Search Results

Search found 20755 results on 831 pages for 'custom map'.

Page 305/831 | < Previous Page | 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312  | Next Page >

  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

    Read the article

  • Crash generated during destruction of hash_map

    - by Alien01
    I am using hash_map in application as typedef hash_map<DWORD,CComPtr<IInterfaceXX>> MapDword2Interface; In main application I am using static instance of this map static MapDword2Interface m_mapDword2Interface; I have got one crash dump from one of the client machines which point to the crash in clearing this map I opened that crash dump and here is assembly during debugging > call std::list<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> >,std::allocator<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> > > >::clear > mov eax,dword ptr [CMainApp::m_mapDword2Interface+8 (49XXXXX)] Here is code where crash dump is pointing. Below code is from stl:list file void clear() { // erase all #if _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING this->_Orphan_ptr(*this, 0); #endif /* _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING */ _Nodeptr _Pnext; _Nodeptr _Pnode = _Nextnode(_Myhead); _Nextnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Prevnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Mysize = 0; for (; _Pnode != _Myhead; _Pnode = _Pnext) { // delete an element _Pnext = _Nextnode(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.deallocate(_Pnode, 1); } } Crash is pointing to the this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); statement in above code. I am not able to guess it, what could be reason. Any ideas??? How can I make sure, even is there is something wrong with the map , it should not crash?

    Read the article

  • Importing into a Exported object with MEF

    - by Nathan W
    I'm sorry if this question has already been asked 100 times, but I'm really struggling to get it to work. Say I have have three projects. Core.dll Has common interfaces Shell.exe Loads all modules in assembly folder. References Core.dll ModuleA.dll Exports Name, Version of module. References Core.dll Shell.exe has a [Export] that contains an single instance of a third party application that I need to inject into all loaded modules. So far the code that I have in Shell.exe is: static void Main(string[] args) { ThirdPartyApp map = new ThirdPartyApp(); var ad = new AssemblyCatalog(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); var dircatalog = new DirectoryCatalog("."); var a = new AggregateCatalog(dircatalog, ad); // Not to sure what to do here. } class Test { [Export(typeof(ThirdPartyApp))] public ThirdPartyApp Instance { get; set; } [Import(typeof(IModule))] public IModule Module { get; set; } } I need to create a instance of Test, and load Instance with map from the Main method then load the Module from ModuleA.dll that is in the executing directory then [Import] Instance into the loaded module. In ModuleA I have a class like this: [Export(IModule)] class Module : IModule { [Import(ThirdPartyApp)] public ThirdPartyApp Instance {get;set;} } I know I'm half way there I just don't know how to put it all together, mainly with loading up test with a instance of map from Main. Could anyone help me with this.

    Read the article

  • RESTful copy/move operations?

    - by ladenedge
    I am trying to design a RESTful filesystem-like service, and copy/move operations are causing me some trouble. First of all, uploading a new file is done using a PUT to the file's ultimate URL: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> The question is, what if the new file already resides on the system under a different URL? Copy/move Idea 1: PUTs with custom headers. This is similar to S3's copy. A PUT that looks the same as the upload, but with a custom header: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> X-custom-source: /files/5 This is nice because it's easy to change the file's name at copy/move time. However, S3 doesn't offer a move operation, perhaps because a move using this scheme won't be idempotent. Copy/move Idea 2: POST to parent folder. This is similar to the Google Docs copy. A POST to the destination folder with XML content describing the source file: POST /folders/42/contents ... <source>/files/5</source> <newName>foo</newName> I might be able to POST to the file's new URL to change its name..? Otherwise I'm stuck with specifying a new name in the XML content, which amplifies the RPCness of this idea. It's also not as consistent with the upload operation as idea 1. Ultimately I'm looking for something that's easy to use and understand, so in addition to criticism of the above, new ideas are certainly welcome!

    Read the article

  • Any merit to a lazy-ish juxt function?

