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  • dynamic JSF composite component styling/rendering

    - by Checkoff
    I've a little problem with a composite component. This component's implementation looks like: <composite:implementation> <h:outputStylesheet name="foo.css" library="bar"/> <div id="#{cc.clientId}"> <composite:insertChildren/> </div> </composite:implementation> It is included dynamically into a facelet page which include this component with JSTL core tags. The facelet page is similar to the following one. <h:panelGroup id="viewport" layout="block"> <c:if test="#{controller.object != null}"> <c:forEach items="#{controller.object.elements}" var="element"> <c:if test="#{element.type == 'type1'}"> <my:componentTypeOne id="#{element.id}"/> </c:if> <c:if test="#{element.type == 'type2'}"> <my:componentTypeTwo id="#{element.id}"/> </c:if> </c:forEach> </c:if> </h:panelGroup> So when I only render the viewport of the page the components are rendered but without the stylesheet defined within the composite component my:component. Is there any way to include the stylesheet on the fly without rendering the whole page? EDIT: extension of the example code..

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  • What to do when ServerSocket throws IOException and keeping server running

    - by s5804
    Basically I want to create a rock solid server. while (keepRunning.get()) { try { Socket clientSocket = serverSocket.accept(); ... spawn a new thread to handle the client ... } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); // NOW WHAT? } } In the IOException block, what to do? Is the Server socket at fault so it need to be recreated? For example wait a few seconds and then serverSocket = ServerSocketFactory.getDefault().createServerSocket(MY_PORT); However if the server socket is still OK, then it is a pity to close it and kill all previously accepted connections that are still communicating. EDIT: After some answers, here my attempt to deal with the IOException. Would the implementation be guaranteeing keeping the server up and only re-create server socket when only necessary? while (keepRunning.get()) { try { Socket clientSocket = serverSocket.accept(); ... spawn a new thread to handle the client ... bindExceptionCounter = 0; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); recreateServerSocket(); } } private void recreateServerSocket() { while (keepRunning) { try { logger.info("Try to re-create Server Socket"); ServerSocket socket = ServerSocketFactory.getDefault().createServerSocket(RateTableServer.RATE_EVENT_SERVER_PORT); // No exception thrown, then use the new socket. serverSocket = socket; break; } catch (BindException e) { logger.info("BindException indicates that the server socket is still good.", e); bindExceptionCounter++; if (bindExceptionCounter < 5) { break; } } catch (IOException e) { logger.warn("Problem to re-create Server Socket", e); e.printStackTrace(); try { Thread.sleep(30000); } catch (InterruptedException ie) { logger.warn(ie); } } } }

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  • When do instance variables get initialized and values assigned?

    - by AKh
    When doees the instance variable get initialized? Is it after the constructor block is done or before it? Consider this example: public abstract class Parent { public Parent(){ System.out.println("Parent Constructor"); init(); } public void init(){ System.out.println("parent Init()"); } } public class Child extends Parent { private Integer attribute1; private Integer attribute2 = null; public Child(){ super(); System.out.println("Child Constructor"); } public void init(){ System.out.println("Child init()"); super.init(); attribute1 = new Integer(100); attribute2 = new Integer(200); } public void print(){ System.out.println("attribute 1 : " +attribute1); System.out.println("attribute 2 : " +attribute2); } } public class Tester { public static void main(String[] args) { Parent c = new Child(); ((Child)c).print(); } } OUTPUT: Parent Constructor Child init() parent Init() Child Constructor attribute 1 : 100 attribute 2 : null When the memory for the atribute 1 & 2 are allocated in the heap ? Curious to know why is attribute 2 is NULL ? Are there any design flaws?

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  • How do I generate a connection reset programatically?

