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  • Resolving a Forward Declaration Issue Involving a State Machine in C++

    - by hypersonicninja
    I've recently returned to C++ development after a hiatus, and have a question regarding implementation of the State Design Pattern. I'm using the vanilla pattern, exactly as per the GoF book. My problem is that the state machine itself is based on some hardware used as part of an embedded system - so the design is fixed and can't be changed. This results in a circular dependency between two of the states (in particular), and I'm trying to resolve this. Here's the simplified code (note that I tried to resolve this by using headers as usual but still had problems - I've omitted them in this code snippet): #include <iostream> #include <memory> using namespace std; class Context { public: friend class State; Context() { } private: State* m_state; }; class State { public: State() { } virtual void Trigger1() = 0; virtual void Trigger2() = 0; }; class LLT : public State { public: LLT() { } void Trigger1() { new DH(); } void Trigger2() { new DL(); } }; class ALL : public State { public: ALL() { } void Trigger1() { new LLT(); } void Trigger2() { new DH(); } }; // DL needs to 'know' about DH. class DL : public State { public: DL() { } void Trigger1() { new ALL(); } void Trigger2() { new DH(); } }; class HLT : public State { public: HLT() { } void Trigger1() { new DH(); } void Trigger2() { new DL(); } }; class AHL : public State { public: AHL() { } void Trigger1() { new DH(); } void Trigger2() { new HLT(); } }; // DH needs to 'know' about DL. class DH : public State { public: DH () { } void Trigger1() { new AHL(); } void Trigger2() { new DL(); } }; int main() { auto_ptr<LLT> llt (new LLT); auto_ptr<ALL> all (new ALL); auto_ptr<DL> dl (new DL); auto_ptr<HLT> hlt (new HLT); auto_ptr<AHL> ahl (new AHL); auto_ptr<DH> dh (new DH); return 0; } The problem is basically that in the State Pattern, state transitions are made by invoking the the ChangeState method in the Context class, which invokes the constructor of the next state. Because of the circular dependency, I can't invoke the constructor because it's not possible to pre-define both of the constructors of the 'problem' states. I had a look at this article, and the template method which seemed to be the ideal solution - but it doesn't compile and my knowledge of templates is a rather limited... The other idea I had is to try and introduce a Helper class to the subclassed states, via multiple inheritance, to see if it's possible to specify the base class's constructor and have a reference to the state subclasse's constructor. But I think that was rather ambitious... Finally, would a direct implmentation of the Factory Method Design Pattern be the best way to resolve the entire problem?

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  • Having trouble storing a CRTP based class in a vector

    - by user366834
    Hi, Im not sure if this can be done, im just delving into templates so perhaps my understanding is a bit wrong. I have a Platoon of soldiers, the platoon inherits from a formation to pick up the formations properties, but because i could have as many formations as i can think of I chose to use the CRTP to create the formations, hoping that i could make a vector or array of Platoon to store the platoons in. but, of course, when i make a Platoon, it wont store it in the vector, "types are unrelated" Is there any way around this ? i read about "Veneers" which are similar and that they work with arrays but i cant get it to work, perhaps im missing something. here's some code: (sorry about the formatting, the code is here in my post but its not showing up for some reason ) template < class TBase > class IFormation { public : ~IFormation(){} bool IsFull() { return m_uiMaxMembers == m_uiCurrentMemCount; } protected: unsigned int m_uiCurrentMemCount; unsigned int m_uiMaxMembers; IFormation( unsigned int _uiMaxMembers ): m_uiMaxMembers( _uiMaxMembers ), m_uiCurrentMemCount( 0 ){} // only allow use as a base class. void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ){}; // must be implemented in derived class }; ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // PHALANX FORMATION class Phalanx : public IFormation<Phalanx> { public: Phalanx( ): IFormation( 12 ), m_fDistance( 4.0f ) {} ~Phalanx(){} protected: float m_fDistance; // the distance between soldiers void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ); }; /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // COLUMN FORMATINO class Column : public IFormation< Column > { public : Column( int _numOfMembers ): IFormation( _numOfMembers ) {} ~Column(); protected: void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ); }; I then use these formations in the platoon class to derive, so that platoon gets the relevant SetupFormation() function: template < class Formation > class Platoon : public Formation { public: **** platoon code here }; everything works great and as expected up until this point. now, as my general can have multiple platoons, I need to store the platoons. typedef Platoon< IFormation<> > TPlatoon; // FAIL typedef std::vector<TPlatoon*> TPlatoons; TPlatoon m_pPlatoons m_pPlatoons.push_back( new Platoon<Phalanx> ); // FAIL, types unrelated. typedef Platoon< IFormation< TPlatoon; fails because i need to specify a template parameter, yet specifying this will only allow me to store platoons created with the same template parameter. so i then created FormationBase class FormationBase { public: virtual bool IsFull() = 0; virtual void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ) = 0; }; and made IFormation publicly inherit from that, and then changed the typedef to typedef Platoon< IFormation< FormationBase > > TPlatoon; but still no love. now in my searches i have not found info that says this is possible - or not possible.

