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  • why does Integrated Windows Authentication fail when clients access off the network

    - by Bryan
    My background is not with web applications so this problem is hard for me to explain easily. First I'll try to describe the setup. Client setup:-Only browser that is effected is IE 6-8 (Firefox, chrome, opera, and safari all work fine) -A user will try to access our web application from a company laptop that is not connected to our network. -This machine will be a member of our workgroup and have the company DNS listed as a trusted intranet site. (to which the application in question would be a member) -The security logon mode is set to Automatic Logon only in intranet zone only, and IWA authentication is enabled on the clients browser.Server setup:-Windows server 2003 fp2-The application will first redirect to an Authorization asp page which has anonymous access disabled and IWA enabled in IIS.what should happen is that, since the client is not currently on the network, when this page is called it should prompt the user for network credentials. But with IE, instead of prompting, the user gets a page cannot be displayed error because the IIS manager is denying access to the asp page. If the company DNS is removed from the trusted intranet site list then it prompts correctly but disables single sign on the next time that computer is connected to the network or vpn. My assumption is that since IE uses IWA and the site is listed as an internal site, when no network is found IE just sends nulls to the server attempting to authenticate which is swiftly punted back. Other browsers do not have security zones so when network credentials are not present the server prompts for them. Is there a way to get around this so that our clients can keep the company DNS in the intranet zone but still have the server prompt for credentials when not on the network? Any attempt to allow for anonymous access on the asp page, as far as I know, will cause AUTH_USER to return null and again break SSO. I realize this is slightly rambling so I will do my best to clarify and questions you guys might have. Thanks in advance.

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  • IIS error hosting WCF Data Service on shared web host

    - by jkohlhepp
    My client has a website hosted on a shared web server. I don't have access to IIS. I am trying to deploy a WCF Data Service onto his site. I am getting this error: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. I have searched SO and other sites quite a bit but can't seem to find someone with my exact situation. I cannot change the IIS settings because this is a third party's server and it is a shared web server. So my only option is to change things in code or in the service config. My service config looks like this: <system.serviceModel xdt:Transform="Insert"> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://www.somewebsite.com"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="{Binding Name}" > <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="{Namespace to Service}"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="{Binding Name}" contract="System.Data.Services.IRequestHandler"> </endpoint> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> As you can see I tried to set the security mode to "None" but that didn't seem to help. What should I change to resolve this error?

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  • Different users get the same value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Getting values from DataGridView back to XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

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  • Am I under risk of CSRF attacks in a POST form that doesn't require the user to be logged in?

    - by Monika Sulik
    I'm probably being a total noob here, but I'm still uncertain about what a CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attack is exactly. So lets look at three situations... 1) I have a POST form that I use to edit data on my site. I want this data to be edited only by users that are logged in. 2) I have a site, which can be used by both users who are logged in as well as guests. Parts of the site are for logged in users only, but there are also POST forms that can be used by all users - anonymous and not (for example a standard contact form). Should the contact form be safeguarded against CSRF attacks? 3) I have a site which doesn't have an authentication system at all (well, perhaps that's unrealistic, so lets say it has an admin site which is separate from the rest of it and the admin part is properly safeguarded). The main part of the site is only used by anonymous users. Do the POST forms on it need to be safeguarded? In the case of 1) the answer is clearly yes. But in the case of 2 and 3 I don't know (and is the difference between 2 and 3 even significant?).

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  • Databinding question: DataGridView <=> XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

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  • XML Schema and element with type string

    - by svick
    I'm trying to create an XML Schema and I'm stuck. It seems I can't define an element with string content. What am I doing wrong? Schema: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0" targetNamespace="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0"> <xs:element name="music-library"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="artist" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> Document: <?xml version="1.0"?> <music-library xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0 data0.xsd" xmlns="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0"> <artist>a</artist> </music-library> The validator says: Element <artist> is not allowed under element <music-library>. Reason: The following elements are expected at this location (see below) <artist> Error location: music-library / artist Details cvc-model-group: Element <artist> unexpected by type '{anonymous}' of element <music-library>. cvc-elt.5.2.1: The element <music-library> is not valid with respect to the actual type definition '{anonymous}'.

