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  • Nonblocking Tcp server

    - by hoodoos
    It's not a question really, i'm just looking for some guidelines :) I'm currently writing some abstract tcp server which should use as low number of threads as it can. Currently it works this way. I have a thread doing listening and some worker threads. Listener thread is just sits and wait for clients to connect I expect to have a single listener thread per server instance. Worker threads are doing all read/write/processing job on clients socket. So my problem is in building efficient worker process. And I came to some problem I can't really solve yet. Worker code is something like that(code is really simple just to show a place where i have my problem): List<Socket> readSockets = new List<Socket>(); List<Socket> writeSockets = new List<Socket>(); List<Socket> errorSockets = new List<Socket>(); while( true ){ Socket.Select( readSockets, writeSockets, errorSockets, 10 ); foreach( readSocket in readSockets ){ // do reading here } foreach( writeSocket in writeSockets ){ // do writing here } // POINT2 and here's the problem i will describe below } it works all smothly accept for 100% CPU utilization because of while loop being cycling all over again, if I have my clients doing send-receive-disconnect routine it's not that painful, but if I try to keep alive doing send-receive-send-receive all over again it really eats up all CPU. So my first idea was to put a sleep there, I check if all sockets have their data send and then putting Thread.Sleep in POINT2 just for 10ms, but this 10ms later on produces a huge delay of that 10ms when I want to receive next command from client socket.. For example if I don't try to "keep alive" commands are being executed within 10-15ms and with keep alive it becomes worse by atleast 10ms :( Maybe it's just a poor architecture? What can be done so my processor won't get 100% utilization and my server to react on something appear in client socket as soon as possible? Maybe somebody can point a good example of nonblocking server and architecture it should maintain?

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  • Can AVAudioSession do full duplex?

    - by Eric Christensen
    It would seem like it should be able to, but the following breakout test code can't do both: //play a file: NSArray *pathsArray = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [pathsArray objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* playFilePath=[documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"testplayfile.wav"]; AVAudioPlayer *tempplayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:playFilePath] error:nil]; [tempplayer prepareToPlay]; [tempplayer play]; //and record a file: NSString* recFilePath=[documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"testrecordfile.wav"]; AVAudioRecording *soundrecording = [[AVAudioRecorder alloc] initWithURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:recFilePath] settings:nil error:nil]; [soundrecording prepareToRecord]; [soundrecording record]; This is the minimum I can think of to individually play one file and record another. And this works just fine in the simulator. I can play back a file and record at the same time. But it doesn't work on the iphone itself. If I comment out either function, the other performs fine. The playback plays fine either alone or with both, if it's first. If I comment out the playback, the record records fine. (There's additional code to stop the recording not shown here.) So each works fine, but not together. I know audioQueue has a setting to allow both, but I don't see an analogue for AVAudioSessions. Any idea if it's possible, and if so, what I need to add? Thanks!

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  • "Executing SQL directly; no cursor" error when using SCOPE_IDENTITY

    - by Chris
    There wasn't much on google about this error, so I'm askin here. I'm switching a PHP web application from using MySQL to SQL Server 2008 (using ODBC, not php_mssql). Running queries or anything else isn't a problem, but when I try to do scope_identity (or any similar functions), I get the error "Executing SQL directly; no cursor". I'm doing this immediately after an insert, so it should still be in scope. Running the same insert statement then query for the insert ID works fine in SQL Server Management Studio. Here's my code right now (everything else in the database wrapper class works fine for other queries, so I'll assume it isn't relevant right now): function insert_id(){ $x = $this->query_first("SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY('session_log') as insert_id"); echo "($x)"; return $x; } query_first being a function that returns the first result from the first field of a query (basically the equivalent of execute_scalar() on .net). The full error message: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][SQL Server Native Client 10.0][SQL Server]Executing SQL directly; no cursor., SQL state 01000 in SQLExecDirect in C:[...]\Database_MSSQL.php on line 110

