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  • How to set UCS2 in numpy?

    - by mindcorrosive
    I'm trying to build numpy 1.2.1 as a module for a third-party python interpreter (custom-built, py2.4 linux x86_64) so that I can make calls to numpy from within it. Let's call this one interpreter A. The thing is, the system-wide python interpreter (also py2.4, let's call it B) from the vendor is built with --enable-unicode=ucs4, while the custom one is with UCS2. Needless to say, when I try to build a module with B, I get an error when I try to import numpy in A -- it complains about undefined symbol _PyUnicodeUCS4_IsWhiteSpace. I've searched around and apparently there's no way around this but to compile a custom Python interpreter -- which I did (let's call it interpreter C), properly specifying the unicode string length (verifiable through sys.maxunicode). I managed to build numpy with C as well, surprisingly enough, but still the problem persists when I try to import it in interpreter C. Previously, when I built numpy using B, there were no problems when importing it in B, but A would complain. Perhaps there's an option when building numpy to specify the length of Unicode strings to be used, as when configuring Python builds? Or am I doing something else wrong? A few notes: Upgrading to newer versions of python and/or numpy is not an option - interpreter A will stay on this version of the grammar for the foreseeable future. Also, it is not possible to start the interpreter A in standalone mode to build numpy with it, as it needs some other libraries preloaded I know that this whole thing is a mess, but I'd appreciate any help I can get to make this work. If you need more information, please let me know, I'd be happy to oblige. Thanks to everybody for their time in advance.

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  • Biztalk vs API for databroker layer

    - by jdt199
    My company is about to undergo a large project in which our client wants a large customer portal with a cms, crm implementing. This will require interaction with data from multiple sources across our customers business, these sources include XML office backend systems, sql datbases, webservices etc. Our proposed solution would be to write an API in c# to provide a common interface with all these systems. This would be scalable for future and concurrent projects within the company. Our client expressed an interest in using Biztalk rather than a custom API for this integration, as they feel it is an enterprise solution that any of their suppliers could pick up and use, and it will be better supported. We feel that the configuration work using Biztalk would be rather heavy for all their custom business rules which are required and an interface for the new application to get data to and from Biztalk would still need to be written. Are we right to prefer a custom API solution above Biztalk? Would Biztalk be suitable as a databroker layer to provide an interface for the new Customer portal we are writing. We have not experience with using Biztalk before so any input would be appreciated.

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  • jQuery Autocomplete with _renderItem and catagories

    - by LillyPop
    As a newb to jQuery im wondering if its possible to have both jQuery _renderItem (for custom list item HTML/CSS) AND the categories working together in harmony? Ive got my _renderItem working great but I have no idea how to incorporate categories into the mix. My code so far $(document).ready(function () { $(':input[data-autocomplete]').each(function () { $(':input[data-autocomplete]').autocomplete({ source: $(this).attr("data-autocomplete") }).data("autocomplete")._renderItem = function (ul, item) { var MyHtml = "<a>" + "<div class='ac' >" + "<div class='ac_img_wrap' >" + '<img src="../../uploads/' + item.imageUrl + '.jpg"' + 'width="40" height="40" />' + "</div>" + "<div class='ac_mid' >" + "<div class='ac_name' >" + item.value + "</div>" + "<div class='ac_info' >" + item.info + "</div>" + "</div>" + "</div>" + "</a>"; return $("<li></li>").data("item.autocomplete", item).append(MyHtml).appendTo(ul); }; }); }); The jQuery documentation for the autocomplete gives the following code example : $.widget("custom.catcomplete", $.ui.autocomplete, { _renderMenu: function (ul, items) { var self = this, currentCategory = ""; $.each(items, function (index, item) { if (item.category != currentCategory) { ul.append("<li class='ui-autocomplete-category'>" + item.category + "</li>"); currentCategory = item.category; } self._renderItem(ul, item); }); } }); Id like to get my custom HTML (_renderItem) and categories working together, can anyone help me to merge these two together or point me in the right direction. Thanks

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  • Is there a fast alternative to creating a Texture2D from a Bitmap object in XNA?

