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  • Why does Perl's strict not let me pass a parameter hash?

    - by Thariama
    I hava a perl subroutine where i would like to pass parameters as a hash (the aim is to include a css depending on the parameter 'iconsize'). I am using the call: get_function_bar_begin('iconsize' => '32'); for the subroutine get_function_bar_begin: use strict; ... sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my %template_params = %{ shift || {} }; return $self->render_template('global/bars /tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html',%template_params); } Why does this yield the error message: Error executing run mode 'start': undef error - Can't use string ("iconsize") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at CheckBar.pm at line 334 Am i doing something wrong here? Is there an other way to submit my data ('iconsize') as a hash? (i am still new to Perl) EDIT: Solution which worked for me. I didn't change the call, but my function: sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my $paramref = shift; my %params = (ref($paramref) eq 'HASH') ? %$paramref : (); my $iconsize = $params{'iconsize'} || ''; return $self->render_template('global/bars/tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html', { 'iconsize' => $iconsize, } ); }

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  • Tableview not drilling down

    - by JoshD
    I have a Tableview which is loaded with a dummy list of exercises. I need to drill to a different page. My didSelectRow is being called, but not implementing the method. The app is a tab bar navigation app that loads a UITableView. #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface Schedule : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *mySchedule; } @end #import "Schedule.h" #import "AnotherViewController.h" @implementation Schedule - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section{ return mySchedule.count; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ //create a cell UITableViewCell *cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:@"cell"]; //fill it with contents cell.textLabel.text = [mySchedule objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //return it return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ AnotherViewController *anotherViewController = [[AnotherViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AnotherViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:anotherViewController animated:YES]; [anotherViewController release]; } /* // The designated initializer. Override if you create the controller programmatically and want to perform customization that is not appropriate for viewDidLoad. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } */ // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { NSString *myFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"exercise" ofType:@"plist"]; mySchedule = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:myFile]; [super viewDidLoad]; }

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  • Where to translate message strings - in the view or in the model?

    - by GrGr
    We have a multilingual (PHP) application and use gettext for i18n. There are a few classes in the backend/model that return messages or message formats for printf(). We use xgettext to extract the strings that we want to translate. We apply the gettext function T_() in the frontend/view - this seems to be where it belongs. So far we kept the backend clean from T_() calls, this way we can also unit-test messages. So in the frontend we have something like echo T_($mymodel->getMessage()); or printf(T_($mymodel->getMessageFormat()), $mymodel->getValue()); This makes it impossible to apply xgettext to extract the strings, unless we put some dummy T_("my message %s to translate") call in the MyModel class. So this leads to the more general question: Do you apply translation in the backend classes, resp. where do you apply translation and how do you keep track of the strings which you have to translate? (I am aware of Question: poedit workaround for dynamic gettext.)

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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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  • Turn image in google maps V3?

    - by Ilrodri
    Hi, I need help with JavaScript in google map v3 I have an image and I need to be able to turn it. That works, but the real problem it's that I cant afect an marker cause I don't know how to call it and modify this marker. I show you a part of the code: Marker: sURL = 'http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG'; iWidth = 97; iHeight = 100; mImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage(sURL, new google.maps.Size(iWidth,iHeight), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(Math.round(iWidth/2),Math.round(iHeight/2))); var oMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ 'position': new google.maps.LatLng(iStartLat,iStartLon), 'map': map, 'title': 'mon point', 'icon': mImage }); Then I have this : onload=function(){ rotate.call(document.getElementById('im'),50); } </script> <img id="im" src="http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG" width="97" height="100" /> So here is it. As you can see, I'm afecting this image and I in fact I need to afect the marker. How can I do it ? Please I need this I'been working in it since hours and hours. Thank you !!

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

    - by tommy
    How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

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  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

    - by sehummel
    I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

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  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

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  • callback on a variable which is inside a .each() loop

    - by Stoic
    I have this function, which is doing an asynchronous call to FB.api method. Now, i am looping over some data and capturing result of the above method call successfully. However, I am using a .each loop and I really can not figure out how to place my callback in this method, so that the outer method is only executed once. Here are the functions I am using: ask_for_perms($(this).val(),function(result) { $('#some-div').html('<a onclick = "get_perms(result);" >get perms</a>'); }); function ask_for_perms(perms_requested,cb) { var request = []; $.each(perms_requested,function(i,permission) { FB.api({ method: 'users.hasAppPermission', ext_perm: permission }, function(response) { if (response == 0) request.push(permission); request.join(','); cb(request); // cb is called many times here. }); }); } I am trying to return the request string from ask_for_perms function. Can anyone suggest me on where to place a proper callback to ask_for_perms. Right now, however, it works for me, but the callback is being called many times since it is inside a for loop. referencing: returning a variable from the callback of a function

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  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

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  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

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  • novice needing help on shuffeling an array