    - by Brock Adams
    Hi, I'm sure you've seen the "the connection was reset" message displayed when trying to browse web pages. (The text is from Firefox, other browsers differ.) I need to generate that message/error/condition on demand, to test workarounds. So, how do I generate that condition programmatically? (How to generate a TCP RST from PHP -- or one of the other web-app languages?) Caveats and Conditions: It cannot be a general IP block. The test client must still be able to see the test server when not triggering the condition. Ideally, it would be done at the web-application level (Python, PHP, Coldfusion, Javascript, etc.). Access to routers is problematic. Access to Apache config is a pain. Ideally, it would be triggered by fetching a specific web-page. Bonus if it works on a standard, commercial web host. Update: Sending RST is not enough to cause this condition. See my partial answer, below. I've a solution that works on a local machine, Now need to get it working on a remote host.

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  • BitShifting with BigIntegers in Java

    - by ThePinkPoo
    I am implementing DES Encryption in Java with use of BigIntegers. I am left shifting binary keys with Java BigIntegers by doing the BigInteger.leftShift(int n) method. Key of N (Kn) is dependent on the result of the shift of Kn-1. The problem I am getting is that I am printing out the results after each key is generated and the shifting is not the expected out put. The key is split in 2 Cn and Dn (left and right respectively). I am specifically attempting this: "To do a left shift, move each bit one place to the left, except for the first bit, which is cycled to the end of the block. " It seems to tack on O's on the end depending on the shift. Not sure how to go about correcting this. Results: c0: 11110101010100110011000011110 d0: 11110001111001100110101010100 c1: 111101010101001100110000111100 d1: 111100011110011001101010101000 c2: 11110101010100110011000011110000 d2: 11110001111001100110101010100000 c3: 1111010101010011001100001111000000 d3: 1111000111100110011010101010000000 c4: 111101010101001100110000111100000000 d4: 111100011110011001101010101000000000 c5: 11110101010100110011000011110000000000 d5: 11110001111001100110101010100000000000 c6: 1111010101010011001100001111000000000000 d6: 1111000111100110011010101010000000000000 c7: 111101010101001100110000111100000000000000 d7: 111100011110011001101010101000000000000000 c8: 1111010101010011001100001111000000000000000 d8: 1111000111100110011010101010000000000000000 c9: 111101010101001100110000111100000000000000000 d9: 111100011110011001101010101000000000000000000 c10: 11110101010100110011000011110000000000000000000 d10: 11110001111001100110101010100000000000000000000 c11: 1111010101010011001100001111000000000000000000000 d11: 1111000111100110011010101010000000000000000000000 c12: 111101010101001100110000111100000000000000000000000 d12: 111100011110011001101010101000000000000000000000000 c13: 11110101010100110011000011110000000000000000000000000 d13: 11110001111001100110101010100000000000000000000000000 c14: 1111010101010011001100001111000000000000000000000000000 d14: 1111000111100110011010101010000000000000000000000000000 c15: 11110101010100110011000011110000000000000000000000000000 d15: 11110001111001100110101010100000000000000000000000000000

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  • Perl - how to get the number of elements in a list (not a named array)

    - by NXT
    Hi Everyone, I'm trying to get a block of code down to one line. I need a way to get the number of items in a list. My code currently looks like this: # Include the lib directory several levels up from this directory my @ary = split('/', $Bin); my @ary = @ary[0 .. $#ary-4]; my $res = join '/',@ary; lib->import($res.'/lib'); That's great but I'd like to make that one line, something like this: lib->import( join('/', ((split('/', $Bin)) [0 .. $#ary-4])) ); But of course the syntax $#ary is meaningless in the above line. Is there equivalent way to get the number of elements in an anonymous list? Thanks! PS: The reason for consolidating this is that it will be in the header of a bunch of perl scripts that are ancillary to the main application, and I want this little incantation to be more cut & paste proof.