    - by Matthew Bowen
    I've looked around a lot and the only methods I've found for creating a Texture2D from a Bitmap are: using (MemoryStream s = new MemoryStream()) { bmp.Save(s, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Png); s.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); Texture2D tx = Texture2D.FromFile(device, s); } and Texture2D tx = new Texture2D(device, bmp.Width, bmp.Height, 0, TextureUsage.None, SurfaceFormat.Color); tx.SetData<byte>(rgbValues, 0, rgbValues.Length, SetDataOptions.NoOverwrite); Where rgbValues is a byte array containing the bitmap's pixel data in 32-bit ARGB format. My question is, are there any faster approaches that I can try? I am writing a map editor which has to read in custom-format images (map tiles) and convert them into Texture2D textures to display. The previous version of the editor, which was a C++ implementation, converted the images first into bitmaps and then into textures to be drawn using DirectX. I have attempted the same approach here, however both of the above approaches are significantly too slow. To load into memory all of the textures required for a map takes for the first approach ~250 seconds and for the second approach ~110 seconds on a reasonable spec computer. If there is a method to edit the data of a texture directly (such as with the Bitmap class's LockBits method) then I would be able to convert the custom-format images straight into a Texture2D and hopefully save processing time. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Code Organization Connundrum: Web Project With Multiple Supporting DLLs?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to get a handle on the best practice for code organization within my project. I have looked around on the internet for good examples and, so far, I have seen examples of a web project with one or multiple supporting class libraries that it references or a web project with sub-folders that follow its namespace conventions. Assuming there is no right answer, this is what I currently have for code organization: MyProjectWeb This is my web site. I am referencing my class libraries here. MyProject.DLL As the base namespace, I am using this DLL for files that need to be generally consumable. For example, my class "Enums" that has all the enumerations in my project lives there. As does class MyProjectException for all exception handling. MyProject.IO.DLL This is a grouping of maybe 20 files that handle file upload and download (so far). MyProject.Utilities.DLL ALl my common classes and methods bunched up together in one generally consumable DLL. Each class follows a "XHelper" convention such as "SqlHelper, AuthHelper, SerializationHelper, and so on... MyProject.Web.DLL I am using this DLL as the main client interface. Right now, the majority of class files here are: 1) properties (such as School, Location, Account, Posts) 2) authorization stuff ( such as custom membership, custom role, & custom profile providers) My question is simply - does this seem logical? Also, how do I avoid having to cross reference DLLs from one project library to the next? For example, MyProject.Web.DLL uses code from MyProject.Utilities.DLL and MyProject.Utilities.DLL uses code from MyProject.DLL. Is this solved by clicking on properties and selecting "Dependencies"? I tried that but still don't seem to be accessing the namespaces of the assembly I have selected. Do I have to reference every assembly I need for each class library? Responses appreciated and thanks for your patience.

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  • ASP.NET Loading a User Control in a Repeater

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have a Repeater control that loads instances of a custom control I have built. This repeater looks like this: <asp:Repeater ID="myRepeater" runat="server" OnLoad="myRepeater_Load"> <HeaderTemplate> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr><td><my:CustomControl ID="myControl" runat="server" OnLoad="myControl_Load" /> </td></tr> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </table> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I bind to the Repeater through the myRepeater_Load event handler. My custom control is used to render an item within the Repeater. Because of this, I am trying to set properties on the custom control during the myControl_Load event handler. However, I do not know how to access the current item during the myControl_Load event. Is there a way I can pass along the current item or access the current item during the myControl_Load event? If so, how? Thank you,

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  • Getting coordinates when clicking anywhere on a MapView

    - by DixieFlatline
    I just cant get this working. I tried using the code below with onTouchEventand and it doesn't work. If i return true at the end of the method, i get the toast with the coordinates but can't move a map, and if i return false, i can move a map but cant display a toast after the user clicks on a map. If i get it right, the other onTap method is used only for clicking on a overlays. Has anybody figured this thiing out? public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent arg0, MapView arg1) { //super.onTouchEvent(arg0); int akcija = arg0.getAction(); if(akcija == MotionEvent.ACTION_UP){ if(!premik) { Projection proj = mapView.getProjection(); GeoPoint loc = proj.fromPixels((int)arg0.getX(), (int)arg0.getY()); String sirina=Double.toString(loc.getLongitudeE6()/1000000); String dolzina=Double.toString(loc.getLatitudeE6()/1000000); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Širina: "+sirina+" Dolzina: "+dolzina, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); } } else if (akcija == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN){ premik= false; } else if (akcija== MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE){ premik = true; } return false; //return super.onTouchEvent(arg0); }

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • How can I access mainframe data with .Net applications and SQL Queries?

