Search Results

Search found 18220 results on 729 pages for 'null hypothesis'.

Page 308/729 | < Previous Page | 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315  | Next Page >

  • Why a "private static" is not seen in a method?

    - by Roman
    I have a class with the following declaration of the fields: public class Game { private static String outputFileName; .... } I set the value of the outputFileName in the main method of the class. I also have a write method in the class which use the outputFileName. I always call write after main sets value for outputFileName. But write still does not see the value of the outputFileName. It say that it's equal to null. Could anybody, pleas, tell me what I am doing wrong? ADDED As it is requested I post more code: In the main: String outputFileName = userName + "_" + year + "_" + month + "_" + day + "_" + hour + "_" + minute + "_" + second + "_" + millis + ".txt"; f=new File(outputFileName); if(!f.exists()){ try { f.createNewFile(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } System.out.println("IN THE MAIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!"); System.out.println("------>" + outputFileName + "<------"); This line outputs me the name of the file. Than in the write I have: public static void write(String output) { // Open a file for appending. System.out.println("==========>" + outputFileName + "<============"); ...... } And it outputs null.

    Read the article

  • Streaming local file from PHP while it's been written to by a CURL process

    - by Fahim
    I am creating a simple Proxy server for my website. Why I am not using mod_proxy and mod_cache is a different discussion. Here's the code: shell_exec("nohup curl --create-dirs -o {$write_path} {$source_url} > /dev/null 2> /dev/null & echo $!"); sleep(1); $read_speed = 65.5; # 65.5 kb/s download rate $handle = fopen($write_path, "rb"); $content_type = select_meta_item($headers, 'Content-Type'); $file_size = select_meta_item($headers, 'Content-Length'); send_headers($content_type, $file_size); flush(); while (!feof($handle)) { echo fread($handle, round($read_speed * 1024)); flush(); sleep(1); } fclose($handle); Streaming an MP3 doesn't work using this method. Plays in Chrome, but not in Firefox. Initially I'll be using this to stream MP3 files through Long Tail's JW Player. If it all works out, I'll also be using this to send ZIP files.

    Read the article

  • SQL 2008: Using separate tables for each datatype to return single row

    - by Thomas C
    Hi all I thought I'd be flexible this time around and let the users decide what contact information the wish to store in their database. In theory it would look as a single row containing, for instance; name, adress, zipcode, Category X, Listitems A. Example FieldType table defining the datatypes available to a user: FieldTypeID, FieldTypeName, TableName 1,"Integer","tblContactInt" 2,"String50","tblContactStr50" ... A user the define his fields in the FieldDefinition table: FieldDefinitionID, FieldTypeID, FieldDefinitionName 11,2,"Name" 12,2,"Adress" 13,1,"Age" Finally we store the actual contact data in separate tables depending on its datatype. Master table, only contains the ContactID tblContact: ContactID 21 22 tblContactStr50: ContactStr50ID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactStr50Value 31,21,11,"Person A" 32,21,12,"Adress of person A" 33,22,11,"Person B" tblContactInt: ContactIntID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactIntValue 41,22,13,27 Question: Is it possible to return the content of these tables in two rows like this: ContactID,Name,Adress,Age 21,"Person A","Adress of person A",NULL 22,"Person B",NULL,27 I have looked into using the COALESCE and Temp tables, wondering if this is at all possible. Even if it is: maybe I'm only adding complexity whilst sacrificing performance for benefit in datastorage and user definition option. What do you think? Best Regards /Thomas C