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  • Unexpected $end in PHP file

    - by mattbd
    I'm working on a PHP contact form, but I can't get it to work. I get the following error in the Apache server log, running on an Ubuntu Server VM: PHP Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/matthew/Sites/contactFormResponse.php on line 75, referer: http://192.168.1.4/contactForm.php From googling this error, it sounds like it's normally caused by either using the short PHP tag when the server's not set up to recognise them, or by having a block of code that isn't closed correctly. But as far as I can see that isn't the case here - as far as I can see it's all closed correctly. Here's the PHP code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define variables to hold the name, email address and message, and import the information into the variables $name = $_POST['NameInput']; $email = $_POST['EmailAddress']; $telno = $_POST['ContactNumber']; $querytype = $_POST['QueryType']; $bookingstartdate = $_POST['BookingStartDay'] . $_POST['BookingStartMonth'] . $_POST['BookingStartYear']; $bookingenddate = $_POST['BookingEndDay'] . $_POST['BookingEndMonth'] . $_POST['BookingEndYear']; $message = $_POST['QueryText']; // Validate the inputs - send it if it's OK if(3 < strlen($name) && 3 < strlen($email)) { $email_message = <<< EMAIL Message from contact form at holidaychalet.co.uk Name: $name Email: $email Contact Number: $telno Query Type: $querytype Booking Start Date: $bookingstartdate Booking End Date: $bookingenddate The message: $message EMAIL; $headers = "cc:[email protected]\r\n"; if(mail('matthew@localhost','Contact form email', $email_message, $headers)) { echo "Thanks for completing the form! I'll be in touch shortly!"; } else { echo "Something went wrong - please use the back button and try again"; } } else { echo "You didn't complete the form fully enough! Please use go back using your web browser's back button"; } ?>

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  • Cast object to interface when created via reflection

    - by Al
    I'm trying some stuff out in Android and I'm stuck at when trying to cast a class in another .apk to my interface. I have the interface and various classes in other .apks that implement that interface. I find the other classes using PackageManager's query methods and use Application#createPackageContext() to get the classloader for that context. I then load the class, create a new instance and try to cast it to my interface, which I know it definitely implements. When I try to cast, it throws a class cast exception. I tried various things like loading the interface first, using Class#asSubclass, etc, none of which work. Class#getInterfaces() shows the interface is implemented. My code is below: PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); List<ResolveInfo> lr = pm.queryIntentServices(new Intent("com.example.some.action"), 0); ArrayList<MyInterface> list = new ArrayList<MyInterface>(); for (ResolveInfo r : lr) { try { Context c = getApplication().createPackageContext(r.serviceInfo.packageName, Context.CONTEXT_IGNORE_SECURITY | Context.CONTEXT_INCLUDE_CODE); ClassLoader cl = c.getClassLoader(); String className = r.serviceInfo.name; if (className != null) { try { Class<?> cls = cl.loadClass(className); Object o = cls.newInstance(); if (o instanceof MyInterface) { //fails list.add((MyInterface) o); } } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } // some exceptions removed for readability } } catch (NameNotFoundException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); }

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  • JSoup - Select only one listobject

    - by Zyril
    I'm trying to extract some certain data from a website using JSoup and Java. So far I've been successful in what I'm trying to achieve. <ul class="beverageFacts"> <li><span>Årgång</span><strong>**2009**&nbsp;</strong></li> I want to extract what is inside the ** in the above HTML. I can do this by using the code that follows in JSoup: doc.select("ul.beverageFacts li:lt(1) strong"); I'm using the lt(1) because there are several more list items following that I want to omit. Now to my problem; there's an optional information tab on the site I'm extracting data from, and it also has a class called "beverageFacts". My code will at the moment extract that data too, which I don't want it to do. The code is further down in the source of the website, and I've tried to use the indexer :lt(1) here aswell, but it wont work. <div id="beverageMoreFacts" style="display: block"> <ul class="beverageFacts"><li class="half"> <span> Färg</span><strong> Ljusgul färg.</strong> My overall result is that I extract "2009 Ljusgul färg." instead of only "2009". How can I write my code so it will only extract the first part, which it succesfully does, and omits the rest? EDIT: I get the same result using: doc.select("ul.beverageFacts li:eq(0) strong"); Thanks, Z

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  • Search and highlight html - ignoring and maintaining tags