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  • Loop through XML::Simple structure

    - by David
    So I have some xml file like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <root result="0" > <settings user="anonymous" > <s n="blabla1" > <v>true</v> </s> <s n="blabla2" > <v>false</v> </s> <s n="blabla3" > <v>true</v> </s> </settings> </root> I want to go through all the settings using the XML Simple. Here's what I have when I print the output with Data::Dumper: $VAR1 = { 'settings' => { 'user' => 'anonymous', 's' => [ { 'n' => 'blabla1', 'v' => 'true' }, { 'n' => 'blabla2', 'v' => 'false' }, { 'n' => 'blabla3', 'v' => 'true' } ] }, 'result' => '0' }; And here's my code $xml = new XML::Simple; $data = $xml->XMLin($file); foreach $s (keys %{ $data->{'settings'}->{'s'} }) { print "TEST: $s $data->{'settings'}->{'s'}->[$s]->{'n'} $data->{'settings'}->{'s'}->[$s]->{'v'}<br>\n"; } And it returns these 2 lines, without looping: TEST: n blabla1 true TEST: v blabla1 true I also tried to do something like this: foreach $s (keys %{ $data->{'settings'}->{'s'} }) { Without any success: Type of arg 1 to keys must be hash (not array dereference) How can I procede? What am I doing wrong? Thanks a lot!

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • Handling asynchronous responses

    - by James P.
    I'm building an FTP client from scratch and I've noticed that the response codes aren't immediate (which is no surprise). What would be a good approach for getting the corresponding code to a command? Below is an example of the output of Filezilla server. The response code is the three digits near the end of each line. (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> Connected, sending welcome message... (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> 220-FileZilla Server version 0.9.12 beta (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> 220-written by Tim Kosse ([email protected]) (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> 220 Please visit http://sourceforge.net/projects/filezilla/ (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> user anonymous (000057) 23/05/2010 19:43:10 - (not logged in) (127.0.0.1)> 331 Password required for anonymous

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  • Node.js fetching Twitter Streaming API - EADDRNOTAVAIL

    - by Jordan Scales
    I have the following code written in node.js to access to the Twitter Streaming API. If I curl the URL below, it works. However, I cannot get it to work with my code. var https = require('https'); https.request('https://USERNAME:[email protected]/1.1/statuses/sample.json', function(res) { res.on('data', function(chunk) { var d = JSON.parse(chunk); console.log(d); }); }); But I receive the following node.js:201 throw e; // process.nextTick error, or 'error' event on first tick ^ Error: connect EADDRNOTAVAIL at errnoException (net.js:642:11) at connect (net.js:525:18) at Socket.connect (net.js:589:5) at Object.<anonymous> (net.js:77:12) at new ClientRequest (http.js:1073:25) at Object.request (https.js:80:10) at Object.<anonymous> (/Users/jordan/Projects/twitter-stream/app.js:3:7) at Module._compile (module.js:441:26) at Object..js (module.js:459:10) at Module.load (module.js:348:31) If anyone can offer an alternative solution, or explain to me why this doesn't work, I would be very grateful.

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  • How are Scala closures transformed to Java objects?

    - by iguana
    I'm currently looking at closure implementations in different languages. When it comes to Scala, however, I'm unable to find any documentation on how a closure is mapped to Java objects. It is well documented that Scala functions are mapped to FunctionN objects. I assume that the reference to the free variable of the closure must be stored somewhere in that function object (as it is done in C++0x, e.g.). I also tried compiling the following with scalac and then decompiling the class files with JD: object ClosureExample extends Application { def addN(n: Int) = (a: Int) => a + n var add5 = addN(5) println(add5(20)) } In the decompiled sources, I see an anonymous subtype of Function1, which ought to be my closure. But the apply() method is empty, and the anonymous class has no fields (which could potentially store the closure variables). I suppose the decompiler didn't manage to get the interesting part out of the class files... Now to the questions: Do you know how the transformation is done exactly? Do you know where it is documented? Do you have another idea how I could solve the mystery?

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  • ASP.NET: disabling authentication for a single aspx page (custom error page)?

