mock.AssertSet(() => foo[0] = "ping"); In the above example, both the values are user defined, it might happen that we want to make it more dynamic, In this example, i set it up for set with any value and finally checked if it is set with the one i am looking for. var foo = Mock.Create<IFooIndexed>();   Mock.ArrangeSet(() => foo[0] = Arg.Any<string>());   foo[0] = "ping";   Mock.AssertSet(() => foo[0] = Arg.Matches<string>(x => string.Compare("ping", x) == 0)); This is more or less of mocking user sets , but we can further have it to throw exception or even do our own task for a particular set , like : Mock.ArrangeSet(() => foo.MyProperty = 10).Throws(new ArgumentException()); Or  bool expected = false;  var foo = Mock.Create<IFoo>(BehaviorMode.Strict);  Mock.ArrangeSet(() => { foo.Value = 1; }).DoInstead(() => expected  = true);    foo.Value = 1;    Assert.True(expected); Or call the original setter , in this example it will throw an NotImplementedExpectation var foo = Mock.Create<FooAbstract>(BehaviorMode.Strict); Mock.ArrangeSet(() => { foo.Value = 1; }).CallOriginal(); Assert.Throws<NotImplementedException>(() => { foo.Value = 1; });   Finally, try all these, find issues, post them to forum and make it work for you :-). Hope that helps,

    Read the article

  • How to assign foo.example.com to one IP address and example.com to a different one?

    - by Guillaume Pierre
    Say that I have a domain name called example.com and two server located at 2 different IP addresses: 1.2.3.4 and 6.7.8.9. How could I assign example.com to 1.2.3.4 and the subdomain foo.example.com to 6.7.8.9? [EDIT] I did try to put a A record linking from @ to the first IP address and from foo.example.com to the second IP address, as illustrated below: And I did configure a vhosts called foo.example.com on my server at IP address 2. The @ record works. But after 3 hours waiting for the result (DNS delay), nothing happened with foo.example.com, which link to nothing. Why?

    Read the article

  • class foo; in header file

    - by Thomas
    Hi, Is some one able to explain why header files have something like this? class foo; // This here? class bar { bar(); }; Do you need an include statement when using this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Can I trigger PHP garbage collection to happen automatically if I have circular references?

    - by Beau Simensen
    I seem to recall a way to setup the __destruct for a class in such a way that it would ensure that circular references would be cleaned up as soon as the outside object falls out of scope. However, the simple test I built seems to indicate that this is not behaving as I had expected/hoped. Is there a way to setup my classes in such a way that PHP would clean them up correctly when the outermost object falls out of scope? I am not looking for alternate ways to write this code, I am looking for whether or not this can be done, and if so, how? I generally try to avoid these types of circular references where possible. class Bar { private $foo; public function __construct($foo) { $this->foo = $foo; } public function __destruct() { print "[destroying bar]\n"; unset($this->foo); } } class Foo { private $bar; public function __construct() { $this->bar = new Bar($this); } public function __destruct() { print "[destroying foo]\n"; unset($this->bar); } } function testGarbageCollection() { $foo = new Foo(); } for ( $i = 0; $i < 25; $i++ ) { echo memory_get_usage() . "\n"; testGarbageCollection(); } The output looks like this: 60440 61504 62036 62564 63092 63620 [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] What I had hoped for: 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ]

    Read the article

  • MySQL "ERROR 1005 (HY000): Can't create table 'foo.#sql-12c_4' (errno: 150)"