    - by orandov
    We have a large amount of data stored on an IBM mainframe using VSAM files. A lot of this data is dropped on the network every night in the form of text files to be processed and dumped into FoxPro and SQL Server databases. There are also many text files produced nightly by custom applications that get uploaded to the mainframe to keep everything in sync. Keeping the everything in sync is very tricky, to say the least. We are not getting rid of the mainframe any time soon and we would like to replace all the nightly batch processing with real time access to the mainframe data. We would like to be able to: Read data directly from the mainframe and produce reports based on it. Possibly using SQL queries. Read and Write data from custom .Net applications. We are not looking for a new platform to interface with the mainframe like Information Builders offers. We don't want to build application modules or reports with new "Business Intelligence" tools. We already know how to generate reports and write custom applications using SQL,.Net, Visual Studio, etc. All we are looking for is some sort of adapter to connect to our mainframe data. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • java and threads: very strange behaviour

    - by Derk
    private synchronized Map<Team, StandingRow> calculateStanding() { System.out.println("Calculate standing for group " + getName()); Map<Team, StandingRow> standing = new LinkedHashMap<Team, StandingRow>(); for (Team team : teams) { standing.put(team, new StandingRow(team)); } StandingRow homeTeamRow, awayTeamRow; for (Match match : matches.values()) { homeTeamRow = standing.get(match.getHomeTeam()); awayTeamRow = standing.get(match.getAwayTeam()); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getHomeTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getHomeTeam())); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getAwayTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getAwayTeam())); } } This is my code. matches contains 6 elements, but the problem is that after two matches no keys are anymore found in the standing map. The output is for example Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: true Contains key for Mexico: true Contains key for Uruguay: true Contains key for Frankrijk: true Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false This is in a threaded environment, but the method is synchronized so I thought that this would not give a problem? I have also a simple unit test for this method and that works well.

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  • Core Data - 'calculated' attributes

    - by nephilim
    I have two entities: A and B A has two properties from and to, both pointing to the B entity. B as a fetched property to A with predicate from == $FETCH_SOURCE or to = $FETCH_SOURCE -- (from) -> A -- (to) -> B <- (As) -- In my application I select a certain B instance, and then show all of its A instances. Now, in my table the columns are bound to an array controller containing the selected A instances. I want to 'merge' the from and to columns. I already know one of the columns will be equal to the selected B instance, so now I'm only interested in the second value. The options I see: create a custom class for the B entity and create a method that returns either value. It should somehow be able to retrieve which B instance is currently selected. create a custom DataSource. Most columns are still using bindings, so then we'd have to access the NSArrayController's array so we're sure we have the right object. create a custom DataSource, remove the NSArrayController and do all the Core Data stuff ourselves. Is there any 'right' way to solve this?

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  • Using jQuery tools from within GWT -- is there a way to allow exchanges?

    - by culov
    I have a GWT web-app with a nearly full page Google map window. Inside the the map, I have infowindows which include links. What I want to do is use jquery tools overlays (http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/apple.html) to open the overlay and display it on top of the map once the link inside the info window is clicked. Now, the link source is generated dynamically, and it is hosted on a different server, so i have to open it in an iframe and set the source of the iframe before it opens. this seems simple enough since i only have 1 iframe on the page: function changeSource(url){ $("#menuIFrame").attr("src",url); } To call this before opening the overlay (which is done on mouse release), i create the following element in the google maps infowindow via GWT: <a href="http://whatever.com/menu/" onClick="changeSource('http://whatever.com/menu/');" rel=#menu"> View menu </a> Jquery tools works by opening whatever div has the id assigned to the value of 'rel', but because i have my javascript/jquery on my LandingPage.html in GWT, there appears to be some sort of disconnect between the two because the changeSource function is never called AND the overlay is never added to the window. Here's my app: http://truxmapper.appspot.com/ As you can see, the other overlays will work fine, but once you click an infowindow and try to view the menu, it will simply use the href to open the url in that window. Does anyone know of a solution that will allow me to accomplish my goal? Thanks!

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  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

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  • Where to post code for open source usage?