    Read the article

  • Export database data to csv from view by date range asp.net mvc3

    - by Benjamin Randal
    I am trying to find a way to export data from my database and save it as a .csv file. Ideally the user will be able to select a date range on a view, which will display the data to be exported, then the user can click an "export to CSV" link. I've done quite a bit of searching and but have not found much specific enough to help me step through the process. Any help would be great. I would like to export data from this database model... { public class InspectionInfo { [Key] public int InspectionId { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Submitted")] [DataType(DataType.Date)] // [Required] public DateTime Submitted { get; set; } [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [MaxLength(1000)] // [Required] public string Comments { get; set; } // [Required] public Contact Contact { get; set; } [ForeignKey("Contact")] public Int32 ContactId { get; set; } [MaxLength(100)] public String OtherContact { get; set; } I have a service for search also, just having difficulty implementing public SearchResults SearchInspections(SearchRequest request) { using (var db = new InspectionEntities()) { var results = db.InspectionInfos .Where( i=> ( (null == request.StartDate || i.Submitted >= request.StartDate.Value) && (null == request.EndDate || i.Submitted <= request.EndDate.Value) ) ) .OrderBy(i=>i.Submitted) .Skip(request.PageSize*request.PageIndex).Take(request.PageSize); return new SearchResults{ TotalResults=results.Count(), PageIndex=request.PageIndex, Inspections=results.ToList(), SearchRequest=request }; } }

    Read the article

  • PHP: Get instance of static class by string value

    - by Tirithen
    I'm working on a php web api that was handed to me with a lot of code that needs to be refactored. The ones that wrote the code wanted to include a static configuration class to an api resource and then get an instance of that class something like this: <?php $obj = "User"; $confObjectSuffix = "_conf"; $confObject = $obj.$confObjectSuffix; if ($confObject::inst()->checkMethod($method)) { ..... This gives the error "Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_PAAMAYIM_NEKUDOTAYIM in ....." since $confObject is a string and not a object. I wrote some testcode: <?php $class = "User_conf"; echo "<pre>"; print_r($$class::Inst()); echo "</pre>"; class User_conf { private static $INSTANCE = null; public static function Inst() { if(User_conf::$INSTANCE === null) { User_conf::$INSTANCE = new User_conf(); } return User_conf::$INSTANCE; } } But can't get it to work with $$ either, is there some other way around this? I don't want to rewrite more than necessary.

    Read the article

  • Can someone help me with this StructureMap error i'm getting?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to wire up a simple ASP.NET MVC2 controller class to my own LoggingService. Code compiles fine, but I get the following runtime error :- {"StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily System.Type, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"} what the? mscorlib ???? Here's some sample code of my wiring up .. protected void Application_Start() { MvcHandler.DisableMvcResponseHeader = true; BootstrapStructureMap(); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory( new StructureMapControllerFactory()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } private static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.For<ILoggingService>().Use<Log4NetLoggingService>()); } and finally the controller, simplified for this question ... public class SearchController : Controller { private readonly ILoggingService _log { get; set; } public SearchController(ILoggingService loggingService) : base(loggingService) { // Error checking removed for brevity. _log = loggingService; _log.Tag = "SearchController"; } ... } and the structuremap factory (main method), also way simplified for this question... protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType != null) { try { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (Exception exception) { if (exception is StructureMapException) { Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } } } hmm. I just don't get it. StructureMap version 2.6.1.0 ASP.NET MVC 2. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

    Read the article

  • Core Audio on iPhone - any way to change the microphone gain (either for speakerphone mic or headpho