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  • Help to argue why to develop software on a physical computer rather than via a remote desktop

    - by s5804
    Remote desktops are great and many times a blessing and cost effective (instead of leasing expensive cables). I am not arguing against remote desktops, just if one have the alternative to use either remote desktop or physical computer, I would choose the later. Also note that I am not arguing for or against remote work practices. But in my case I am required to be physically present in the office when developing software. Background, I work in a company which main business is not to develop software. Therefore the company IT policies are mainly focused on security and to efficiently deploying/maintaing thousands of computer to users. Further, the typical employee runs typical Office applications, like a word processors. Because safety/stability is such a big priority, every non production system/application, shall be deployed into a physical different network, called the test network. Software development of course also belongs in the test network. To access the test network the company has created a standard policy, which dictates that access to the test network shall go only via a remote desktop client. Practically from ones production computer one would open up a remote desktop client to a virtual computer located in the test network. On the virtual computer's remote desktop one would be able to access/run/install all development tools, like Eclipse IDE. Another solution would be to have a dedicated physical computer, which is physically only connected to the test network. Both solutions are available in the company. I have tested both approaches and found running Eclipse IDE, SQL developer, in the remote desktop client to be sluggish (keyboard strokes are delayed), commands like alt-tab takes me out of the remote client, enjoying... Further, screen resolution and colors are different, just to mention a few. Therefore there is nothing technical wrong with the remote client, just not optimal and frankly de-motivating. Now with the new policies put in place, plans are to remove the physical computers connected to the test network. I am looking for help to argue for why software developers shall have a dedicated physical software development computer, to be productive and cost effective. Remember that we are physically in office. Further one can notice that we are talking about approx. 50 computers out of 2000 employees. Therefore the extra budget is relatively small. This is more about policy than cost. Please note that there are lots of similar setups in other companies that work great due to a perfectly tuned systems. However, in my case it is sluggish and it would cost more money to trouble shoot the performance and fine tune it rather than to have a few physical computers. As a business case we have argued that productivity will go down by 25%, however it's my feeling that the reality is probably closer to 50%. This business case isn't really accepted and I find it very difficult to defend it to managers that has never ever used a rich IDE in their life, never mind developed software. Further the test network and remote client has no guaranteed service level, therefore it is down for a few hours per month with the lowest priority on the fix list. Help is appreciated.

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  • C++ templated factory constructor/de-serialization

    - by KRao
    Hi, I was looking at the boost serialization library, and the intrusive way to provide support for serialization is to define a member function with signature (simplifying): class ToBeSerialized { public: //Define this to support serialization //Notice not virtual function! template<class Archive> void serialize(Archive & ar) {.....} }; Moreover, one way to support serilization of derived class trough base pointers is to use a macro of the type: //No mention to the base class(es) from which Derived_class inherits BOOST_CLASS_EXPORT_GUID(Derived_class, "derived_class") where Derived_class is some class which is inheriting from a base class, say Base_class. Thanks to this macro, it is possible to serialize classes of type Derived_class through pointers to Base_class correctly. The question is: I am used in C++ to write abstract factories implemented through a map from std::string to (pointer to) functions which return objects of the desired type (and eveything is fine thanks to covariant types). Hover I fail to see how I could use the above non-virtual serialize template member function to properly de-serialize (i.e. construct) an object without knowing its type (but assuming that the type information has been stored by the serializer, say in a string). What I would like to do (keeping the same nomenclature as above) is something like the following: XmlArchive xmlArchive; //A type or archive xmlArchive.open("C:/ser.txt"); //Contains type information for the serialized class Base_class* basePtr = Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive); with the function on the righ-hand side creating an object on the heap of type Derived_class (via default constructor, this is the part I know how to solve) and calling the serialize function of xmlArchive (here I am stuck!), i.e. do something like: Base_class* Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive) { Base_class* basePtr = new Base_class; //OK, doable, usual map string to pointer to function static_cast<Derived_class*>( basePtr )->serialize( xmlArchive ); //De-serialization, how????? return basePtr; } I am sure this can be done (boost serialize does it but its code is impenetrable! :P), but I fail to figure out how. The key problem is that the serialize function is a template function. So I cannot have a pointer to a generic templated function. As the point in writing the templated serialize function is to make the code generic (i.e. not having to re-write the serialize function for different Archivers), it does not make sense then to have to register all the derived classes for all possible archive types, like: MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, XmlArchive); MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, TxtArchive); ... In fact in my code I relies on overloading to get the correct behaviour: void serialize( XmlArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); void serialize( TxtArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); ... The key point to keep in mind is that the archive type is always known, i.e. I am never using runtime polymorphism for the archive class...(again I am using overloading on the archive type). Any suggestion to help me out? Thank you very much in advance! Cheers