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  • Binary stream 'NN' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or obje

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I am passing user defined classes over sockets. The SendObject code is below. It works on my local machine, but when I publish to the WebServer which is then communicating with the App Server on my own machine it fails. public bool SendObject(Object obj, ref string sErrMsg) { try { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); bf1.Serialize(ms, obj); byte[] byArr = ms.ToArray(); int len = byArr.Length; m_socClient.Send(byArr); return true; } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "SendObject Error: " + e.Message; return false; } } I can do this fine if it is one class in my tools project and the other class about UserData just doesn't want to know. Frustrating! Ohh. I think its because the UserData class has a DataSet inside it. Funnily enough I have seen this work, but then after 1 request it goes loopy and I can't get it to work again. Anyone know why this might be? I have looked at comparing the dlls to make sure they are the same on the WebServer and on my local machine and they look to be so as I have turned on versioning in the AssemblyInfo.cs to double check. Edit: Ok it seems that the problem is with size. If I keep it under 1024 byes ( I am guessing here) it works on the web server and doesnt if it has a DataSet inside it.k In fact this is so puzzling I converted the DataSet to a string using ds.GetXml() and this also causes it to blow up. :( So it seems that across the network something with my sockets is wrong and doesn't want to read in the data. JonSkeet where are you. ha ha. I would offer Rep but I don't have any. Grr

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  • Problem in IE8 with GET Parameters in opening a new windows with javascript.

    - by amfa95
    Hi, I have a problem with IE8 and the opening of a new window with javascript and submitting parameters with special characters. <a href="javascript:oWin('/html/de/4664286/printregistrationcontent.html?12-security question&#61;Wie hei&#223;t Ihr Lieblingsrestaurant','PRINT',800,600);" class="print">Seite drucken</a> The Problem is the letter 'ß' (sharp S). As you can see the string above is encodes due to anti XSS. This link works in FF and IE6 but IE8 is transmitting the URL Parameter as character with code 65*** (don't know the exaxt value). In the opening window you will only see a square (because character with 65000+ is not printable). I also tried to use URL Encoding instead of HTML encoding <a href="javascript:oWin('/html/de/4664286/printregistrationcontent.html?12-security question%3DWie hei%C3%9Ft Ihr Lieblingsrestaurant','PRINT',800,600);" class="print">Seite drucken</a> If i click on this Link in FF or IE6 it works as expected, but IE8 will fail to transmit the "ß" to the server and therefor will also get it back in the wrong way. If i paste this url to the IE8 it will work too, but not if the window is opened by javascript. The Javascript function oWin is defined as follows function oWin(url,title,sizeH,sizeV) { winHandle = top.open(url,title,'toolbar=no,directories=no,status=yes,scrollbars=yes,menubar=no,resizable=no,width='+sizeH+',height='+sizeV); if(navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 3",0)==-1) id = setTimeout('winHandle.focus()',1000); } If someone has an idea where to look for the reason please answer to this. Thank you amfa

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  • Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

    - by Dave
    Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

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  • DirectSho GMFBridge not working as expected

    - by user1327407
    I am trying to understand why wont the source filter connect with VMR9? mediaController.InsertSourceFilter(sinkFilter, m_pRenderGraph, out sourceFilter); var vmr = new VideoMixingRenderer9(); m_pRenderGraph.AddFilter(vmr as IBaseFilter, "VMR"); IBaseFilter vmrBase = FilterGraphTools.FindFilterByClsid(m_pRenderGraph, Clsid.VideoMixingRenderer9); IVMRFilterConfig9 xd = vmrBase as IVMRFilterConfig9; if (xd != null) { int status = xd.SetRenderingMode(VMR9Mode.Windowless); } FilterGraphTools.ConnectFilters(m_pRenderGraph, sourceFilter, vmrBase, true); mediaController.BridgeGraphs(sinkFilter, sourceFilter); Without going into too much detail: Line „ConnectFilters“ fails because no intermediate filters are found to make that connection work. When trying to debug, I can clearly see that Source filter is not spitting out anything useful. (It’s like that the sink<--source transfer never works), so that’s why it wont connect. However, when I get source filter „Output 1“ pin, and then use myGraph.Render(source_output_pin), it works. Data is being sent from sink to source and everything connects automatically. However the problem is that the wrong VMR is inserted there. It’s VMR Renderer. I would like to have VMR9, that’s why im doing it. Why wont it work with VMR9 and why does source filter not show correct media type. Thank you.