    - by Sleepwalker
    I am looking for a good way to highlight key words in a block of html with stripping the html tags. I can regex to search for key words within html tags, but I haven't found a great way to search across tags. For example, if the key word phrase is "not bound" I want to be able to make this <p>I am not<strong>bound to please thee</strong> with my answers.</p> become wrapped in highlight tags, without breaking the "strong" tag (and making the html invalid) and become: <p>I am <span class="highlight">not</span><strong><span class="highlight">bound</span> to please thee</strong> with my answers.</p> The main issue is maintaining the html as it is AND wrapping blocks of text with highlight tags. I need to maintain the original html. Otherwise I would strip the tags. The best solution to this that I can think of right now would entail making a copy of the html and placing counter tokens where each space occurs, then stripping all tags and search for matching phrases, then looking back to the original and the tokenized strings and figuring out where to start building the highlight tags, then start walking forward, starting and ending highlight spans as needed from the beginning of the match until the end. This seems like overkill. I would like to something more elegant if possible. The solution would be written in C# or perhaps javascript, depending.

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  • Change the playback rate of a track in real time on Android

    - by android_dev
    Hello, I would like to know if somebody knows a library to changing the playback rate of a track in real time. My idea is to load a track and change its playback rate to half or double. Firstly, I tried with MusicPlayer but is was not possible at all and then I tried with SoundPool. The problem is that with SoundPool I can´t change the rate once the track is loaded. Here is the code I am using (proof of concept): float j = 1; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button b = (Button)findViewById(R.id.Button01); b.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { j = (float) (j +.5); } }); AssetFileDescriptor afd; try { SoundPool sp = new SoundPool(1, AudioManager.STREAM_MUSIC, 0); afd = getAssets().openFd("wav/sample.wav"); int id = sp.load(afd, 1); sp.play(id, 1, 1, 1, 0, j); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } When I press the button, the playback rate should increase but it does not happen. Any idea of how change the rate in real time? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to best future proof my application that needs to connect to Outlook?

    - by Troy
    I have a contact management application written in Delphi which has a “Sync with Outlook” feature that I developed 10 years ago. Now, I’m going back to add some features and fix some bugs. This sync feature uses the Outlook object model to get started, but it has an optional mode called “Use MAPI Enhancements” where it uses pure MAPI to speed up how it looks for changes, and it allows notes to be synced w/ RTF instead of just plain text. I'm wondering if supporting two parallel paths of execution is a good idea or not. If I went with all MAPI, I believe I'd avoid some security prompts, and I'd avoid situations where anti-virus has "script-blocking" features which block my app from connecting to Outlook. But I believe that on the down side, my 32-bit app would not be able to to connect with 64-bit Outlook 2010 using MAPI. And I wonder about the future of MAPI in general. If I stick with the Outlook object model, will my 32-bit app be able to connect to the Outlook object model (since it's out of process COM)? If so, this is a compelling reason to keep my Outlook object model execution path in place. But if not, and if my app needs to be compiled for x64, then why not just go with pure MAPI?

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  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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  • Same font, character spacing and line-height but different results

    - by Ben Huh
    The introduction of @font-face in CSS3 allows web designers to use fonts that look the same across all browsers. That is what I thought until trying it out with the following code in jsFiddle: HTML: <div> The_Quick_Brown<br> Fox_Jumps_Over<br> The_Lazy_Dog </div> CSS: @font-face { font-family: 'Open Sans'; font-style: normal; font-weight: 400; src: url('http://themes.googleusercontent.com/static/fonts/opensans/v6/cJZKeOuBrn4kERxqtaUH3T8E0i7KZn-EPnyo3HZu7kw.woff') format('woff'); } div { display: block; width: 496px; height: 86px; font-size: 1.3em; font-family: 'Open Sans'; font-style: normal; margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0; background: cyan; letter-spacing: 1.44em; line-height: 1.44; overflow: hidden; } This is the view from Firefox 12.0. Take note of the partially obscured 'o' in 'brown', the position of 'g' in 'dog' and the underscore '_' at the bottom edge. This is the view from Google Chrome 19.0. Despite explicitly setting letter-spacing and line-height for the same font, why are the results still different?

