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  • IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

    - by Keith
    I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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  • ASP.NET Web Optimization - confusion about loading order

    - by Ciel
    Using the ASP.NET Web Optimization Framework, I am attempting to load some javascript files up. It works fine, except I am running into a peculiar situation with either the loading order, the loading speed, or its execution. I cannot figure out which. Basically, I am using ace code editor for javascript, and I also want to include its autocompletion package. This requires two files. /ace.js /ext-language_tools.js This isn't an issue, if I load both of these files the normal way (with <script> tags) it works fine. But when I try to use the web optimization bundles, it seems as if something goes wrong. Trying this out... bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); and then in the view .. @Scripts.Render("~/bundles/js") I get the error ace is not defined This means that the ace.js file hasn't run, or hasn't loaded. Because if I break it apart into two bundles, it starts working. bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") }); bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js/language_tools") { .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); Can anyone explain why this would behave in this fashion?

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  • Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

    - by merv
    Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

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  • coordination transform issue in Silverlight

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using Silverlight 3.0 + .Net 3.5 + VSTS 2008 + C# to develop silverlight application based on ASP.Net. I am very confused about what are the function of "TranslateTransform" and "RenderTransformOrigin" in the following code snippet? BTW: I roughly understand RenderTransformOrigin means move an UI element in x-axis and y-axis by some offset, is that correct? Move the whole UI element? <Grid Margin="-1,0,100,0" x:Name="controlsContainer" Height="35" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"> <Grid.RenderTransform> <TransformGroup> <ScaleTransform/> <SkewTransform/> <RotateTransform/> <TranslateTransform Y="0"/> </TransformGroup> </Grid.RenderTransform> <Rectangle Margin="0,0,0,0" Height="35" VerticalAlignment="Top" Fill="#97000000" Stroke="#00000000" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"/> <VideoPlayer:mediaControl Height="35" Margin="1,0,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Top" x:Name="mediaControls" Visibility="Visible"/> </Grid> thanks in advance, George

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  • Getting all the classes in project and their packages from CodeRush extension

    - by drasto
    I've spent some time trying to find a way CodeRush could add using when it finds undeclared element that is in the fact class name with no using added. The solution suggested in this answer to my question (Refactor_resolve) does not work (bugged?). In a process I found out that writing plug-ins for CodeRush is easy, so I decided to code this functionality myself (and share it). I'd only implement a CodeProvider (like in this tutorial). The only thinks I need to do the job are answers to this questions: At the start up of my plugin I need to get a list (set, map, whatever) of all classes and their packages. This means all the classes(interfaces...) and their packages in project, and within all referenced libraries. And I also need to receive updated on this (when user adds reference, creates new class). Can I get this from some CodeRush classes or maybe VS interface available from CodeProvider class? How do I add created CodeProvider to the pop-up that is shown when user hovers over an Issue?

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  • Java: using generic wildcards with subclassing

    - by gibberish
    Say I have a class Foo, a class A and some subclass B of A. Foo accepts A and its sublclasses as the generic type. A and B both require a Foo instance in their constructor. I want A's Foo to be of type A , and B's Foo to be of type B or a superclass of B. So in effect, So I only want this: Foo<X> bar = new Foo<X>; new B(bar); to be possible if X is either A, B, or a both subclass of A and superclass of B. So far this is what I have: class Foo<? extends A>{ //construct } class A(Foo<A> bar){ //construct } class B(Foo<? super B> bar){ super(bar); //construct } The call to super(...) doesn't work, because <A> is stricter than <? super B>. Is it somehow possible to use the constructor (or avoid code duplication by another means) while enforcing these types? Edit: Foo keeps a collection of elements of the generic parameter type, and these elements and Foo have a bidirectional link. It should therefore not be possible to link an A to a Foo.

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  • Why is short project lifetime and other situation-specific reasons used to excuse crappy code? [clos

    - by sharptooth
    Every now and then (including on SO) people say things implying that "if the project is short lived you can leave obvious defects there" or "that memory leak only accounts for 100 bytes per whole program lifetime and could be left". Now in my practice I always reuse company-owned code to the greatest extent I can. Like if I need something and I can find it in the company codebase I take it from there and reuse or adapt. This means that any crappy code will be reused as well and I might notice or not notice defects therein. So the defect in some "test we only need for a month" can slip into a proram we ship to customers. And a leak that "only accounted for 100 bytes per lifetime" now could account for 100 bytes 10 times per second in a server application intended to run for months. That's why I don't understand why excuses like that are offered. Is our compamy the only one having a source control? Or are we the only company that requires writing human-readable code? Could anyone shed a light on why people seriously offer such excuses?