    - by Richard Collette
    I am using a custom error page: <customErrors redirectMode="ResponseRedirect" mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error2.aspx"/> I want to disable authentication for the custom error page because the error being raised is related to an authentication module and I don't want to get into an infinite loop and I want to display a clean error page to the user. I have been trying the following configuration to do that. <location path="Error2.aspx"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None"/> <authorization> <allow users="?"/> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> I am getting a System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException for the line that sets the authentication mode. It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. I have verified that there are no other web.config files in subdirectories under the application's folder. The applications folder is configured as an application in IIS and the error page is at the application's root. File permissions set for the error page in IIS include anonymous and windows authentication (I have tried just anonymous as well).

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  • How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

    - by Bungle
    Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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  • How do I get rid of these warnings?

    - by Brian Postow
    This is really several questions, but anyway... I'm working with a big project in XCode, relatively recently ported from MetroWorks (Yes, really) and there's a bunch of warnings that I want to get rid of. Every so often an IMPORTANT warning comes up, but I never look at them because there's too many garbage ones. So, if I can either figure out how to get XCode to stop giving the warning, or actually fix the problem, that would be great. Here are the warnings: It claims that <map.h> is antiquated. However, when I replace it with <map> my files don't compile. Evidently, there's something in map.h that isn't in map... this decimal constant is unsigned only in ISO C90 This is a large number being compared to an unsigned long. I have even cast it, with no effect. enumeral mismatch in conditional expression: <anonymous enum> vs <anonymous enum> This appears to be from a ?: operator. Possibly that the then and else branches don't evaluate to the same type? Except that in at least one case, it's (matchVp == NULL ? noErr : dupFNErr) And since those are both of type OSErr, which is mac defined... I'm not sure what's up. It also seems to come up when I have other pairs of mac constants... multi-character character constant This one is obvious. The problem is that I actually NEED multi-character constants... -fwritable-strings not compatible with literal CF/NSString I unchecked the "Strings are Read-Only" box in both the project and target settings... and it seems to have had no effect...

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  • boost::asio::async_resolve Problem

    - by Moo-Juice
    Hi All, I'm in the process of constructing a Socket class that uses boost::asio. To start with, I made a connect method that took a host and a port and resolved it to an IP address. This worked well, so I decided to look in to async_resolve. However, my callback always gets an error code of 995 (using the same destination host/port as when it worked synchronously). code: Function that starts the resolution: // resolve a host asynchronously template<typename ResolveHandler> void resolveHost(const String& _host, Port _port, ResolveHandler _handler) const { boost::asio::ip::tcp::endpoint ret; boost::asio::ip::tcp::resolver::query query(_host, boost::lexical_cast<std::string>(_port)); boost::asio::ip::tcp::resolver r(m_IOService); r.async_resolve(query, _handler); }; // eo resolveHost Code that calls this function: void Socket::connect(const String& _host, Port _port) { // Anon function for resolution of the host-name and asynchronous calling of the above auto anonResolve = [this](const boost::system::error_code& _errorCode, boost::asio::ip::tcp::resolver_iterator _epIt) { // raise event onResolve.raise(SocketResolveEventArgs(*this, !_errorCode ? (*_epIt).host_name() : String(""), _errorCode)); // perform connect, calling back to anonymous function if(!_errorCode) connect(*_epIt); }; // Resolve the host calling back to anonymous function Root::instance().resolveHost(_host, _port, anonResolve); }; // eo connect The message() function of the error_code is: The I/O operation has been aborted because of either a thread exit or an application request And my main.cpp looks like this: int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { morse::Root root; TextSocket s; s.connect("somehost.com", 1234); while(true) { root.performIO(); // calls io_service::run_one() } return 0; } Thanks in advance!

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  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

    - by Willis Blackburn
    I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

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  • Unpredictable CCK field name in returned View data

    - by AK
    I'm using views_get_view_result to directly access the data in a view. I've stumbled upon this odd behavior where cck fields are prefixed with the first field name as a query optimization. Explained here. What's bizarre though is that fields are named differently depending on whether I retrieve that data as Anonymous or as Admin. I'm pretty sure all my permissions are set up, and the view itself has no restrictions. What is going on here? This is a big problem since I can't know how to retrieve a field. Here's a dump of the two view results. Notice that node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value != node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value. // View as Admin stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 ) // View as Anonymous stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 )