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  • How to restrict a content of string to less than 4MB and save that string in DB using C#

    - by Pranay B
    I'm working on a project where I need to get the Text data from pdf files and dump the whole text in a DB column. With the help of iTextsharp, I got the data and referred it String. But now I need to check whether the string exceeds the 4MB limit or not and if it is exceeding then accept the string data which is less than 4MB in size. This is my code: internal string ReadPdfFiles() { // variable to store file path string filePath = null; // open dialog box to select file OpenFileDialog file = new OpenFileDialog(); // dilog box title name file.Title = "Select Pdf File"; //files to be accepted by the user. file.Filter = "Pdf file (*.pdf)|*.pdf|All files (*.*)|*.*"; // set initial directory of computer system file.InitialDirectory = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.Desktop); // set restore directory file.RestoreDirectory = true; // execute if block when dialog result box click ok button if (file.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { // store selected file path filePath = file.FileName.ToString(); } //file path /// use a string array and pass all the pdf for searching //String filePath = @"D:\Pranay\Documentation\Working on SSAS.pdf"; try { //creating an instance of PdfReader class using (PdfReader reader = new PdfReader(filePath)) { //creating an instance of StringBuilder class StringBuilder text = new StringBuilder(); //use loop to specify how many pages to read. //I started from 5th page as Piyush told for (int i = 5; i <= reader.NumberOfPages; i++) { //Read the pdf text.Append(PdfTextExtractor.GetTextFromPage(reader, i)); }//end of for(i) int k = 4096000; //Test whether the string exceeds the 4MB if (text.Length < k) { //return the string text1 = text.ToString(); } //end of if } //end of using } //end try catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Please Do select a pdf file!!", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Warning); } //end of catch return text1; } //end of ReadPdfFiles() method Do help me!

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  • JSF - Creating an overlay for popup panels.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've created an overlay that will popup whenever someone wants to upload a file to the system. The Gui looks like this (when the overlay is up) I have two problems with this: I attached a a4j:support object that, onclick, makes the overlay disappear. The problem with this is that when I click the upload button on the upload component, support catches the click event and closes the overlay with the upload component before I have the chance to finish the operation. I chose two different style classes. One for the overlay and one for the upload panel. But the styling of the overlay takes over the upload component and it becomes transparent as well. The implementation looks something like this: <h:panelgroup layout="block" styleClass="overlayClass"> <rich:fileUpload styleClass="uploadStyleClass"... /> <a4j:support event="onclick" action="#{mrBean.switchOverlayState}" reRender="..."/> </h:panelGroup> The CSS: .overlayClass { Opacity: 0.5; position: fixed; left: 0; right: 0; top: 0; bottom: 0; background: #000; } .uploadStyleClass { opacity: 1.0; ... } Thanks for the help!

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  • Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

    - by RobV
    So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

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  • Highlighting correctly in an emacs major mode

    - by Paul Nathan
    Hi, I am developing an emacs major mode for a language (aka mydsl). However, using the techniques on xahlee's site doesn't seem to be working for some reason (possibly older emacs dialect..) The key issues I am fighting with are (1) highlighting comments is not working and (2), the use of regexp-opt lines is not working. I've reviewed the GNU manual and looked over cc-mode and elisp mode... those are significantly more complicated than I need. ;;;Standard # to newline comment ;;;Eventually should also have %% to %% multiline block comments (defun mydsl-comment-dwim (arg) "comment or uncomment" (interactive "*P") (require 'newcomment) (let ((deactivate-mark nil) (comment-start "#") (comment-end "") comment-dwim arg))) (defvar mydsl-events '("reservedword1" "reservedword2")) (defvar mydsl-keywords '("other-keyword" "another-keyword")) ;;Highlight various elements (setq mydsl-hilite '( ; stuff between " ("\"\\.\\*\\?" . font-lock-string-face) ; : , ; { } => @ $ = are all special elements (":\\|,\\|;\\|{\\|}\\|=>\\|@\\|$\\|=" . font-lock-keyword-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-keywords 'words) . font-lock-builtin-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-events 'words) . font-lock-constant-face) )) (defvar mydsl-tab-width nil "Width of a tab for MYDSL mode") (define-derived-mode mydsl-mode fundamental-mode "MYDSL mode is a major mode for editing MYDSL files" ;Recommended by manual (kill-all-local-variables) (setq mode-name "MYDSL script") (setq font-lock-defaults '((mydsl-hilite))) (if (null mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width default-tab-width) ) ;Comment definitions (define-key mydsl-mode-map [remap comment-dwim] 'mydsl-comment-dwim) (modify-syntax-entry ?# "< b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) (modify-syntax-entry ?\n "> b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) ;;A gnu-correct program will have some sort of hook call here. ) (provide 'mydsl-mode)