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  • Issue with MOUSE_MOVE and MOUSE_OUT applied to stage

    - by poepje
    I'm having an issue with MOUSE_OUT being called while it shouldn't. What I'm doing is quite simple: two images are shown when I move the mouse across the stage, and when the mouse leaves the stage they are hidden. The problem is, that whenever the mouse hits the border of any movieclip on the stage, the MOUSE_OUT function gets called, hiding the two images. This means that whenever I move the mouse My code (only the relevant parts are shown): public class Slider extends MovieClip { var img1:Img1 = new Img1; var img2:Img2 = new Img2; var img1_hover:Img1_hover = new Img1_hover; var img2_hover:Img2_hover = new Img2_hover; public function Slider() { img1.alpha = 0; img2.alpha = 0; stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, showArrows); } function showArrows(e:MouseEvent) { img1.alpha = 1; img2.alpha = 1; stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, hideArrows); } function hideArrows(e:MouseEvent) { img1.alpha = 0; img2.alpha = 0; } } Flash throws no errors. I am using a separate .as file (just one) and have no code inside of the action panel in the .fla. Where there's stage.addEventListener, I also tried this., root. and nothing instead of stage.

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  • PL-SQL - Two statements with begin and end, run fine seperately but not together?

    - by Twiss
    Hi all, Just wondering if anyone can help with this, I have two PLSQL statements for altering tables (adding extra fields) and they are as follows: -- Make GC_NAB field for Next Action By Dropdown begin if 'VARCHAR2' = 'NUMBER' and length('VARCHAR2')>0 and length('')>0 then execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NAB VARCHAR2(10, ))'; elsif ('VARCHAR2' = 'NUMBER' and length('VARCHAR2')>0 and length('')=0) or 'VARCHAR2' = 'VARCHAR2' then execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NAB VARCHAR2(10))'; else execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NAB VARCHAR2)'; end if; commit; end; -- Make GC_NABID field for Next Action By Dropdown begin if 'NUMBER' = 'NUMBER' and length('NUMBER')>0 and length('')>0 then execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NABID NUMBER(, ))'; elsif ('NUMBER' = 'NUMBER' and length('NUMBER')>0 and length('')=0) or 'NUMBER' = 'VARCHAR2' then execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NABID NUMBER())'; else execute immediate 'alter table "SERVICEMAIL6"."ETD_GUESTCARE" add(GC_NABID NUMBER)'; end if; commit; end; When I run these two queries seperately, no problems. However, when run together as shown above, Oracle gives me an error when it starts the second statement: Error report: ORA-06550: line 15, column 1: PLS-00103: Encountered the symbol "BEGIN" 06550. 00000 - "line %s, column %s:\n%s" *Cause: Usually a PL/SQL compilation error. *Action: I'm assuming that this means the first statement is not terminated properly... is there anything I should put inbetween the statements to make it work properly? Thanks in advance everyone!

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  • How can variadic char template arguments from user defined literals be converted back into numeric types?

    - by Pubby
    This question is being asked because of this one. C++11 allows you to define literals like this for numeric literals: template<char...> OutputType operator "" _suffix(); Which means that 503_suffix would become <'5','0','3'> This is nice, although it isn't very useful in the form it's in. How can I transform this back into a numeric type? This would turn <'5','0','3'> into a constexpr 503. Additionally, it must also work on floating point literals. <'5','.','3> would turn into int 5 or float 5.3 A partial solution was found in the previous question, but it doesn't work on non-integers: template <typename t> constexpr t pow(t base, int exp) { return (exp > 0) ? base * pow(base, exp-1) : 1; }; template <char...> struct literal; template <> struct literal<> { static const unsigned int to_int = 0; }; template <char c, char ...cv> struct literal<c, cv...> { static const unsigned int to_int = (c - '0') * pow(10, sizeof...(cv)) + literal<cv...>::to_int; }; // use: literal<...>::to_int // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_int doesn't work // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_float not implemented

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  • If attacker has original data, and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require this extra table. I'm leaning towards the the one-way hash + extra table solution, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • Randomly sorting an array