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  • Problem with Flash...help

    - by aarontb
    Hey Guys...need help. Working on a project and get this error on the Output Log TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at FlashSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame16() Here's every frame that is on, begins, or crosses frame 16 Layer Name: Top Menu (4 Button named Home_btn, Works_btn, Tech_btn, Contact_btn) Code attached to frame: stop(); Home_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, home); function home(event:MouseEvent):void { gotoAndStop(16); } Works_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, works); function works(event:MouseEvent):void { gotoAndStop(17); } Tech_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, tech); function tech(event:MouseEvent):void { gotoAndStop(18); } Contacts_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, contact); function contact(event:MouseEvent):void { gotoAndStop(19); } Layer Name: Investment Opp (button named Invest_btn) Code attached to frame: Invest_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, invest); function invest(event:MouseEvent):void { var link:URLRequest = new URLRequest('#'); navigateToURL(link); } Layer Name: MfgOpp (Button named Mfg_btn) Code attached to frame: Mfg_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, mfg); function mfg(event:MouseEvent):void { var link:URLRequest = new URLRequest('#'); navigateToURL(link); } Layer Name: MarketResearch (button name Own_btn) Code attached to frame: Own_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, own); function own(event:MouseEvent):void { var link:URLRequest = new URLRequest('#'); navigateToURL(link); } Layer Name: ActionScript Code attached to frame: import flash.events.MouseEvent; What am I doing wrong?!?!

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  • Nested dereferencing arrows in Perl: to omit or not to omit?

    - by DVK
    In Perl, when you have a nested data structure, it is permissible to omit de-referencing arrows to 2d and more level of nesting. In other words, the following two syntaxes are identical: my $hash_ref = { 1 => [ 11, 12, 13 ], 3 => [31, 32] }; my $elem1 = $hash_ref->{1}->[1]; my $elem2 = $hash_ref->{1}[1]; # exactly the same as above Now, my question is, is there a good reason to choose one style over the other? It seems to be a popular bone of stylistic contention (Just on SO, I accidentally bumped into this and this in the space of 5 minutes). So far, none of the usual suspects says anything definitive: perldoc merely says "you are free to omit the pointer dereferencing arrow". Conway's "Perl Best Practices" says "whenever possible, dereference with arrows", but it appears to only apply to the context of dereferencing the main reference, not optional arrows on 2d level of nested data structures. "MAstering Perl for Bioinfirmatics" author James Tisdall doesn't give very solid preference either: "The sharp-witted reader may have noticed that we seem to be omitting arrow operators between array subscripts. (After all, these are anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays, etc., so shouldn't they be written [$array-[$i]-[$j]-[$k]?) Perl allows this; only the arrow operator between the variable name and the first array subscript is required. It make things easier on the eyes and helps avoid carpal tunnel syndrome. On the other hand, you may prefer to keep the dereferencing arrows in place, to make it clear you are dealing with references. Your choice." Personally, i'm on the side of "always put arrows in, since itg's more readable and obvious tiy're dealing with a reference".

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  • How to keep character encoding with database queries.