    - by Halle
    After much searching the answer seems to be no, but I thought I'd ask here before giving up. For a project I'm working on that includes recording sound, the input levels sound a little quiet both when the route is external mic + speaker and when it's headphone mic + headphones. Does anyone know definitively whether it is possible to programmatically change mic gain levels on the iPhone in any part of Core Audio? If not, is it possible that I'm not really in "speakerphone" mode (with the external mic at least) but only think I am? Here is my audio session init code: OSStatus error = AudioSessionInitialize(NULL, NULL, audioQueueHelperInterruptionListener, r); [...some error checking of the OSStatus...] UInt32 category = kAudioSessionCategory_PlayAndRecord; // need to play out the speaker at full volume too so it is necessary to change default route below error = AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_AudioCategory, sizeof(category), &category); if (error) printf("couldn't set audio category!"); UInt32 doChangeDefaultRoute = 1; error = AudioSessionSetProperty (kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryDefaultToSpeaker, sizeof (doChangeDefaultRoute), &doChangeDefaultRoute); if (error) printf("couldn't change default route!"); error = AudioSessionAddPropertyListener(kAudioSessionProperty_AudioRouteChange, audioQueueHelperPropListener, r); if (error) printf("ERROR ADDING AUDIO SESSION PROP LISTENER! %d\n", (int)error); UInt32 inputAvailable = 0; UInt32 size = sizeof(inputAvailable); error = AudioSessionGetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_AudioInputAvailable, &size, &inputAvailable); if (error) printf("ERROR GETTING INPUT AVAILABILITY! %d\n", (int)error); error = AudioSessionAddPropertyListener(kAudioSessionProperty_AudioInputAvailable, audioQueueHelperPropListener, r); if (error) printf("ERROR ADDING AUDIO SESSION PROP LISTENER! %d\n", (int)error); error = AudioSessionSetActive(true); if (error) printf("AudioSessionSetActive (true) failed"); Thanks very much for any pointers.

    Read the article

  • How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

    - by Grzegorz
    I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

    Read the article

  • C# COM Cross Thread problem

    - by user364676
    Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

    Read the article

  • Java resource closing

    - by Bob
    Hi, I'm writing an app that connect to a website and read one line from it. I do it like this: try{ URLConnection connection = new URL("www.example.com").openConnection(); BufferedReader rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String response = rd.readLine(); rd.close(); }catch (Exception e) { //exception handling } Is it good? I mean, I close the BufferedReader in the last line, but I do not close the InputStreamReader. Should I create a standalone InputStreamReader from the connection.getInputStream, and a BufferedReader from the standalone InputStreamReader, than close all the two readers? I think it will be better to place the closing methods in the finally block like this: InputStreamReader isr = null; BufferedReader br = null; try{ URLConnection connection = new URL("www.example.com").openConnection(); isr = new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream()); br = new BufferedReader(isr); String response = br.readLine(); }catch (Exception e) { //exception handling }finally{ br.close(); isr.close(); } But it is ugly, because the closing methods can throw exception, so I have to handle or throw it. Which solution is better? Or what would be the best solution?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server insert performance

    - by Jose
    I have an insert query that gets generated like this INSERT INTO InvoiceDetail (LegacyId,InvoiceId,DetailTypeId,Fee,FeeTax,Investigatorid,SalespersonId,CreateDate,CreatedById,IsChargeBack,Expense,RepoAgentId,PayeeName,ExpensePaymentId,AdjustDetailId) VALUES(1,1,2,1500.0000,0.0000,163,1002,'11/30/2001 12:00:00 AM',1116,0,550.0000,850,NULL,@ExpensePay1,NULL); DECLARE @InvDetail1 INT; SET @InvDetail1 = (SELECT @@IDENTITY); This query is generated for only 110K rows. It takes 30 minutes for all of these query's to execute I checked the query plan and the largest % nodes are A Clustered Index Insert at 57% query cost which has a long xml that I don't want to post. A Table Spool which is 38% query cost <RelOp AvgRowSize="35" EstimateCPU="5.01038E-05" EstimateIO="0" EstimateRebinds="0" EstimateRewinds="0" EstimateRows="1" LogicalOp="Eager Spool" NodeId="80" Parallel="false" PhysicalOp="Table Spool" EstimatedTotalSubtreeCost="0.0466109"> <OutputList> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvoiceId" /> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvestigatorId" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1054" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1055" /> </OutputList> <Spool PrimaryNodeId="3" /> </RelOp> So my question is what is there that I can do to improve the speed of this thing? I already run ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL Before the queries and then ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL after the queries. And that didn't shave off hardly anything off of the time. Know I am running these queries in a .NET application that uses a SqlCommand object to send the query. I then tried to output the sql commands to a file and then execute it using sqlcmd, but I wasn't getting any updates on how it was doing, so I gave up on that. Any ideas or hints or help?