    - by Douglas
    I've been working for a few weeks now with the Google Maps API v3, and have done a good bit of development for the map I've been creating. Some of the things I've done have had to be done to add usability where there previously was not any, at least not that I could find online. Essentially, I made a list of what had to be done, searched all over the web for the ways to do what I needed, and found that some were not(at the time) possible(in the "grab an example off the web" sense). Thus, in my working on this map, I have created a number of very useful tools, which I would like to share with the development community. Is there anywhere I could use as a hub, apart from my portfolio ( http://dougglover.com ), to allow people to view and recycle my work? I know how hard it can be to need to do something, and be unable to find the solution elsewhere, and I don't think that if something has been done before, it should necessarily need to be written again and again. Hence open source code, right? Firstly, I was considering coming on here and asking a question, and then just answering it. Problem there is I assume that would just look like a big reputation grab. If not, please let me know and I'll go ahead and do that so people here can see it. Other suggestions appreciated. Some stuff I've made: A (new and improved) LatLng generator Works quicker, generates LatLng based on position of a draggable marker Allows searching for an address to place the marker on/near the desired location(much better than having to scroll to your location all the way from Siberia) Since it's a draggable marker, double-clicking zooms in, instead of creating a new LatLng marker like the one I was originally using The ability to create entirely custom "Smart Paths" Plot LatLng points on the map which connect to each other just like they do using the actual Google Maps Using Dijkstra's algorithm with Javascript, the routing is intelligent and always gives the shortest possible route, using the points provided Simple, easy to read multi-dimensional array system allows for easily adding new points to the grid Any suggestions, etc. appreciated.

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  • SPWorkflowCollection on SPListItem is always empty

    - by armannvg
    Hi I'm having a problem relating to Sharepoint workflows and the associated task list. I have 2 custom workflows that we created for our product. They both use the same Task list that has a custom content type that inherits from the Task content type. Now I have a case where a running workflow has been deleted via the list has been deleted or the document, this results in orphaned tasks. I want to overwrite the Task lists OnDeleting event, so that users can cleanup their tasks so that it won't contain unneccessary orphaned tasks. So my item deleting looks like this public override void ItemDeleting(SPItemEventProperties properties) { SPListItem currentListItem = properties.ListItem; } The problem is that when I go into debug mode and check the currentListItem.Workflows.Count field then it's always 0. It doesn't matter which workflow I initiate or what task i look at, the SPWorkflowCollection returned is always empty :( I was wondering if this might be related to a bug in our custom workflow where it's not wired up properly (but it finishes correctly and tasks are deleted when a workflow is terminated) or am I looking at this the wrong way ?

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  • Hard problem - need help for solving

    - by dada
    I don't want you to solve this problem for me, i just want to ask for some ideas. This is the input below, and it represents a map. The 'x' represents land, and the dots - water. So with the 'x' you can represent 'islands' on the map. xxx.x...xxxxx xxxx....x...x ........x.x.x ..xxxxx.x...x ..x...x.xxx.x ..x.x.x...x.. ..x...x...xxx ...xxxxxx.... x............ As you can see, there are some islands which are closed, i.e. if some boat is inside its territory, it won't be able to get out, for ex: ..xxxxx. ..x...x. ..x.x.x. ..x...x. ..xxxxx. And there are some open islands which is possible to get out of them, ex: .xxxxx .x...x .x.x.x .xxx.x The problem is this: For a given NxM map like those above, calculate howm any of the islands are open, and how many are closed. I repeat: I don't want you to solve it, just need some sugestions, ideas for solving. thanks

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  • Javascript click function not working

    - by Nabe
    I need to null the value in text box on click, currently I have written a code as such <div class="keyword_non"> <h1>Keywords : <a class="someClass question_off" title="Keywords "></a></h1> <h2><input type="text" name="kw1" value="one" /></h2> <h2><input type="text" name="kw2" value="two" /></h2> <h2><input type="text" name="kw3" value="three" /></h2> <h2><input type="text" name="kw4" value="four" /></h2> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/functions/javascript/custom/non_profit_edit.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/functions/javascript/jquery-1.7.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/functions/javascript/custom/jquery-ui-1.8.7.custom.min.js"></script> Inside non_profit_edit.js i have written as such $(document).ready(function(){ $(".kw1").click(function() { $(".kw1").val(" "); }); $(".kw2").click(function() { $(".kw2").val(" "); }); $(".kw3").click(function() { $(".kw3").val(" "); }); $(".kw4").click(function() { $(".kw4").val(" "); }); }); But write now its not working properly... Is this any browser issues or error in code..