    - by Ankur Banerjee
    Hi, I was working on creating some tables in database foo, but every time I end up with errno 150 regarding the foreign key. Firstly, here's my code for creating tables: CREATE TABLE Clients ( client_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , client_name CHAR(50) NOT NULL , provisional_license_num CHAR(50) NOT NULL , client_address CHAR(50) NULL , client_city CHAR(50) NULL , client_county CHAR(50) NULL , client_zip CHAR(10) NULL , client_phone INT NULL , client_email CHAR(255) NULL , client_dob DATETIME NULL , test_attempts INT NULL ); CREATE TABLE Applications ( application_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , office_id INT NOT NULL , client_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , instructor_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , car_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , application_date DATETIME NULL ); CREATE TABLE Instructors ( instructor_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , office_id INT NOT NULL , instructor_name CHAR(50) NOT NULL , instructor_address CHAR(50) NULL , instructor_city CHAR(50) NULL , instructor_county CHAR(50) NULL , instructor_zip CHAR(10) NULL , instructor_phone INT NULL , instructor_email CHAR(255) NULL , instructor_dob DATETIME NULL , lessons_given INT NULL ); CREATE TABLE Cars ( car_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , office_id INT NOT NULL , engine_serial_num CHAR(10) NULL , registration_num CHAR(10) NULL , car_make CHAR(50) NULL , car_model CHAR(50) NULL ); CREATE TABLE Offices ( office_id INT NOT NULL , office_address CHAR(50) NULL , office_city CHAR(50) NULL , office_County CHAR(50) NULL , office_zip CHAR(10) NULL , office_phone INT NULL , office_email CHAR(255) NULL ); CREATE TABLE Lessons ( lesson_num INT NOT NULL , client_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , date DATETIME NOT NULL , time DATETIME NOT NULL , milegage_used DECIMAL(5, 2) NULL , progress CHAR(50) NULL ); CREATE TABLE DrivingTests ( test_num INT NOT NULL , client_id CHAR(10) NOT NULL , test_date DATETIME NOT NULL , seat_num INT NOT NULL , score INT NULL , test_notes CHAR(255) NULL ); ALTER TABLE Clients ADD PRIMARY KEY (client_id); ALTER TABLE Applications ADD PRIMARY KEY (application_id); ALTER TABLE Instructors ADD PRIMARY KEY (instructor_id); ALTER TABLE Offices ADD PRIMARY KEY (office_id); ALTER TABLE Lessons ADD PRIMARY KEY (lesson_num); ALTER TABLE DrivingTests ADD PRIMARY KEY (test_num); ALTER TABLE Applications ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Applications_Offices FOREIGN KEY (office_id) REFERENCES Offices (office_id); ALTER TABLE Applications ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Applications_Clients FOREIGN KEY (client_id) REFERENCES Clients (client_id); ALTER TABLE Applications ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Applications_Instructors FOREIGN KEY (instructor_id) REFERENCES Instructors (instructor_id); ALTER TABLE Applications ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Applications_Cars FOREIGN KEY (car_id) REFERENCES Cars (car_id); ALTER TABLE Lessons ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Lessons_Clients FOREIGN KEY (client_id) REFERENCES Clients (client_id); ALTER TABLE Cars ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Cars_Offices FOREIGN KEY (office_id) REFERENCES Offices (office_id); ALTER TABLE Clients ADD CONSTRAINT FK_DrivingTests_Clients FOREIGN KEY (client_id) REFERENCES Clients (client_id); These are the errors that I get: mysql> ALTER TABLE Applications ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Applications_Cars FOREIGN KEY (car_id) REFERENCES Cars (car_id); ERROR 1005 (HY000): Can't create table 'foo.#sql-12c_4' (errno: 150) I ran SHOW ENGINE INNODB STATUS which gives a more detailed error description: ------------------------ LATEST FOREIGN KEY ERROR ------------------------ 100509 20:59:49 Error in foreign key constraint of table practice9/#sql-12c_4: FOREIGN KEY (car_id) REFERENCES Cars (car_id): Cannot find an index in the referenced table where the referenced columns appear as the first columns, or column types in the table and the referenced table do not match for constraint. Note that the internal storage type of ENUM and SET changed in tables created with >= InnoDB-4.1.12, and such columns in old tables cannot be referenced by such columns in new tables. See http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/innodb-foreign-key-constraints.html for correct foreign key definition. ------------ I searched around on StackOverflow and elsewhere online - came across a helpful blog post here with pointers on how to resolve this error - but I can't figure out what's going wrong. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Getting all new messages from a Maildir in python

    - by Jesper
    I have a mail dir: foo@foo:~/Maildir$ ls -l total 288 drwx------ 2 foo foo 155648 2010-04-19 15:19 cur -rw------- 1 foo foo 440 2010-03-20 08:50 dovecot.index.log -rw------- 1 foo foo 112 2010-03-20 08:49 dovecot-uidlist -rw------- 1 foo foo 8 2010-03-20 08:49 dovecot-uidvalidity -rw------- 1 foo foo 0 2010-03-20 08:49 dovecot-uidvalidity.4ba48c0e drwx------ 2 foo foo 114688 2010-04-19 16:07 new drwx------ 2 foo foo 4096 2010-04-19 16:07 tmp And in python I'm trying to get all new messages (Python 2.6.5rc2). First, getting "Maildir" works: >>> import mailbox >>> md = mailbox.Maildir('/home/foo/Maildir') >>> md.iterkeys().next() '1269924477.Vfc01I4249fM708004.foo' But how do I access "Maildir/new"? This does not work: >>> md = mailbox.Maildir('/home/foo/Maildir/new') >>> md.iterkeys().next() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/python2.6/mailbox.py", line 346, in iterkeys self._refresh() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/mailbox.py", line 467, in _refresh for entry in os.listdir(subdir_path): OSError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: '/home/foo/Maildir/new/new' >>> Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12  | Next Page >