    - by Cam
    Does there exist an algorithm which, given an ordered list of symbols {a1, a2, a3, ..., ak}, produces in O(n) time a new list of the same symbols in a random order without bias? "Without bias" means the probability that any symbol s will end up in some position p in the list is 1/k. Assume it is possible to generate a non-biased integer from 1-k inclusive in O(1) time. Also assume that O(1) element access/mutation is possible, and that it is possible to create a new list of size k in O(k) time. In particular, I would be interested in a 'generative' algorithm. That is, I would be interested in an algorithm that has O(1) initial overhead, and then produces a new element for each slot in the list, taking O(1) time per slot. If no solution exists to the problem as described, I would still like to know about solutions that do not meet my constraints in one or more of the following ways (and/or in other ways if necessary): the time complexity is worse than O(n). the algorithm is biased with regards to the final positions of the symbols. the algorithm is not generative. I should add that this problem appears to be the same as the problem of randomly sorting the integers from 1-k, since we can sort the list of integers from 1-k and then for each integer i in the new list, we can produce the symbol ai.

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  • SSE (SIMD extensions) support in gcc

    - by goldenmean
    Hi, I see a code as below: include "stdio.h" #define VECTOR_SIZE 4 typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); // vector of four single floats typedef union f4vector { v4sf v; float f[VECTOR_SIZE]; } f4vector; void print_vector (f4vector *v) { printf("%f,%f,%f,%f\n", v->f[0], v->f[1], v->f[2], v->f[3]); } int main() { union f4vector a, b, c; a.v = (v4sf){1.2, 2.3, 3.4, 4.5}; b.v = (v4sf){5., 6., 7., 8.}; c.v = a.v + b.v; print_vector(&a); print_vector(&b); print_vector(&c); } This code builds fine and works expectedly using gcc (it's inbuild SSE / MMX extensions and vector data types. this code is doing a SIMD vector addition using 4 single floats. I want to understand in detail what does each keyword/function call on this typedef line means and does: typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); What is the vector_size() function return; What is the __attribute__ keyword for Here is the float data type being type defined to vfsf type? I understand the rest part. thanks, -AD

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  • How do you handle the tension between refactoring and the need for merging?

    - by Xavier Nodet
    Hi, Our policy when delivering a new version is to create a branch in our VCS and handle it to our QA team. When the latter gives the green light, we tag and release our product. The branch is kept to receive (only) bug fixes so that we can create technical releases. Those bug fixes are subsequently merged on the trunk. During this time, the trunk sees the main development work, and is potentially subject to refactoring changes. The issue is that there is a tension between the need to have a stable trunk (so that the merge of bug fixes succeed -- it usually can't if the code has been e.g. extracted to another method, or moved to another class) and the need to refactor it when introducing new features. The policy in our place is to not do any refactoring before enough time has passed and the branch is stable enough. When this is the case, one can start doing refactoring changes on the trunk, and bug-fixes are to be manually committed on both the trunk and the branch. But this means that developpers must wait quite some time before committing on the trunk any refactoring change, because this could break the subsequent merge from the branch to the trunk. And having to manually port bugs from the branch to the trunk is painful. It seems to me that this hampers development... How do you handle this tension? Thanks.

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  • C++ BigInt multiplication conceptual problem

    - by Kapo
    I'm building a small BigInt library in C++ for use in my programming language. The structure is like the following: short digits[ 1000 ]; int len; I have a function that converts a string into a bigint by splitting it up into single chars and putting them into digits. The numbers in digits are all reversed, so the number 123 would look like the following: digits[0]=3 digits[1]=3 digits[2]=1 I have already managed to code the adding function, which works perfectly. It works somewhat like this: overflow = 0 for i ++ until length of both numbers exceeded: add numberA[ i ] to numberB[ i ] add overflow to the result set overflow to 0 if the result is bigger than 10: substract 10 from the result overflow = 1 put the result into numberReturn[ i ] (Overflow is in this case what happens when I add 1 to 9: Substract 10 from 10, add 1 to overflow, overflow gets added to the next digit) So think of how two numbers are stored, like those: 0 | 1 | 2 --------- A 2 - - B 0 0 1 The above represents the digits of the bigints 2 (A) and 100 (B). - means uninitialized digits, they aren't accessed. So adding the above number works fine: start at 0, add 2 + 0, go to 1, add 0, go to 2, add 1 But: When I want to do multiplication with the above structure, my program ends up doing the following: Start at 0, multiply 2 with 0 (eek), go to 1, ... So it is obvious that, for multiplication, I have to get an order like this: 0 | 1 | 2 --------- A - - 2 B 0 0 1 Then, everything would be clear: Start at 0, multiply 0 with 0, go to 1, multiply 0 with 0, go to 2, multiply 1 with 2 How can I manage to get digits into the correct form for multiplication? I don't want to do any array moving/flipping - I need performance!