    - by NielsK
    In answering a question about a function that maps over multiple functions with the same arguments (A: juxt), I came up with a function that basically took the same form as juxt, but used map: (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply %1 %2) funs (repeat args)))) => ((juxt inc dec str) 1) [2 0 "1"] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt inc dec str) 1) (2 0 "1") => ((juxt * / -) 6 2) [12 3 4] => ((could-be-lazy-juxt * / -) 6 2) (12 3 4) As posted in the original question, I have little clue about the laziness or performance of it, but timing in the REPL does suggest something lazy-ish is going on. => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.097198 msecs" [4950 -4948] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 1 100))) "Elapsed time: 0.074558 msecs" (4950 -4948) => (time (apply (juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 1019.317913 msecs" [49999995000000 -49999995000000] => (time (apply (could-be-lazy-juxt + -) (range 10000000))) "Elapsed time: 0.070332 msecs" (49999995000000 -49999995000000) I'm sure this function is not really that quick (the print of the outcome 'feels' about as long in both). Doing a 'take x' on the function only limits the amount of functions evaluated, which probably is limited in it's applicability, and limiting the other parameters by 'take' should be just as lazy in normal juxt. Is this juxt really lazy ? Would a lazy juxt bring anything useful to the table, for instance as a compositing step between other lazy functions ? What are the performance (mem / cpu / object count / compilation) implications ? Is that why the Clojure juxt implementation is done with a reduce and returns a vector ? Edit: Somehow things can always be done simpler in Clojure. (defn could-be-lazy-juxt [& funs] (fn [& args] (map #(apply % args) funs)))

    Read the article

  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

    Read the article

  • Migrating from a single entity to an abstract parent entity with child entities, NSEntityMigrationPolicy not called.

    - by Jimmy Selgen Nielsen
    Hi. I'm trying to upgrade my current application to use an abstract parent entity, with specialized sub entities. I've created a custom NSEntityMigrationPolicy, and in the mapping model I've set the Custom Policy to the name of my class. I'm initializing my persistent store like this, which should be fairly standard : NSError *error=nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel: [self managedObjectModel]]; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:options error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Error adding persistent store : %@",[error description]); NSAssert(error==nil,[error localizedDescription]); } When i run the app i get the following error : Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 134140.)' [error userInfo] contains "reason=Can't find mapping model for migration" I've verified that version 1 of the data model will open, and if i set NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption i get a migration, although my entities are not migrated correctly (as expected). I've verified that the mapping model (cdm) is in the application bundle, but somehow it refuses to find it. I've also set breakpoints and NSLog() statements in the custom migration policy, and none of it runs, with or without NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption Any hints as to why it seems unable to find the mapping model ?

    Read the article

  • Testing InlineFormset clean methods

    - by Rory
    I have a Django project, with 2 models, a Structure and Bracket, the Bracket has a ForeignKey to a Structure (i.e. one-to-many, one Structure has many Brackets). I created a TabularInline for the admin site, so that there would be a table of Brackets on the Structure. I added a custom formset with some a custom clean method to do some extra validation, you can't have a Bracket that conflicts with another Bracket on the same Structure etc. The admin looks like this: class BracketInline(admin.TabularInline): model = Bracket formset = BracketInlineFormset class StructureAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = [ BracketInline ] admin.site.register(Structure, StructureAdmin) That all works, and the validation works. However now I want to write some unittest to test my complex formset validation logic. My first attempt to validate known-good values is: data = {'form-TOTAL_FORMS': '1', 'form-INITIAL_FORMS': '0', 'form-MAX_NUM_FORMS': '', 'form-0-field1':'good-value', … } formset = BracketInlineFormset(data) self.assertTrue(formset.is_valid()) However that doesn't work and raises the exception: ====================================================================== ERROR: testValid (appname.tests.StructureTestCase) ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Traceback (most recent call last): File "/paht/to/project/tests.py", line 494, in testValid formset = BracketInlineFormset(data) File "/path/to/django/forms/models.py", line 672, in __init__ self.instance = self.fk.rel.to() AttributeError: 'BracketInlineFormset' object has no attribute 'fk' ---------------------------------------------------------------------- The Django documentation (for formset validation) implies one can do this. How come this isn't working? How do I test the custom clean()/validation for my inline formset?