    - by steffen Myklebust
    Please help a TOTAL beginner.! I found this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56648/whats-the-best-way-to-shuffle-an-nsmutablearray And as i try to deploy this in my own code, I cant get it working... :-( Can anyone help me to resolve this code? To me it looks like the shuffle function is not called..? here is my code: // // shuffle2ViewController.h // shuffle2 #import @interface shuffle2ViewController : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *puzzles; int *randomSort; } - (void)shuffle; @end //============================= // shuffle2ViewController.m ´#import "shuffle2ViewController.h" @implementation shuffle2ViewController (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSMutableArray *puzzles = [NSMutableArray arrayWithObjects:@"1",@"2",@"3", @"4",@"5",@"6",@"7",@"8",@"9", @"10",@"11",@"12", nil]; // Call the shuffle function [self shuffle]; // print to log int i; NSLog(@"NEW OLD"); NSLog(@"================="); for (i = 0; i < 12; ++i) NSLog(@" %2i %@", i + 1, [puzzles objectAtIndex:i]); } int randomSort(id obj1, id obj2, void *context ) { // returns random number -1 0 1 return (random()%3 - 1); } (void)shuffle { // call custom sort function [puzzles sortUsingFunction:randomSort context:nil]; } Giving this result: NEW OLD ================= 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 10 10 11 11 12 12

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  • Problem using a COM interface as parameter

    - by Cesar
    I have the following problem: I have to projects Project1 and Project2. In Project1 I have an interface IMyInterface. In Project2 I have an interface IMyInterface2 with a method that receives a pointer to IMyInterface1. When I use import "Project1.idl"; in my Project2.idl, a #include "Project1.h" appears in Project2___i.h. But this file does not even exist!. What is the proper way to import an interface defined into other library into a idl file? I tried to replace the #include "Project1.h" by *#include "Project1_i.h"* or *#include "Project1_i.c"*, but it gave me a lot of errors. I also tried to use importlib("Project1.tlb") and define my interface IMyInterface2 within the library definition. But when I compile Project2PS project, an error is raised (something like dlldata.c is not generated if no interface is defined). I tried to create a dummy Project1.h. But when Project2___i.h is compiled, compiler cannot find MyInterface1. And if I include Project1___i.h I get a lot of errors again! Apparently, it is a simple issue, but I don't know how to solve it. I'm stuck with that!. By the way, I'm using VS2008 SP1. Thanks in advance.

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  • WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

    - by Aaron
    I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

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  • Domain validates but won't save

    - by marko
    I have the following setup. Class, say, Car that has a CarPart (belongsTo=[car:Car]). When I'm creating a Car I also want to create som default CarParts, so I do def car = new Car(bla bla bla) def part = new CarPart(car:car) Now, when I do car.validate() or part.validate() it seems fine. But when I do if(car.save && part.save() I get this exception: 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, car_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - ERROR: value too long for type character varying(6) 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR events.PatchedDefaultFlushEventListener - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: Could not execute JDBC batch update Stacktrace follows: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, deal_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement$BatchResultHandler.handleError(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2621) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.processResults(QueryExecutorImpl.java:1837) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.execute(QueryExecutorImpl.java:407) at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement.executeBatch(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2754) at $Proxy20.flush(Unknown Source) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy:109) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722) Any ideas?

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  • Catching the return of main function before it deallocates resources

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm trying to implement user threads in Linux kernel 2.4, and I ran into something problematic and unexpected. Background: a thread basically executes a single function and dies, except that when I call thread_create for the first time it must turn main() into a thread as well (by default it is not a thread until the first call, which is also when all the related data structures are allocated). Since a thread executes a function and dies, we don't need to "return" anywhere with it, but we do need to save the return value to be reclaimed later with thread_join, so the hack I came up with was: when I allocate the thread stack I place a return address that points to a thread_return_handler function, which deallocates the thread, makes it a zombie, and saves its return value for later. This works for "just run a function and die" threads, but is very problematic with the main thread. Since it actually is the main function, if it returns before the other threads finish the normal return mechanism kicks in, and deallocates all the shared resources, thus screwing up all the running threads. I need to keep it from doing that. Any ideas on how it can be done?

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  • Problems with Backbone.Model callback and THIS

    - by Rev. Samuel
    I'm building a simple weather widget. The current weather conditions are read out of the National Weather Service xml file and then I want to parse and store the relevant data in the model but the callback for the $.ajax won't connect (the way I'm doing it). var Weather = Backbone.Model.extend({ initialize: function(){ _.bindAll( this, 'update', 'startLoop', 'stopLoop' ); this.startLoop(); }, startLoop: function(){ this.update(); this.interval = window.setInterval( _.bind( this.update, this ), 1000 * 60 * 60 ); }, stopLoop: function(){ this.interval = window.clearInterval( this.interval ); }, store: function( data ){ this.set({ icon : $( data ).find( 'icon_url_name' ).text() }); }, update: function(){ $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'xml/KROC.xml', datatype: 'xml' }) .done( function( data ) { var that = this; that.store( $( data ).find( 'current_observation' )[ 0 ] ); }); } }); var weather = new Weather(); The data is read correctly but I can't get the done function of the call back to call the store function. (I would be happy if the "done" would just parse and then do "this.set". Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • PHP / Zend custom date input formats

    - by mld
    Hi, I'm creating a library component for other developers on my team using PHP and Zend. This component needs to be able to take as input a date (string) and another string telling it the format of that date. Looking through the Zend documentation and examples, I thought I found the solution - $dateObject = Zend_Date('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')); this line, however, throws an error - call to undefined function. So instead I tried this - $dt = Zend_Locale_Format::getDate('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')); This gets the job done, but throws an error if a date that is entered isn't valid. The docs make it look like you can use the isDate() function to check validity - Zend_Date::isDate('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')) but this line always returns false. So my questions - Am I going about this the right way? If not, is there a better way to handle this via Zend or straight PHP? If I do use Zend_Locale_Format::getDate(), do I need to worry about a locale being set elsewhere and changing the results of the call? I'm locked into PHP 5.2.6 on windows, btw... so 5.3+ functions & strptime() are out.

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