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  • Android: How to periodically send location to a server

    - by Mark
    Hi, I am running a Web service that allows users to record their trips (kind of like Google's MyTracks) as part of a larger app. The thing is that it is easy to pass data, including coords and other items, to the server when a user starts a trip or ends it. Being a newbie, I am not sure how to set up a background service that sends the location updates once every (pre-determined) period (min 3 minutes, max 1 hr) until the user flags the end of the trip, or until a preset amount of time elapses. Once the trip is started from the phone, the server responds with a polling period for the phone to use as the interval between updates. This part works, in that I can display the response on the phone, and my server registers the user's action. Similarly, the trip is closed server-side upon the close trip request. However, when I tried starting a periodic tracking method from inside the StartTrack Activity, using requestLocationUpdates(String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener) where minTime is the poll period from the server, it just did not work, and I'm not getting any errors. So it means I'm clueless at this point, never having used Android before. I have seen many posts here on using background services with handlers, pending intents, and other things to do similar stuff, but I really don't understand how to do it. I would like the user to do other stuff on the phone while the updates are going on, so if you guys could point me to a tutorial that shows how to actually write background services (maybe these run as separate classes?) or other ways of doing this, that would be great. Thanks!

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  • Mouse management in JavaScript games

    - by Jakob
    Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Full Text Query

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have two tables in a SQL Server 2008 database in my company. The first table represents the products that my company sells. The second table contains the product manufacturer’s details. These tables are defined as follows: Product ------- ID Name ManufacturerID Description Manufacturer ------------ ID Name As you can imagine, I want to make this as easy as possible for our customers to query this data. However, I’m having problems writing a forgiving, yet powerful search query. For instance, I’m anticipating people to search based on phonetical spellings. Because of this, the data may not match the exact data in my database. In addition, I think some individuals will search by manufacturer’s name first, but I want the matching product names to appear first. Based on these requirements, I’m currently working on the following query: select p.Name as 'ProductName', m.Name as 'Manufacturer', r.Rank as 'Rank' from Product p inner join Manufacturer m on p.ManufacturerID=m.ID inner join CONTAINSTABLE(Product, Name, @searchQuery) as r Oddly, this query is throwing an error. However, I have no idea why. Squiggles appear to the right of the last parenthesis in management studio. The tool tip says "An expression of non-boolean type specified in a context where a condition is expected". I understand what this statement means. However, I guess I do not know how COntainsTable works. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

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  • How To Run MSBuild scripts in .wixproj?

    - by hisoka21
    Im trying to learn to make a web installer using Windows Installer XML (WIX 3.5). I found this blog about using msbuild in .wixproj files to avoid the scenario where the installer ends up dropping the web project assemblies right in the root of the app instead of keeping them in the bin folder like they're supposed to be. Here is the link to that: <http://www.paraesthesia.com/archive/2010/07/30/how-to-consume-msdeploy-staged-web-site-output-in-a.aspx But after adding the MSBuild scripts in the .wixproj file, I don't know what to do anymore. According to the instruction after adding the MSBuild script: "When that target runs, you'll see a .wxs file pop out in the .wixproj project folder. Add the generated .wxs to your .wixproj project so it knows to include it in the build." I really don7t know what this means. How can I run the target? I tried to build it but there was no .wxs file generated in the .wixproj folder. Am I missing something? Please help...

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  • How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

    - by mare
    Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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  • My python program always brings down my internet connection after several hours running, how do I debug and fix this problem?