    Read the article

  • JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

    - by prabu
    Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

    Read the article

  • Solr/Lucene Scorer

    - by TFor
    We are currently working on a proof-of-concept for a client using Solr and have been able to configure all the features they want except the scoring. Problem is that they want scores that make results fall in buckets: Bucket 1: exact match on category (score = 4) Bucket 2: exact match on name (score = 3) Bucket 3: partial match on category (score = 2) Bucket 4: partial match on name (score = 1) First thing we did was develop a custom similarity class that would return the correct score depending on the field and an exact or partial match. The only problem now is that when a document matches on both the category and name the scores are added together. Example: searching for "restaurant" returns documents in the category restaurant that also have the word restaurant in their name and thus get a score of 5 (4+1) but they should only get 4. I assume for this to work we would need to develop a custom Scorer class but we have no clue on how to incorporate this in Solr. Another option is to create a custom SortField implementation similar to the RandomSortField already present in Solr. Maybe there is even a simpler solution that we don't know about. All suggestions welcome!

    Read the article

  • Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

    Read the article

  • How to create Automation Add In Formula/Function and Excel Add In buttons (vsto) for them together?

    - by ticky
    Ok, let me explain it little bit better. Here is one example how to create formula/functions http://blogs.msdn.com/b/eric_carter/archive/2004/12/01/273127.aspx?PageIndex=1#comments I implemented something like that, I even added values in registry, so that this Automation AddIn doesn't have to be added manually in Excel, but automatically.. I created SETUP project for this project and it works GREAT. Then.. After some time, I wanted to create buttons in Excel for functions that I use. Those are custom functions, using some web services. I created Excel AddIn and added Ribbon with buttons - one button = one custom function. I can publish this project and I am creating VSTO, so this way, I can install excel ribbon buttons in custom group of mine. Now, I have 2 installations, first for Automation AddIn and second for Excel AddIn. How can I connect them? I tried to include VSTO to Setup - something like this: [I WILL ADD IT LATER] When I install it, it works great, it installs both parts. But when I install on my friends computer, it doesn't shows Ribbon buttons. What could be the problem? If there is some other way to integrate those two, I would be very grateful!!!!! Thanks! Tijana

    Read the article

  • Invoking a function (main()) from a binary file in C

    - by Dhara Darji
    I have simple c program like, my_bin.c: #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Success!\n"); return 0; } I compile it with gcc and got executable: my_bin. Now I want to invoke main (or run this my_bin) using another C program. That I did with mmap and function pointer like this: #include <stdio.h> #include <fcntl.h> #include <sys/mman.h> int main() { void (*fun)(); int fd; int *map; fd = open("./my_bin", O_RDONLY); map = mmap(0, 8378, PROT_READ, MAP_SHARED, fd, 0); fun = map; fun(); return 0; } PS: I went through some tutorial, for how to read binary file and execute. But this gives Seg fault, any help appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Jquery Returning values to original

    - by Cam
    So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

    Read the article

  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to return array of C++ objects from a PHP extension

    - by John Factorial
    I need to have my PHP extension return an array of objects, but I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I have a Graph object written in C++. Graph.getNodes() returns a std::map<int, Node*>. Here's the code I have currently: struct node_object { zend_object std; Node *node; }; zend_class_entry *node_ce; then PHP_METHOD(Graph, getNodes) { Graph *graph; GET_GRAPH(graph, obj) // a macro I wrote to populate graph node_object* n; zval* node_zval; if (obj == NULL) { RETURN_NULL(); } if (object_init_ex(node_zval, node_ce) != SUCCESS) { RETURN_NULL(); } std::map nodes = graph-getNodes(); array_init(return_value); for (std::map::iterator i = nodes.begin(); i != nodes.end(); ++i) { php_printf("X"); n = (node_object*) zend_object_store_get_object(node_zval TSRMLS_CC); n-node = i-second; add_index_zval(return_value, i-first, node_zval); } php_printf("]"); } When i run php -r '$g = new Graph(); $g->getNodes();' I get the output XX]Segmentation fault meaning the getNodes() function loops successfully through my 2-node list, returns, then segfaults. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Reading strings and integers from .txt file and printing output as strings only