    Read the article

  • Planning management slots/sessions

    - by Glide
    I have a planning structure on two tables to store available slots by day, and sessions. A slot is defined by a range of time in the day. CREATE TABLE slot ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `date` date , `start` time , `end` time ); Sessions can't overlap themselves and must be wrapped in a slot. CREATE TABLE session ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `date` date , `start` time , `end` time ); I need to generate a list of available blocks of time of a certain duration, in order to create sessions. Example: INSERT INTO slot (date, start, end) VALUES ("2010-01-01", "10:00", "19:00") , ("2010-01-02", "10:00", "15:00") , ("2010-01-02", "16:00", "20:30") ; INSERT INTO slot (date, start, end) VALUES ("2010-01-01", "10:00", "19:00") , ("2010-01-02", "10:00", "15:00") , ("2010-01-02", "16:00", "20:30") ; 2010-01-01 <##><####> <- Sessions ------------------------------------ <- Slots 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 2010-01-02 <##########> <########> <- Sessions -------------------- ------------------ <- Slots 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 I need to know which spaces of 1 hour I can use: +------------+-------+-------+ | date | start | end | +------------+-------+-------+ | 2010-01-01 | 13:00 | 14:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 14:00 | 15:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 15:00 | 16:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 16:00 | 17:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 17:00 | 18:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 18:00 | 19:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 10:00 | 11:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 11:00 | 12:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 16:00 | 17:00 | +------------+-------+-------+

    Read the article

  • Strange problem with vectors.

    - by Catalin Dumitru
    I have a really strange problem with stl vectors in which the wrong destructor is called for the right object when I call the erase method if that makes any sense. My code looks something like this: for(vector<Category>::iterator iter = this->children.begin(); iter != this->children.end(); iter++) { if((*iter).item == item) { this->children.erase(iter); return; } ------------------------- } It's just a simple function that finds the element in the vector which has some item to be searched, and removes said element from the vector. My problem is than when the erase function is called, and thus the object which the iterator is pointing at is being destroyed, the wrong destructor is being called. More specific the destructor of the last element in the vector is being called, and not of the actual object being removed. Thus the memory is being removed from the wrong object, which will still be an element in the vector, and the actual object which is removed from the vector, still has all of it's memory intact. The costructor of the object looks like this: Category::Category(const Category &from) { this->name = from.name; for(vector<Category>::const_iterator iter = from.children.begin(); iter != from.children.end(); iter++) this->children.push_back((*iter)); this->item = new QTreeWidgetItem; } And the destructor Category::~Category() { this->children.clear(); if(this->item != NULL) { QTreeWidgetItem* parent = this->item->parent(); if(parent != NULL) parent->removeChild(this->item); delete this->item; } }