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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • Crash generated during destruction of hash_map

    - by Alien01
    I am using hash_map in application as typedef hash_map<DWORD,CComPtr<IInterfaceXX>> MapDword2Interface; In main application I am using static instance of this map static MapDword2Interface m_mapDword2Interface; I have got one crash dump from one of the client machines which point to the crash in clearing this map I opened that crash dump and here is assembly during debugging > call std::list<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> >,std::allocator<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> > > >::clear > mov eax,dword ptr [CMainApp::m_mapDword2Interface+8 (49XXXXX)] Here is code where crash dump is pointing. Below code is from stl:list file void clear() { // erase all #if _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING this->_Orphan_ptr(*this, 0); #endif /* _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING */ _Nodeptr _Pnext; _Nodeptr _Pnode = _Nextnode(_Myhead); _Nextnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Prevnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Mysize = 0; for (; _Pnode != _Myhead; _Pnode = _Pnext) { // delete an element _Pnext = _Nextnode(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.deallocate(_Pnode, 1); } } Crash is pointing to the this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); statement in above code. I am not able to guess it, what could be reason. Any ideas??? How can I make sure, even is there is something wrong with the map , it should not crash?

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  • Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

    - by Acoustic
    I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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  • Are there any guarantees in JLS about order of execution static initialization blocks?

    - by Roman
    I wonder if it's reliable to use a construction like: private static final Map<String, String> engMessages; private static final Map<String, String> rusMessages; static { engMessages = new HashMap<String, String> () {{ put ("msgname", "value"); }}; rusMessages = new HashMap<String, String> () {{ put ("msgname", "????????"); }}; } private static Map<String, String> msgSource; static { msgSource = engMessages; } public static String msg (String msgName) { return msgSource.get (msgName); } Is there a possibility that I'll get NullPointerException because msgSource initialization block will be executed before the block which initializes engMessages? (about why don't I do msgSource initialization at the end of upper init. block: just the matter of taste; I'll do so if the described construction is unreliable)

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  • Python's asyncore to periodically send data using a variable timeout. Is there a better way?

    - by Nick Sonneveld
    I wanted to write a server that a client could connect to and receive periodic updates without having to poll. The problem I have experienced with asyncore is that if you do not return true when dispatcher.writable() is called, you have to wait until after the asyncore.loop has timed out (default is 30s). The two ways I have tried to work around this is 1) reduce timeout to a low value or 2) query connections for when they will next update and generate an adequate timeout value. However if you refer to 'Select Law' in 'man 2 select_tut', it states, "You should always try to use select() without a timeout." Is there a better way to do this? Twisted maybe? I wanted to try and avoid extra threads. I'll include the variable timeout example here: #!/usr/bin/python import time import socket import asyncore # in seconds UPDATE_PERIOD = 4.0 class Channel(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, sock, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, sock=sock, map=sck_map) self.last_update = 0.0 # should update immediately self.send_buf = '' self.recv_buf = '' def writable(self): return len(self.send_buf) > 0 def handle_write(self): nbytes = self.send(self.send_buf) self.send_buf = self.send_buf[nbytes:] def handle_read(self): print 'read' print 'recv:', self.recv(4096) def handle_close(self): print 'close' self.close() # added for variable timeout def update(self): if time.time() >= self.next_update(): self.send_buf += 'hello %f\n'%(time.time()) self.last_update = time.time() def next_update(self): return self.last_update + UPDATE_PERIOD class Server(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, port, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, map=sck_map) self.port = port self.sck_map = sck_map self.create_socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.bind( ("", port)) self.listen(16) print "listening on port", self.port def handle_accept(self): (conn, addr) = self.accept() Channel(sock=conn, sck_map=self.sck_map) # added for variable timeout def update(self): pass def next_update(self): return None sck_map = {} server = Server(9090, sck_map) while True: next_update = time.time() + 30.0 for c in sck_map.values(): c.update() # <-- fill write buffers n = c.next_update() #print 'n:',n if n is not None: next_update = min(next_update, n) _timeout = max(0.1, next_update - time.time()) asyncore.loop(timeout=_timeout, count=1, map=sck_map)

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  • Low-Hanging Fruit: Obfuscating non-critical values in JavaScript