    - by screename71
    Hello, I'm new to C++, and I'm trying to write a short C++ program that reads lines of text from a file, with each line containing one integer key and one alphanumeric string value (no embedded whitespace). The number of lines is not known in advance, (i.e., keep reading lines until end of file is reached). The program needs to use the 'std::map' data structure to store integers and strings read from input (and to associate integers with strings). The program then needs to output string values (but not integer values) to standard output, 1 per line, sorted by integer key values (smallest to largest). So, for example, suppose I have a text file called "data.txt" which contains the following three lines: 10 dog -50 horse 0 cat -12 zebra 14 walrus The output should then be: horse zebra cat dog walrus I've pasted below the progress I've made so far on my C++ program: #include <fstream> #include <iostream> #include <map> using namespace std; using std::map; int main () { string name; signed int value; ifstream myfile ("data.txt"); while (! myfile.eof() ) { getline(myfile,name,'\n'); myfile >> value >> name; cout << name << endl; } return 0; myfile.close(); } Unfortunately, this produces the following incorrect output: horse cat zebra walrus If anyone has any tips, hints, suggestions, etc. on changes and revisions I need to make to the program to get it to work as needed, can you please let me know? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • NHibernate mapping with two special cases

    - by brainimus
    I am using NHibernate to map a class to a database table. The Part table has an ID column (primary key) and a ParentPart column (along with a few others). class Part { public virtual long ID{ get; set; } public virtual Part ParentPart { get; set; } } The ParentPart is normally another valid part in the part table but I have two special cases. I have a case where the ParentPart column can be 0 (zero) and another case where it can be -1. Neither of these cases currently represent another valid Part object. I was thinking I could make 2 subclasses of Part (ZeroPart and NegativeOnePart) that would never persist. I want the zero and -1 values to be entered in the column but not persist the entire ZeroPart or NegativeOnePart objects. I am unsure how to map this (I'm using hbm files) or if this even the correct approach. How can I map this so that normal valid parts are persisted but I can also handle the special cases? As an aside: My current hbm file has the Part.ID's unsaved value as zero but I think I can just change this in the mapping to something different and default it in the class.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C properties are not being recognized in header file?

    - by Greg
    Hey folks, I wonder if I'm doing something completely stupid here... I'm clearly missing something. I've gotten used to the pattern of defining properties of a custom class, however I seem to be hitting a point where extended classes do not recognize new properties. Case of point, here's my header file: import import "MyTableViewController.h" @interface MyRootController : MyTableViewController { NSMutableArray *sectionList; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *sectionList; @end Now, for some reason that "sectionList" property is not turning green within my interface file (ie: it's not being recognized as custom property it seems). As a result, I'm getting all kinds of errors down in my implementation. The first is right at the top of my implementation where I try to synthesize the property: import "MyRootController.h" @implementation MyRootController @synthesize sectionList; That synthesize line throws the error "No declaration of property 'sectionList' found in the interface". So, this is really confusing. I'm clearly doing something wrong, although I can't put my finger on what. One thought: I am extending another custom class of my own. Do I need to specify some kind of super-class declaration to keep the architecture from getting sealed one level up? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SSRS code variable resetting on new page