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  • Type for use in template object to compare double values

    - by DaClown
    I got this n-dimensional point object: template <class T, unsigned int dimension> class Obj { protected: T coords[dimension]; static const unsigned int size = dimension; public: Obj() { }; Obj(T def) { for (unsigned int i = 0; i < size; ++i) coords[i]=def; }; Obj(const Obj& o) { for (unsigned int i = 0; i < size; ++i) coords[i] = o.coords[i]; } const Obj& operator= (const Obj& rhs) { if (this != &rhs) for (unsigned int i = 0; i < size; ++i) coords[i] = rhs.coords[i]; return *this; } virtual ~Obj() { }; T get (unsigned int id) { if (id >= size) throw std::out_of_range("out of range"); return coords[id]; } void set (unsigned int id, T t) { if (id >= size) throw std::out_of_range("out of range"); coords[id] = t; } }; and a 3D point class which uses Obj as base class: template <class U> class Point3DBase : public Obj<U,3> { typedef U type; public: U &x, &y, &z; public: Point3DBase() : x(Obj<U,3>::coords[0]), y(Obj<U,3>::coords[1]), z(Obj<U,3>::coords[2]) { }; Point3DBase(U def) : Obj<U,3>(def), x(Obj<U,3>::coords[0]), y(Obj<U,3>::coords[1]), z(Obj<U,3>::coords[2]) { }; Point3DBase(U x_, U y_, U z_) : x(Obj<U,3>::coords[0]), y(Obj<U,3>::coords[1]), z(Obj<U,3>::coords[2]) { x = x_; y = y_; z= z_; }; Point3DBase(const Point3DBase& other) : x(Obj<U,3>::coords[0]), y(Obj<U,3>::coords[1]), z(Obj<U,3>::coords[2]) { x = other.x; y = other.y; z = other.z; } // several operators ... }; The operators, basically the ones for comparison, use the simple compare-the-member-object approach like: virtual friend bool operator== (const Point3DBase<U> &lhs, const Point3DBase<U> rhs) { return (lhs.x == rhs.x && lhs.y == rhs.y && lhs.z == rhs.z); } Then it occured to me that for the comparion of double values the simply equality approach is not very useful since double values should be compared with an error margin. What would be the best approach to introduce an error margin into the point? I thought about an epsDouble type as template parameter but I can't figure out how to achieve this.

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  • MVC multi page form losing session