    - by Piskvor
    I'm making an in-browser game of the type "guess what place/monument/etc. is in this satellite/aerial view", using Google Maps JS API v3. However, I need to protect against cheaters - you have to pass a google.maps.LatLng and a zoom level to the map constructor, which means a cheating user only needs to view source to get to this data. I am already unsetting every value I possibly can without breaking the map (such as center and the manipulation functions like setZoom()), and initializing the map in an anonymous function (so the object is not visible in global namespace). Now, this is of course in-browser, client-side, untrusted JavaScript; I've read much of the obfuscation tag and I'm not trying to make the script bullet-proof (it's just a game, after all). I only need to make the obfuscation reasonably hard against the 1337 Java5kryp7 haxz0rz - "kid sister encryption", as Bruce Schneier puts it. Anything harder than base64 encoding would deter most cheaters by eliminating the lowest-hanging fruit - if the cheater is smart and determined enough to use a JS debugger, he can bypass anything I can do (as I need to pass the value to Google Maps API in plaintext), but that's unlikely to happen on a mass scale (there will also be other, not-code-related ways to prevent cheating). I've tried various minimizers and obfuscators, but those will mostly deal with code - the values are still shown verbatim. TL;DR: I need to obfuscate three values in JavaScript. I'm not looking for bullet-proof armor, just a sneeze-guard. What should I use?

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  • Converted PowerBuilder to ASP.Net browsing Errors

    - by user493325
    I had a powerbuilder application which i converted to web application in the format of ASP.Net (aspx) files. after deploying and publishing the converted web application (copy it and add ASP.Net and network Service AND IUser permissions to enable users to access it) in IIS V6.0 over Windows server 2003 and The ASP.Net version is 2.0 The error messages I get when I browse default.aspx web page are as the following:- Server Error in '/' Application. Runtime Error Description: An application error occurred on the server. The current custom error settings for this application prevent the details of the application error from being viewed remotely (for security reasons). It could, however, be viewed by browsers running on the local server machine. Details: To enable the details of this specific error message to be viewable on remote machines, please create a tag within a "web.config" configuration file located in the root directory of the current web application. This tag should then have its "mode" attribute set to "Off". <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="Off"/> </system.web> </configuration> Notes: The current error page you are seeing can be replaced by a custom error page by modifying the "defaultRedirect" attribute of the application's configuration tag to point to a custom error page URL. <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="RemoteOnly" defaultRedirect="mycustompage.htm"/> </system.web> </configuration> Another error message appears on the server is:- Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error <roleManager enabled="true"> <membership> </roleManager> Thanks in Advance...

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  • emacs -- keybind questions

    - by user565739
    I have successfully used Ctrl+Shift+Up ' Ctrl+Shift+down ' Ctrl+Shift+left' Ctrl+Shift+Right to different commands. But when I tried to use Ctrl+s to the command save-buffer and Ctrl+Shift+s, which is equivalent to Ctrl+S, to another command, it has some problem. save-buffer works fine, but when I type Ctrl+Shift+s, it excute the command save-buffer. I used Ctrl+q to find the control sequences of Ctrl+s and Ctrl+Shift+S, I get the same result, which is ^S. I expect that I will get ^s for Ctrl+s, but it doesn't. Anyone knows the reason? Another queston is: I use Ctrl+c for the command killing-ring-save. In this case, all commands (which are of large number) begin with Ctrl+c don't work now. Is there a way to replace the prefix Ctrl+c by another customized prefix? I may pose my question in the wrong direction. I use ctrl+c as killing-ring-save. It works fine in emacs (no mode). But if I open a .c file (C-mode), then when I type Ctrl+c, it waits me to type another key. I think in this case, ctrl+c is regarded as a prefix. In this case, I need the following modifications: Using a custom defined prefix, say Ctrl+a, as Ctrl+c ; Remove the prefix Ctrl+c ; Using Ctrl+c as killing-ring-save. I add the following to my ~/.emacs : (defun my-c-initialization-hook () (define-key c-mode-base-map (kbd "C-a") mode-specific-map) (define-key c-mode-base-map (kbd "C-c") 'kill-ring-save)) (add-hook 'c-initialization-hook 'my-c-initialization-hook) But this doesn't work. Ctrl+c is still regarded as a prefix, so I can't use it as kill-ring-save. Furthermore, if I type Ctrl+a Ctrl+c, it said it's not defined. (I thought it will have the same result as I type Ctrl+c Ctrl+c)

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