    - by edmicman
    In SSRS 2008 I am trying to maintain a SUM of SUMs on a group using custom Code. The reason is that I have a table of data, grouped and returning SUMs of the data. I have a filter on the group to remove lines where group sums are zero. Everything works except I'm running into problems with the group totals - it should be summing the visible group totals but is instead summing the entire dataset. There's tons of articles about how to work around this, usually using custom code. I've made custom functions and variables to maintain a counter: Public Dim GroupMedTotal as Integer Public Dim GrandMedTotal as Integer Public Function CalcMedTotal(ThisValue as Integer) as Integer GroupMedTotal = GroupMedTotal + ThisValue GrandMedTotal = GrandMedTotal + ThisValue Return ThisValue End Function Public Function ReturnMedSubtotal() as Integer Dim ThisValue as Integer = GroupMedTotal GroupMedTotal = 0 Return ThisValue End Function Basically CalcMedTotal is fed a SUM of a group, and maintains a running total of that sum. Then in the group total line I output ReturnMedSubtotal which is supposed to give me the accumulated total and reset it for the next group. This actually works great, EXCEPT - it is resetting the GroupMedTotal value on each page break. I don't have page breaks explicitly set, it's just the natural break in the SSRS viewer. And if I export the results to Excel everything works and looks correctly. If I output Code.GroupMedTotal on each group row, I see it count correctly, and then if a group spans multiple pages on the next page GroupMedTotal is reset and begins counting from zero again. Any help in what's going on or how to work around this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • I Cannot retrieve ARPINSTALLLOCATION so we know where to install a new version [WIX]

    - by Birkoff
    I am trying to retrieve the ARPINSTALLLOCATION during the installation of a Major Upgrade version of the software. Following this info I managed to set the ARPINSTALLLOCATION to the custom path. However, retrieving it again isn't working. I've tried many things over the past days but it keeps defaulting back to the default installation path instead of the custom one. <InstallUISequence> <AppSearch After="FindRelatedProducts"/> ... </InstallUISequence> <Property Id="WIXUI_INSTALLDIR" Value="APPROOTDIRECTORY"> <RegistrySearch Id="FindInstallLocation" Root="HKLM" Key="Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall\[OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED]" Name="InstallLocation" Type="raw" /> </Property> In the custom WixUI_InstallDir UI I have this in the CustomInstallDirDlg <Control Id="Folder" Type="PathEdit" X="20" Y="90" Width="260" Height="18" Property="WIXUI_INSTALLDIR" Indirect="yes" /> The alternative install path is in the registry, but it isn't retrieved and shown in the control. What am I doing wrong here? -Birkoff

    Read the article

  • Magento delete some scripts

    - by Patrik van Dendis
    Hi I use a magento for my e-commerce. I have custom design, but when I show my source code I can see some scripts and css styles after my footer. I want edit it but I dont know where. <!--{%FOOTER_LINK}--> </div> </div> <script type='text/javascript' src='//www.beetailer.com/javascripts/beetailer.js'></script> <style type="text/css"> div.share-buttons {margin-top: 5px; margin-bottom: 2px; height: 28px; vertical-align: middle; text-align: justify} div.share-buttons-fb-like {width: 260px;} div.share-custom-container {width: 260px;} .share-buttons-fb-like .share-custom-container span {width: 260px !important;} iframe.fb_ltr {width: 260px !important;} div.top-container {margin-bottom: 0px; text-align: justify} .header-container .top-container {margin-bottom: 0px; text-align: justify} .header-container {margin-bottom: 0px;} div.share-buttons-og { margin-right: 5px !important;} .og-want {margin-top: 2px !important;} .og-own {margin-top: 2px !important;} </style>

    Read the article

  • ecommerce platform or from scratch? customer specific catalogs and purchase orders

    - by rafi
    I have a possible freelance job in front of me for a distributor who wants product ordering set up but the orders are all P.O.s basically - no actual credit card or paypal transaction. The customer is simply billed and the order archived. Customers will need to login to this site and each customer will have their own custom catalog of a few dozen products which have been setup via a control panel this distributor uses. So there will be a master catalog of over 1,000 products (perhaps browsable but not to be ordered from on the site) but each customer will only be able to order from the products specified for their accounts. I know I can build this from scratch but I figured it's worth looking into what ecommerce platforms would get me a nice head start. Obviously shopping cart, order history, catalog management are concepts that I can reuse but are any of the ecommerce systems out there also capable of handling custom catalogs (maybe as multi-stores?) or transactions billed to accounts without credit card? The more I could reuse the better. I've messed with OSCommerce (way back) and a little Zen Cart more recently. I've also worked on a number of totally custom e-commerce sites. But my knowledge of the open source e-commerce tools is pretty limited and I'm trying to keep the effort as simple as I possibly can on this. I'm pretty flexible on the language of the platform by the way. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312  | Next Page >