    - by Bryan
    I have a multi-page form that's used to collect leads. There are multiple versions of the same form that we call campaigns. Some campaigns are 3 page forms, others are 2 pages, some are 1 page. They all share the same lead model and campaign controller, etc. There is 1 action for controlling the flow of the campaigns, and a separate action for submitting all the lead information into the database. I cannot reproduce this locally, and there are checks in place to ensure users can't skip pages. Session mode is InProc. This runs after every POST action which stores the values in session: protected override void OnActionExecuted(ActionExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuted(filterContext); if (this.Request.RequestType == System.Net.WebRequestMethods.Http.Post && this._Lead != null) ParentStore.Lead = this._Lead; } This is the Lead property within the controller: private Lead _Lead; /// <summary> /// Gets the session stored Lead model. /// </summary> /// <value>The Lead model stored in session.</value> protected Lead Lead { get { if (this._Lead == null) this._Lead = ParentStore.Lead; return this._Lead; } } ParentStore class: public static class ParentStore { internal static Lead Lead { get { return SessionStore.Get<Lead>(Constants.Session.Lead, new Lead()); } set { SessionStore.Set(Constants.Session.Lead, value); } } Campaign POST action: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Campaign(Lead lead, string campaign, int page) { if (this.Session.IsNewSession) return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = 0 }); if (ModelState.IsValid == false) return View(GetCampaignView(campaign, page), this.Lead); TrackLead(this.Lead, campaign, page, LeadType.Shared); return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = ++page }); } The problem is occuring between the above action, and before the following Submit action executes: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Submit(Lead lead, string campaign, int page) { if (this.Session.IsNewSession || this.Lead.Submitted || !this.LeadExists) return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = 0 }); lead.AddCustomQuestions(); MergeLead(campaign, lead, this.AdditionalQuestionsType, false); if (ModelState.IsValid == false) return View(GetCampaignView(campaign, page), this.Lead); var sharedLead = this.Lead.ToSharedLead(Request.Form.ToQueryString(false)); //Error occurs here and sends me an email with whatever values are in the form collection. EAUtility.ProcessLeadProxy.SubmitSharedLead(sharedLead); this.Lead.Submitted = true; VisitorTracker.DisplayConfirmationPixel = true; TrackLead(this.Lead, campaign, page, LeadType.Shared); return RedirectToAction(this.ConfirmationView); } Every visitor to our site gets a unique GUID visitorID. But when these error occurs there is a different visitorID between the Campaign POST and the Submit POST. Because we track each form submission via the TrackLead() method during campaign and submit actions I can see session is being lost between calls, despite the OnActionExecuted firing after every POST and storing the form in session. So when there are errors, we get half the form under one visitorID and the remainder of the form under a different visitorID. Luckily we use a third party service which sends an API call every time a form value changes which uses it's own ID. These IDs are consistent between the first half of the form, and the remainder of the form, and the only way I can save the leads from the lost session issues. I should also note that this works fine 99% of the time. EDIT: I've modified my code to explicitly store my lead object in TempData and used the TempData.Keep() method to persist the object between subsequent requests. I've only deployed this behavior to 1 of my 3 sites but so far so good. I had also tried storing my lead objects in Session directly in the controller action i.e., Session.Add("lead", this._Lead); which uses HTTPSessionStateBase, attempting to circumvent the wrapper class, instead of HttpContext.Current.Session which uses HTTPSessionState. This modification made no difference on the issue, as expected.

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  • How to get the selected index of a dropdowlist with javascript

    - by rui martins
    I have a table with several @Html.dropdowlistfor in it. I was trying to read the selected value of using javascript, but all read is the html generated. How can I read it?? for (var i = 0; i < oTable.length; i++) { **userModel.Id = oTable[i][0];** regionModel.Users.push(userModel); processModel.Regions.push(regionModel); userModel = { "Id": "", "Name": ""}; regionModel = { "Id": "", "Name": "", "Users": []}; } TABLE <table class="tbl" id="tbl"> <thead> <tr> <th> Region </th> <th> Owner </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> @if (Model != null) { foreach (var item in Model.Regions) { <tr> <td> @Html.DisplayTextFor(i => item.Name) </td> <td> @Html.DropDownListFor(i => item.Users, new SelectList(item.Users, "Id", "Name")) </td> </tr> } } </tbody> CODE function ProcessSave() { // Step 1: Read View Data and Create JSON Object var userModel = { "User": "", "Name": ""}; var regionModel = {"Region" : "","Name": "", "Users": []}; var processModel = { "User": "", "Description": "", "Code": "", "Regions": []}; processModel.Name = $("#Name").val(); processModel.Code = $("#Code").val(); processModel.Description = $("#Description").val(); var oTable = $('.tbl').dataTable().fnGetData(); for (var i = 0; i < oTable.length; i++) { regionModel.Name = oTable[i][0]; userModel.User = oTable[i][1]; userModel.Name = oTable[i][1]; regionModel.Users.push(userModel); processModel.Regions.push(regionModel); userModel = { "Id": "", "Name": ""}; regionModel = { "Name": "", "Users": []}; } // Step 1: Ends Here // Set 2: Ajax Post // Here i have used ajax post for saving/updating information $.ajax({ url: '/Process/Create', data: JSON.stringify(processModel), type: 'POST', contentType: 'application/json;', dataType: 'json', success: function (result) { if (result.Success == "1") { window.location.href = "/Process/Index"; } else { alert(result.ex); } } }); } MODELS namespace TestingTool.ViewModels { public partial class ProcessModel { public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<RegionModel> Regions { get; set; } } } namespace TestingTool.ViewModels { public class RegionModel { public int Region { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<UserModel> Users { get; set; } } } namespace TestingTool.ViewModels { public class UserModel { public int User{ get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } }

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  • How to Correct & Improve the Design of this Code?