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  • Prevent box shadow from showing on a specific side

    - by kaile
    Is there any way to create a css box-shadow in which regardless of the blur value, the shadow only appears on the desired sides? For example if I want to create a div with shadows on left and right sides and no shadow on the top or bottom. The div is not absolutely positioned and its height is determined by the content. -- Edit -- @ricebowl: I appreciate your answer. Maybe you can help with creating a complete solution to fix the problems stated in my reply to your solution... My page setup is as follows: <div id="container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="content"></div> <div id="clearfooter"></div> </div> <div id="footer"></div> And CSS like this: #container {width:960px; min-height:100%; margin:0px auto -32px auto; position:relative; padding:0px; background-color:#e6e6e6; -moz-box-shadow: -3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8), 3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8);} #header {height:106px; position:relative;} #content {position:relative;} #clearFooter {height:32px; clear:both; display:block; padding:0px; margin:0px;} #footer {height:32px; padding:0px; position:relative; width:960px; margin:0px auto 0px auto;}

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  • Simple jQuery toggle() and return false inside click()

    - by Casey Stark
    I'm mostly a djangonaut and phper, but I'm getting javascript development. I've been looking at this very simple block for a feedback widget on a page. The code is pretty self-explanatory. <a id="feedback-widget-toggle" href="[feedback_url]">Feedback</a> <div id="feedback-widget"> <form method="POST" action="[form_url]"> ... </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#feedback-widget-toggle").click(function() { $("#feedback-widget").toggle("slide", {}, 500); return false; }); }); </script> It's really simple. So simple that I feel pretty dumb for this one. The jQuery is just supposed to disable the link and slide out the feedback-widget div. That's it. I'm new to jQuery, so it's probably some very simple syntax error that I'm not sure how to debug well enough. Thanks.

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  • Downloading javascript Without Blocking

    - by doug
    The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

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  • convert divs displaying as row to divs displaying as column

    - by C-Link
    I have as the following divs. Suppose each div is floated left or set display to inline-block. +-----------+ +-----------+ +--------------+ | 1 | | 2 | | | +-----------+ | | | 3 | +-----------+ | | +--------------+ +-----------+ +-----------+ +--------------+ | 4 | | 5 | | | +-----------+ | | | 6 | +-----------+ | | +--------------+ +-----------+ +-----------+ +--------------+ | | | 8 | | 9 | | 7 | +-----------+ | | | | +--------------+ | | +-----------+ I want to achieve like this +-------------+ +-----------+ +-------------+ | 1 | | 4 | | | +-------------+ +-----------+ | 7 | +-------------+ +-----------+ | | | 2 | | 5 | | | | | | | +-------------+ +-------------+ +-----------+ +-------------+ +-------------+ +-----------+ | 8 | | | | | +-------------+ | 3 | | 6 + +-------------+ | | | | | 9 | | | +-----------+ | | +-------------+ +-------------+ I know I can do this by column-wise as this <div class="col1"> <div></div> <div></div> <div></div> </div> <div class="col2"> <div></div> <div></div> <div></div> </div> <div class="col3"> <div></div> <div></div> <div></div> </div> But In my website there more pages like this, so I would like to achieve without touching markup. Is there any idea to perform this with css or any javascript/jquery method?

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  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

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  • Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

    - by ExtraLean
    Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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