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  • C++ Namespaces & templates question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I have some functions that can be grouped together, but don't belong to some object / entity and therefore can't be treated as methods. So, basically in this situation I would create a new namespace and put the definitions in a header file, the implementation in cpp file. Also (if needed) I would create an anonymous namespace in that cpp file and put all additional functions that don't have to be exposed / included to my namespace's interface there. See the code below (probably not the best example and could be done better with another program architecture, but I just can't think of a better sample...) Sample code (header) namespace algorithm { void HandleCollision(Object* object1, Object* object2); } Sample code (cpp) #include "header" // Anonymous namespace that wraps // routines that are used inside 'algorithm' methods // but don't have to be exposed namespace { void RefractObject(Object* object1) { // Do something with that object // (...) } } namespace algorithm { void HandleCollision(Object* object1, Object* object2) { if (...) RefractObject(object1); } } So far so good. I guess this is a good way to manage my code, but I don't know what should I do if I have some template-based functions and want to do basically the same. If I'm using templates, I have to put all my code in the header file. Ok, but how should I conceal some implementation details then? Like, I want to hide RefractObject function from my interface, but I can't simply remove it's declaration (just because I have all my code in a header file)... The only approach I came up with was something like: Sample code (header) namespace algorithm { // Is still exposed as a part of interface! namespace impl { template <typename T> void RefractObject(T* object1) { // Do something with that object // (...) } } template <typename T, typename Y> void HandleCollision(T* object1, Y* object2) { impl::RefractObject(object1); // Another stuff } } Any ideas how to make this better in terms of code designing?

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  • Using delegate Types vs methods

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I see increasing use of the delegate types offered in the System namespace (Action; Predicate etc). As these are delegates, my understanding is that they should be used where we have traditionally used delegates in the past (asynchronous calls; starting threads, event handling etc). Is it just preference or is it considered practice to use these delegate types in scenarios such as the below; rather than using calls to methods we have declared (or anonymous methods): public void MyMethod { Action<string> action = delegate(string userName { try { XmlDocument profile = DataHelper.GetProfile(userName); UpdateMember(profile); } catch (Exception exception) { if (_log.IsErrorEnabled) _log.ErrorFormat(exception.Message); throw (exception); } }; GetUsers().ForEach(action); } At first, I found the code less intuitive to follow than using declared or anonymous methods. I am starting to code this way, and wonder what the view are in this regard. The example above is all within a method. Is this delegate overuse.

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  • Soap 1.2 Endpoint Performance

    - by mflair2000
    I have a Client WCF Host Service SOAP 1.2 Service setup and i'm having performance issues on the SOAP Java proxy. I have no control over how the Java service is setup, aside from the endpoint config. I have the Client running Asynchronously, and the host WCF service running in Async pattern, but i see the SOAP 1.2 proxy bottlenecking and handling the requests in a Synchronous way. Can someone take a look at the auto-generated SOAP 1.2 configuration below, from the SOAP 1.2 Service wsdl? Is there a way to configure this for Async way and improve performance? Could be configured for SOAP 1.1? <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" closeTimeout="00:30:00" openTimeout="00:30:00" receiveTimeout="00:30:00" sendTimeout="00:30:00"> <textMessageEncoding maxReadPoolSize="64" maxWritePoolSize="16" messageVersion="Soap12" writeEncoding="utf-8"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="20000000" maxArrayLength="20000000" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </textMessageEncoding> <httpTransport manualAddressing="false" maxBufferPoolSize="20000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="20000000" allowCookies="false" authenticationScheme="Anonymous" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" decompressionEnabled="true" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" keepAliveEnabled="true" maxBufferSize="20000000" proxyAuthenticationScheme="Anonymous" realm="" transferMode="Buffered" unsafeConnectionNtlmAuthentication="false" useDefaultWebProxy="true" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://10.18.2.117:8080/java/webservice/WebserviceListener.WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint/" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" contract="ResolveServiceReference.WebserviceListenerPortType" name="WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • Sharepoint error 403 access forbidden

    - by seenasan
    I am new to sharepoint and after creating a new web application this is what i'm getting - The website declined to show this webpage HTTP 403 Most likely causes: •This website requires you to log in. This error (HTTP 403 Forbidden) means that Internet Explorer was able to connect to the website, but it does not have permission to view the webpage. I have Anonymous Authorization enabled in IIS and in sharepoint central admin. Does anyone know how to make this work?

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