    - by DaveDev
    HI Guys, I've been working on a little experiement to see if I could create a helper method to serialize any of my types to any type of HTML tag I specify. I'm getting a NullReferenceException when _writer = _viewContext.Writer; is called in protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) {/*...*/} I think I'm at a point where it almost works (I've gotten other implementations to work) and I was wondering if somebody could point out what I'm doing wrong? Also, I'd be interested in hearing suggestions on how I could improve the design? So basically, I have this code that will generate a Select box with a number of options: // the idea is I can use one method to create any complete tag of any type // and put whatever I want in the content area <% using (Html.GenerateTag<SelectTag>(Model, new { href = Url.Action("ActionName") })) { %> <%foreach (var fund in Model.Funds) {%> <% using (Html.GenerateTag<OptionTag>(fund)) { %> <%= fund.Name %> <% } %> <% } %> <% } %> This Html.GenerateTag helper is defined as: public static MMTag GenerateTag<T>(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, object elementData, object attributes) where T : MMTag { return (T)Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T), htmlHelper.ViewContext, elementData, attributes); } Depending on the type of T it'll create one of the types defined below, public class HtmlTypeBase : MMTag { public HtmlTypeBase() { } public HtmlTypeBase(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._viewContext = viewContext; base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } public class SelectTag : HtmlTypeBase { public SelectTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("select"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } public class OptionTag : HtmlTypeBase { public OptionTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("option"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, _elementData); } } public class AnchorTag : HtmlTypeBase { public AnchorTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { base._tag = new TagBuilder("a"); //base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData); } } all of these types (anchor, select, option) inherit from HtmlTypeBase, which is intended to perform base.MergeDataToTag(viewContext, elementData);. This doesn't happen though. It works if I uncomment the MergeDataToTag methods in the derived classes, but I don't want to repeat that same code for every derived class I create. This is the definition for MMTag: public class MMTag : IDisposable { internal bool _disposed; internal ViewContext _viewContext; internal TextWriter _writer; internal TagBuilder _tag; internal object[] _elementData; public MMTag() {} public MMTag(ViewContext viewContext, params object[] elementData) { } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true /* disposing */); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!_disposed) { _disposed = true; _writer = _viewContext.Writer; _writer.Write(_tag.ToString(TagRenderMode.EndTag)); } } protected void MergeDataToTag(ViewContext viewContext, object[] elementData) { Type elementDataType = elementData[0].GetType(); foreach (PropertyInfo prop in elementDataType.GetProperties()) { if (prop.PropertyType.IsPrimitive || prop.PropertyType == typeof(Decimal) || prop.PropertyType == typeof(String)) { object propValue = prop.GetValue(elementData[0], null); string stringValue = propValue != null ? propValue.ToString() : String.Empty; _tag.Attributes.Add(prop.Name, stringValue); } } var dic = new Dictionary<string, object>(StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase); var attributes = elementData[1]; if (attributes != null) { foreach (PropertyDescriptor descriptor in TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(attributes)) { object value = descriptor.GetValue(attributes); dic.Add(descriptor.Name, value); } } _tag.MergeAttributes<string, object>(dic); _viewContext = viewContext; _viewContext.Writer.Write(_tag.ToString(TagRenderMode.StartTag)); } } Thanks Dave

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  • Segmentation fault, shared library

    - by user1306184
    I get Segmentation Fault when I try to run my program. Can someone please help me find out what Im doing wrong? Compiling with this: g++ sms_out.cpp -o sms_out g++ -c -fPIC SMSDispatch.cpp g++ -shared SMSDispatch.o -o libSMSDispatch.so It should be a shared library and dynamic linking. I get Segmentation Fault when I try to run sms_out. //sms_out.cpp #include <iostream> #include<cstdlib> #include<fstream> #include<sstream> #include<string> #include "SMSDispatch.h" using namespace std; string sms = ""; void sendSMS(string sms) { SMSDispatch* sPtr=0; sPtr->sendSMS(sms); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { if(argv[1]) { string input = argv[1]; string test = "--author"; if(input == test) { cout << "s149113" << endl; return 0; } } string line = ""; string file = "sms_out.txt"; ifstream myfile(file.c_str()); while(getline(myfile, line)) { string idnr, landcode, number, error; istringstream linestream(line); unsigned short errorcode; //Split the sentence getline(linestream, idnr, '\t'); getline(linestream, landcode, ':'); getline(linestream, number, '\t'); getline(linestream, error); if(idnr == "") break; //Make string to int try { errorcode = atoi(error.c_str() ); } catch (exception &) { } //Put together landcode and tlfnumber string nr = landcode + number; string txt = "Thank you for your vote!"; if(errorcode == 100) txt = "Invalid question, please try again"; else if(errorcode == 110) txt = "Sorry, only one vote pr. number"; else if(errorcode == 200) txt = "Invalid alternative, please try again"; else if(errorcode == 300) txt = "Missing a statement after other, please try again"; else if(errorcode == 999) txt = "An error occurred, please try again"; sms += "{\"ID\":" + idnr + ",\"nr\":" + nr + ",\"txt\":" + "\"" + txt + "\"" + "}\n"; } cout << sms << endl; sendSMS(sms); } //SMSDispatch.h #include <string> #ifndef SMSDISPATCH_H #define SMSDISPATCH_H using namespace std; class SMSDispatch{ public: virtual void sendSMS(string json); }; #endif //SMSDispatch.cpp #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include "SMSDispatch.h" using namespace std; /*virtual*/void SMSDispatch::sendSMS(string json) { ofstream myfile; myfile.open ("sms_out.log"); myfile << json; myfile.close(); } int main() { }