    Read the article

  • OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

    - by Aaron
    I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

    Read the article

  • Javascript conversion, from Prototype to jQuery

    - by moshimoshi
    Hi, I would like to update the following javascript code based on Prototype framework to jQuery framework: Event.observe(window, 'load', function() { $$('.piece').each(function(item) { new Draggable(item, { revert: true } ); }); $$('.cell').each(function(item) { Droppables.add(item, { accept: 'piece', onDrop: function(piece, cell) { cell.descendants().each(function(item) { item.remove(); } ); piece.remove(); piece.setStyle({ 'top': null, 'left': null }); new Draggable(piece, { revert: true }); cell.appendChild(piece); } }); }); }); The first part of the script is easy to convert: $(function() { $('.piece').draggable( { evert: true } ); $('.cell').droppable( { /* But here, it's more difficult. Right? ;) ... */ } }); }); Have you got an idea? Any part of code is welcome. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Switch statement usage - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a thread function on Process B that contains a switch to perform certain operations based on the results of an event sent from Process A, these are stored as two elements in an array. I set the first element to the event which signals when Process A has data to send and I have the second element set to the event which indicates when Process A has closed. I have began to implement the functionality for the switch statement but I'm not getting the results as I expect. Consider the following: // //Thread function DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { for(i = 0; i < 2; i++) { ghEvents[i] = OpenEvent(EVENT_ALL_ACCESS, FALSE, TEXT("Global\\ProducerEvents")); if(ghEvents[i] == NULL) { getlasterror = GetLastError(); } } dwProducerEventResult = WaitForMultipleObjects( 2, ghEvents, FALSE, INFINITE); switch (dwProducerEventResult) { case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 0: { //Producer sent data //unpackedHandle = *((HWND*)passedHandle); MessageBox(NULL,L"Test",L"Test",MB_OK); break; } case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 1: { //Producer closed ExitProcess(1); break; } default: return; } } As you can see if the event in the first array is signalled Process B should display a simple message box, if the second array is signalled the application should close. When I actually close Process A, Process B displays the message box instead. If I leave the first case blank (Do nothing) both applications close as they should. Furthermore Process B sends data an error is thrown (When I comment out the unpacking): Have I implemented my switch statement incorrectly? I though I handled the unpacking of the HWND correctly too, any suggestions? Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Calling unmanaged code from within C#

    - by Charles Gargent
    I am trying to use a dll in my c# program but I just cant seem to get it to work. I have made a test app shown below. The return value is 0, however it does not actually do what it is supposed to do. Whereas the following command does work: rundll32 cmproxy.dll,SetProxy /source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename roxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile "C:\Documents and ettings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp" Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Net; using WUApiLib; namespace nac { class Program { [DllImport("cmproxy.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] static extern int SetProxy(string cmdLine); static void Main(string[] args) { string cmdLine = @"/source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp"""; Console.WriteLine(SetProxy(cmdLine)); } } } Here is the contents of the dumpbin /exports command File Type: DLL Section contains the following exports for cmproxy.dll 00000000 characteristics 3E7FEF8C time date stamp Tue Mar 25 05:56:28 2003 0.00 version 1 ordinal base 1 number of functions 1 number of names ordinal hint RVA name 1 0 00001B68 SetProxy Summary 1000 .data 1000 .reloc 1000 .rsrc 2000 .text When this works it sets the proxy server for a VPN connection.

    Read the article

  • .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

    - by Simon Lindgren
    Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

    Read the article

  • Rails: Oracle constraint violation

    - by justinbach
    I'm doing maintenance work on a Rails site that I inherited; it's driven by an Oracle database, and I've got access to both development and production installations of the site (each with its own Oracle DB). I'm running into an Oracle error when trying to insert data on the production site, but not the dev site: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid (OCIError: ORA-00001: unique constraint (DATABASE_NAME.PK_REGISTRATION_OWNERSHIP) violated: INSERT INTO registration_ownerships (updated_at, company_ownership_id, created_by, updated_by, registration_id, created_at) VALUES ('2006-05-04 16:30:47', 3, NULL, NULL, 2920, '2006-05-04 16:30:47')): /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-oracle-adapter-1.0.0.9250/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/oracle_adapter.rb:221:in `execute' app/controllers/vendors_controller.rb:94:in `create' As far as I can tell (I'm using Navicat as an Oracle client), the DB schema for the dev site is identical to that of the live site. I'm not an Oracle expert; can anyone shed light on why I'd be getting the error in one installation and not the other? Incidentally, both dev and production registration_ownerships tables are populated with lots of data, including duplicate entries for country_ownership_id (driven by index PK_REGISTRATION_OWNERSHIP). Please let me know if you need more information to troubleshoot. I'm sorry I haven't given more already, but I just wasn't sure which details would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • TSQL to insert an ascending value

    - by David Neale
    I am running some SQL that identifies records which need to be marked for deletion and to insert a value into those records. This value must be changed to render the record useless and each record must be changed to a unique value because of a database constraint. UPDATE Users SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 FROM Users a LEFT OUTER JOIN #ADUSERS b ON a.Username = 'AVSOMPOL\' + b.sAMAccountName WHERE (b.sAMAccountName is NULL AND a.Username LIKE 'AVSOMPOL%') OR b.userAccountControl = 514 This is the important bit: SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 What I've tried to do is have deleted records have their Username field set to 'Deletedxxx'. The ISNULL is needed because there may be no records matching the SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%' statement and this will return NULL. I get a syntax error when trying to parse this (Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'SELECT'. Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near ')'. I'm sure there must be a better way to go about this, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Where to put a textfile I want to use in eclipse?