    - by Shane
    I'm writing a python script checking/monitoring several server/websites status(response time and similar stuff), it's a GUI program and I use separate thread to check different server/website, and the basic structure of each thread is using an infinite while loop to request that site every random time period(15 to 30 seconds), once there's changes in website/server each thread will start a new thread to do a thorough check(requesting more pages and similar stuff). The problem is, my internet connection always got blocked/jammed/messed up after several hours running of this script, the situation is, from my script side I got urlopen error timed out each time it's requesting a page, and from my FireFox browser side I cannot open any site. But the weird thing is, the moment I close my script my Internet connection got back on immediately which means now I can surf any site through my browser, so it must be the script causing all the problem. I've checked the program carefully and even use del to delete any connection once it's used, still get the same problem. I only use urllib2, urllib, mechanize to do network requests. Anybody knows why such thing happens? How do I debug this problem? Is there a tool or something to check my network status once such situation occurs? It's really bugging me for a while... By the way I'm behind a VPN, does it have something to do with this problem? Although I don't think so because my network always get back on once the script closed, and the VPN connection never drops(as it appears) during the whole process.

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  • typedef a functions prototype

    - by bitmask
    I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

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  • object.valid? returns false but object.errors.full_messages is empty

    - by user549563
    Hello I'm confuse about objects that I can't save, simplified model is class Subscription < ActiveRecord::base belongs_to :user, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "user_id" has_many :transactions, :class_name => "SubscriptionTransaction" validates_presence_of :first_name, :message => "ne peut être vide" validates_presence_of :last_name, :message => "ne peut être vide" validates_presence_of :card_number, :message => "ne peut être vide" validates_presence_of :card_verification, :message => "ne peut être vide" validates_presence_of :card_type, :message => "ne peut être vide" validates_presence_of :card_expires_on, :message => "ne peut être vide" attr_accessor :card_number, :card_verification validate_on_create :validate_card def validate_card unless credit_card.valid? credit_card.errors.full_messages.each do |message| errors.add_to_base message end end end def credit_card @credit_card ||= ActiveMerchant::Billing::CreditCard.new( :type => card_type, :number => card_number, :verification_value => card_verification, :month => card_expires_on.month, :year => card_expires_on.year, :first_name => first_name, :last_name => last_name ) end end and in my subscription_controller if subscription.save # do something else debugger # means breakpoint where i try subscription.errors.full_messages # do something else end I tried to use ruby-debug for this adding a breakpoint before. And subscription.valid? return false which explains that ActiveRecord doesn't allow the save method. Unfortunately i can't know why the object is invalid. subscription.errors.full_messages # => [] I'm stucked, if you have any idea, thank you.

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  • Can knowing C actually hurt the code you write in higher level languages?

    - by Jurily
    The question seems settled, beaten to death even. Smart people have said smart things on the subject. To be a really good programmer, you need to know C. Or do you? I was enlightened twice this week. The first one made me realize that my assumptions don't go further than my knowledge behind them, and given the complexity of software running on my machine, that's almost non-existent. But what really drove it home was this Slashdot comment: The end result is that I notice the many naive ways in which traditional C "bare metal" programmers assume that higher level languages are implemented. They make bad "optimization" decisions in projects they influence, because they have no idea how a compiler works or how different a good runtime system may be from the naive macro-assembler model they understand. Then it hit me: C is just one more abstraction, like all others. Even the CPU itself is only an abstraction! I've just never seen it break, because I don't have the tools to measure it. I'm confused. Has my mind been mutilated beyond recovery, like Dijkstra said about BASIC? Am I living in a constant state of premature optimization? Is there hope for me, now that I realized I know nothing about anything? Is there anything to know, even? And why is it so fascinating, that everything I've written in the last five years might have been fundamentally wrong? To sum it up: is there any value in knowing more than the API docs tell me? EDIT: Made CW. Of course this also means now you must post examples of the interpreter/runtime optimizing better than we do :)

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  • In SVG is there a way to grab a shape anywhere when it has fill = "none"

    - by Shaunwithanau
    I have a series of shapes that I want the user to be able click anywhere on the shape to pick up as part of a drag and drop feature. All of these shapes are bounded by a rectangle. For example: <g id="shape1" fill="none" stroke="black"> <rect x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100"/> <circle cx="50" cy="50" r="50"/> </g> <g id="shape2" fill="none" stroke="black"> <rect x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100"/> <line x1="0" y1="0" x2="50" y2="100"/> <line x1="100" y1="0" x2="50" y2="100"/> </g> I already have all of the drag and drop parts working, the problem is all of these shapes have to have fill="none" so you can see anything that may be underneath of them. This means that even though they are bounded by the rectangle, at the moment users have to physically click on one of the lines in order to pick it up instead of being able to click anywhere on the shape like I want. My original idea was to use fill="white" and then set opacity="0" or some really low value but this applies to the stroke as well so this didn't work out. Any ideas on how I can get this working?

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