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  • Java JNI leak in c++ process.

    - by user662056
    Hi all.. I am beginner in Java. My problem is: I am calling a Java class's method from c++. For this i am using JNI. Everythings works correct, but i have some memory LEAKS in the process of c++ program... So.. i did simple example.. 1) I create a java machine (jint res = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&jvm, (void**)&env, &vm_args);) 2) then i take a pointer on java class (jclass cls = env-FindClass("test_jni")); 3) after that i create a java class object object, by calling the constructor (testJavaObject = env-NewObject(cls, testConstruct);) AT THIS very moment in the process of c++ program is allocated 10 MB of memory 4) Next i delete the class , the object, and the Java Machine .. AT THIS very moment the 10 MB of memory are not free ................. So below i have a few lines of code c++ program void main() { { //Env JNIEnv *env; // java virtual machine JavaVM *jvm; JavaVMOption* options = new JavaVMOption[1]; //class paths options[0].optionString = "-Djava.class.path=C:/Sun/SDK/jdk/lib;D:/jms_test/java_jni_leak;"; // other options JavaVMInitArgs vm_args; vm_args.version = JNI_VERSION_1_6; vm_args.options = options; vm_args.nOptions = 1; vm_args.ignoreUnrecognized = false; // alloc part of memory (for test) before CreateJavaVM char* testMem0 = new char[1000]; for(int i = 0; i < 1000; ++i) testMem0[i] = 'a'; // create java VM jint res = JNI_CreateJavaVM(&jvm, (void**)&env, &vm_args); // alloc part of memory (for test) after CreateJavaVM char* testMem1 = new char[1000]; for(int i = 0; i < 1000; ++i) testMem1[i] = 'b'; //Creating java virtual machine jclass cls = env->FindClass("test_jni"); // Id of a class constructor jmethodID testConstruct = env->GetMethodID(cls, "<init>", "()V"); // The Java Object // Calling the constructor, is allocated 10 MB of memory in c++ process jobject testJavaObject = env->NewObject(cls, testConstruct); // function DeleteLocalRef, // In this very moment memory not free env->DeleteLocalRef(testJavaObject); env->DeleteLocalRef(cls); // 1!!!!!!!!!!!!! res = jvm->DestroyJavaVM(); delete[] testMem0; delete[] testMem1; // In this very moment memory not free. TO /// } int gg = 0; } java class (it just allocs some memory) import java.util.*; public class test_jni { ArrayList<String> testStringList; test_jni() { System.out.println("start constructor"); testStringList = new ArrayList<String>(); for(int i = 0; i < 1000000; ++i) { // ??????? ?????? testStringList.add("TEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEST"); } } } process memory view, after crating javaVM and java object: testMem0 and testMem1 - test memory, that's allocated by c++. ************** testMem0 ************** JNI_CreateJavaVM ************** testMem1 ************** // create java object jobject testJavaObject = env->NewObject(cls, testConstruct); ************** process memory view, after destroy javaVM and delete ref on java object: testMem0 and testMem1 are deleted to; ************** JNI_CreateJavaVM ************** // create java object jobject testJavaObject = env->NewObject(cls, testConstruct); ************** So testMem0 and testMem1 is deleted, But JavaVM and Java object not.... Sow what i do wrong... and how i can free memory in the c++ process program.