    - by Jayomat
    hi there, I need to read a text file when I start my program. I'm using eclipse and started a new java project. In my project folder I got the "src" folder and the standard "JRE System Library"... I just don't know where to put the text file. I cannot use a "hard coded" path because the text file needs to be included with my app... I also tried to create a new folder like "Files" and use the pathe "Files/staedteliste.txt".. doesn't work too... I use the following code to read the file, but I get this error: Error:java.io.FileNotFoundException:staedteliste.txt(No such file or directory) import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.FileReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.ArrayList; public class Test { ArrayList<String[]> values; public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub loadList(); } public static void loadList() { BufferedReader reader; String zeile = null; try { reader = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("staedteliste.txt")); zeile = reader.readLine(); ArrayList<String[]> values = new ArrayList<String[]>(); while (zeile != null) { values.add(zeile.split(";")); zeile = reader.readLine(); } System.out.println(values.size()); System.out.println(zeile); } catch (IOException e) { System.err.println("Error :"+e); } } } thx for help!

    Read the article

  • Destructuring assignment in JavaScript

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    As can be seen in the Mozilla changlog for JavaScript 1.7 they have added destructuring assignment. Sadly I'm not very fond of the syntax (why write a and b twice?): var a, b; [a, b] = f(); Something like this would have been a lot better: var [a, b] = f(); That would still be backwards compatible. Python-like destructuring would not be backwards compatible. Anyway the best solution for JavaScript 1.5 that I have been able to come up with is: function assign(array, map) { var o = Object(); var i = 0; $.each(map, function(e, _) { o[e] = array[i++]; }); return o; } Which works like: var array = [1,2]; var _ = assign[array, { var1: null, var2: null }); _.var1; // prints 1 _.var2; // prints 2 But this really sucks because _ has no meaning. It's just an empty shell to store the names. But sadly it's needed because JavaScript doesn't have pointers. On the plus side you can assign default values in the case the values are not matched. Also note that this solution doesn't try to slice the array. So you can't do something like {first: 0, rest: 0}. But that could easily be done, if one wanted that behavior. What is a better solution?

    Read the article

  • How can I read the properties of an object that I assign to the Session in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by quakkels
    Hey all, I'm trying my hand at creating a session which stores member information which the application can use to reveal certain navigation and allow access to certain pages and member role specific functionality. I've been able to assign my MemberLoggedIn object to the session in this way: //code excerpt start... MemberLoggedIn loggedIn = new MemberLoggedIn(); if (computedHash == member.Hash) { loggedIn.ID = member.ID; loggedIn.Username = member.Username; loggedIn.Email = member.Email; loggedIn.Superuser = member.Superuser; loggedIn.Active = member.Active; Session["loggedIn"] = loggedIn; } else if (ModelState.IsValid) { ModelState.AddModelError("Password", "Incorrect Username or Password."); } return View(); That works great. I then can send the properties of Session["loggedIn"] to the View in this way: [ChildActionOnly] public ActionResult Login() { if (Session["loggedIn"] != null) ViewData.Model = Session["loggedIn"]; else ViewData.Model = null; return PartialView(); } In the Partial View I can reference the session data by using Model.Username or Model.Superuser. However, it doesn't seem to work that way in the controller or in a custom Action Filter. Is there a way to get the equivalent of Session["loggedIn"].Username?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315  | Next Page >