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  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

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  • Conflict between Jquery Validate and Asp.net MVC

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery validate 1.7 (http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) What happens is this. A user can click on a link to edit a product. When a user clicks on which product they want to edit a jquery dialog box appears with a form of textboxes and dropdown lists. These html controls have information filled in them. Say if the user chooses to edit the Ipad product a dialog will appear and one of the form textboxes will have "Ipad" in it. Now this form gets rendered on the server side(the form is in a partial view). When loading the dialog box a ajax request is made to get that partial view and in the response part of the ajax call I do something like $('#EditDialog).html(ajaxresponse).dialog({...}); So I would have something like this rendered in my dialog box <form id="EditProduct"> Product Name: <input type="text" value="IPad" name="ProductName" /> </form> Now my jquery validate would be something like this. $("#EditProduct").validate( { errorContainer: "#Errorbox", errorLabelContainer: "#Errorbox ul", wrapper: "li", rules: { ProductName: "required" } }); So I know this works because I use the same validate for add product and if you try to leave ProductName blank it will show a validation error. Now it does not work with the edit one though and I think I know the reason why but not how to fix it. The value for the textbox is "IPad" this is how the Html.TextBoxFor() renders it. However if a user goes and changes the product name to "Iphone" or blank the value never changes. It is always "Ipad" in the html. So I think when the validate goes and looks it goes oh there is a value already in it. It is valid even though in reality it might be blank. When I post to the server through ajax it gets the right value and the server side validation stops it but my entire clientside validation is rendered useless because of this problem as it will never change the html.

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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  • How do you make a CSS-defined table-cell scroll?

    - by Giffyguy
    I want to be able to set the height of the table, and force the cells to scroll individually if they are larger than the table. Consider the following code: (see it in action here) <div style="display: table; position: absolute; width: 25%; height: 80%; min-height: 80%; max-height: 80%; left: 0%; top: 10%; right: 75%; bottom: 10%; border: solid 1px black;"> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px blue;"> {Some dynamic text content}<br/> This cell should shrink to fit it's contents. </div> </div> <div style="display: table-row;"> <div style="display: table-cell; border: solid 1px red; overflow: scroll;"> This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. This should only take up the remainder of the table's vertical space. </div> </div> </div> If you open this code (in IE8, in my case) you'll notice that the second cell fits in the table nicely when the browser is maximized. In theory, when you shrink the browser (forcing the table to shrink as well), a vertical scrollbar should appear INSIDE the second cell when the table becomes too small to fit all of the content. But in reality, the table just grows vertically, beyond the bounds set by the CSS height attribute(s). Hopefully I've explained this scenario adequately... Does anyone know how I can get this to work?

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  • Using Include() with inherited entities problem

    - by Peter Stegnar
    In EF eager loading related entities is easy. But I'm having difficulties including inherited entities when loading data using table-per-type model. This is my model: Entities: ArticleBase (base article entity) ArticleSpecial (inherited from ArticleBase) UserBase (base user entity) UserSpecial (inherited from UserBase) Image Relations are as shown on the image (omitting many columns): In reality my users are always of type UserSpecial, since UserBase is used in another application, thus we can share credentials. That's the only reason I have two separate tables. UserBase table can't be changed in any way shape or form, because the other app would break. Question How am I suppose to load ArticleSpecial with both CreatedBy and EditedBy set, so that both are of type UserSpecial (that defines Image relation)? I've tried (unsuccessfully though) these options: 1. Using lambda expressions: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated.Image") .Include("UserEdited.Image"); In this case the problem is that both CreatedBy and EditedBy are related to UserBase, that doesn't define Image navigation. So I should somehow cast these two to UserSpecial type like: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") .Include("UserEdited<UserSpecial>.Image"); But of course using generics in Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") don't work. 2. I have tried using LINQ query var results = from articleSpecial in ctx.ArticleBase.OfType<ArticleSpecial>() join created in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserCreated.Id equals created.Id join edited in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserEdited.Id equals edited.Id select articleSpecial; In this case I'm only getting ArticleSpecial object instances without related properties being set. I know I should select those somehow, but I don't know how? Select part in my LINQ could be changed to something like select new { articleSpecial, articleSpecial.UserCreated, articleSpecial.UserEdited }; but images are still not loaded into my context. My joins in this case are barely used to filter out articleSpecial results, but they don't load entities into context (I suppose). Can anybody provide any help regarding this problem? I think it's not so uncommon.

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  • Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

    - by ckittel
    Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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  • ASP.NET MVC null ViewResult

    - by David Neale
    How should one deal with an MVC controller returning a null ViewResult? As an example I am creating a simple edit view: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var person = (from p in context.SWLiftShare_Persons where p.id == id select p).SingleOrDefault(); if (person != null) { return View(person); } else return View(); } I guess in reality there's no point in checking for a null result in the controller because the view picks out properties from the model: <h2>Edit - <%= Html.Encode(Model.Name) %></h2> <%= Html.ValidationSummary("Edit was unsuccessful. Please correct the errors and try again.") %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="id">id: <%= Html.Encode(Model.id) %></label> </p> <p> <label for="CollarNumber">CollarNumber:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("CollarNumber", Model.CollarNumber)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("CollarNumber", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="Name">Name:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Name", Model.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Name", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="EmailAddress">EmailAddress:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("EmailAddress", Model.EmailAddress, new { style = "width:300px" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("EmailAddress", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> I could just wrap everything in a <% if(Model != null) { //render edit markup... etc. but that seems rather unelegant. Is there a better way to deal with this?

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  • Function Point Analysis -- a seriously over-estimating technique?

    - by kizzx2
    I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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  • Client side validation of multiple radio buttons groups

    - by absolutely-free
    This is my code: <html> <head> <title>scoreboard</title> <script> function calculate() { var sum=0; var total=0; for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group1.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group1[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group1[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group2.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group2[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group2[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} for (var i=0; i < document.questions.group3.length; i++){ if (document.questions.group3[i].checked){ sum = parseInt(document.questions.group3[i].value) total = parseInt(total + sum);}} alert(total) } </script> </head> <body> <form name="questions"> A:<br> answer a1: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="0"> answer a2: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="1"> answer a3: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="2"> answer a4: <input type="radio" name="group1" value="3"><br> B:<br> answer b1: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="0"> answer b2: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="1"> answer b3: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="2"> answer b4: <input type="radio" name="group2" value="3"><br> C:<br> answer c1: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="0"> answer c2: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="1"> answer c3: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="2"> answer c4: <input type="radio" name="group3" value="3"><br><br> <input type="button" value="total" onclick="calculate()"> </form> </body> </html> How can I replace 'group[x]' in my code by a variable, so the three for-loops are replaced by one (because in reality there are a lot more questions and answers) ?

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  • How can I structure and recode messy categorical data in R?

    - by briandk
    I'm struggling with how to best structure categorical data that's messy, and comes from a dataset I'll need to clean. The Coding Scheme I'm analyzing data from a university science course exam. We're looking at patterns in student responses, and we developed a coding scheme to represent the kinds of things students are doing in their answers. A subset of the coding scheme is shown below. Note that within each major code (1, 2, 3) are nested non-unique sub-codes (a, b, ...). What the Raw Data Looks Like I've created an anonymized, raw subset of my actual data which you can view here. Part of my problem is that those who coded the data noticed that some students displayed multiple patterns. The coders' solution was to create enough columns (reason1, reason2, ...) to hold students with multiple patterns. That becomes important because the order (reason1, reason2) is arbitrary--two students (like student 41 and student 42 in my dataset) who correctly applied "dependency" should both register in an analysis, regardless of whether 3a appears in the reason column or the reason2 column. How Can I Best Structure Student Data? Part of my problem is that in the raw data, not all students display the same patterns, or the same number of them, in the same order. Some students may do just one thing, others may do several. So, an abstracted representation of example students might look like this: Note in the example above that student002 and student003 both are coded as "1b", although I've deliberately shown the order as different to reflect the reality of my data. My (Practical) Questions Should I concatenate reason1, reason2, ... into one column? How can I (re)code the reasons in R to reflect the multiplicity for some students? Thanks I realize this question is as much about good data conceptualization as it is about specific features of R, but I thought it would be appropriate to ask it here. If you feel it's inappropriate for me to ask the question, please let me know in the comments, and stackoverflow will automatically flood my inbox with sadface emoticons. If I haven't been specific enough, please let me know and I'll do my best to be clearer.

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  • Correct table layout generation with CSS: unexpected cells shift

    - by MrG
    I'm trying to generate a dynamic table using CSS: <html> <head> <style> div.el1, div.el2 { color:white; width:70px;height:70px; border:0px; padding:0px; font-size: 10px; font-family: "Courier"; } div.el1 { background-color: green; } div.el2 { background-color: orange; } div.tablediv { display: table; border:0px; border-spacing:0px; border-collapse:separate; } div.celldiv { display: table-cell; } div.rowdiv { display: table-row; width:auto; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="tablediv"> <div class="rowdiv"> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x1y1">ABC</div> </div> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el2" id="x1y2"></div> </div> </div> <div class="rowdiv"> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x2y1"></div> </div> <div class="celldiv"> <div class="el1" id="x2y2"></div> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html> The content of body is dynamically generated and should be displayed as a table. Unfortunately, each cell shifts down if it contains data: expected reality --- --- --- --- | | | | | | --- --- |ABC|--- | | | | | | --- --- --- --- | | | --- --- I'm grateful for any help. Many thanks!

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  • Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

    - by jkp
    I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

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  • Function Point Analysis -- a seriously overestimating technique?

    - by kizzx2
    I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week (I"m not even saying weekend) to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

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