    - by JasonS
    Hi, I am doing the following. 1) I am exporting a database and saving it to a file called dump.sql. 2) The file is then transferred to a different server via PHP ftp. 3) When the file has been successfully transferred the administrator has an option to run a 'dbtransfer' script on the new host. 4) This script blows up the script and runs the queries line by line. This works great - however there is a problem with foreign language encoding. We are using UTF-8. Step 1 : This works fine, file is in UTF-8 Format. Step 3 : When I test the contents of the dump.sql file using mb_check_encoding(). The string comes back as UTF-8. Step 4 : This creates tables with utf8_general_ci encoding. The information is dumped in. When I check the table after the transfer I get records like this: 'ç,Ç,ö,Ö,ü,Ü,ı,İ,ş,Ş,ğ,Ğ'. I don't understand how a UTF-8 string can lose its encoding when it goes into the database. Am I missing a step? Do I need to run some sort of function to ensure the string is parsed as UTF-8? Once the system is installed I can save foreign language queries. It is just the transfer that is messing up. Any ideas?

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  • JSON / JSONP in JQuery

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello. I am trying to figure out why my $.getJSON method does not seem to be working but the $.ajax works just fine. First, here is my getJSON call: $.getJSON("http://localhost:1505/getServiceImageList?callback=loadImagesInSelect", loadImagesInSelect); You can see I have tried added the callback parameter directly to the query string (also tried it not on string) and I added a reference to the callback method defined in my js file. Here is the $.ajax call which works just fine: function getImages() { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $('#txt_registry_url').val(), dataType: "jsonp", success:loadImagesInSelect , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } In this example the url pulled from the text box is the same as in the straight call to getJSON. When the method call completes, the successMethod is called and everything processes just fine. While I am cool with using the later of the two methods, the docs make it seem that the getJSON is the preferred shorthand way of doing things. Can anyone please explain what I am missing on the shorthand method to make it all work? Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MembershipProvider and StructureMap

    - by Ben
    I was using the default AspNetSqlMembershipProvider in my application. Authentication is performed via an AuthenticationService (since I'm also supporting other forms of membership like OpenID). My AuthenticationService takes a MembershipProvider as a constructor parameter and I am injecting the dependency using StructureMap like so: For<MembershipProvider>().Use(Membership.Provider); This will use the MembershipProvider configured in web.config. All this works great. However, now I have rolled my own MembershipProvider that makes use of a repository class. Since the MembershipProvider isn't exactly IoC friendly, I added the following code to the MembershipProvider.Initialize method: _membershipRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IMembershipRepository>(); However, this raises an exception, like StructureMap hasn't been initialized (cannot get instance of IMembershipRepository). However, if I remove the code and put breakpoints at my MembershipProvider's initialize method and my StructureMap bootstrapper, it does appear that StructureMap is configured before the MembershipProvider is initialized. My only workaround so far is to add the above code to each method in the MembershipProvider that needs the repository. This works fine, but I am curious as to why I can't get my instance in the Initialize method. Is the MembershipProvider performing some internal initialization that runs before any of my own application code does? Thanks Ben

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  • Internet Explorer 8 timeout too quick on page POSTs

    - by cdm9002
    We have an asp.net site running, which has been working fine for some time, but recently I have been experiencing some issues with IE8. On posting some pages - mainly on our development server, although on staging too - we get an occasional "Internet Explore cannot display the webpage" error along with the button asking to diagnose connection problems. IE only seems to wait 10 seconds before timing out. I know that the page itself may take longer to load the first time (on dev and staging). So press F5 and everything then works fine. Is there anything that should be done in the aspx page to tell IE to wait a bit longer? I thought I had read that the default timeout supposed to be 90 seconds or something for browsers. A bit more info: It mostly happens on a POSTing a signup page, but that is just because I test that page and it starts the IIS App, makes the first connection to SQL and pre-caches some information. That first time the page can take 10-15 seconds to come back. IE8 times out after 10 seconds as it has had nothing back. This happens on a dev W7x64 machine with 8GB RAM, as well as on a staging server WIN2008. Having googled around a bit, some people are seeing the same problem, but no conclusive pointers to the problem or a solution. It isn't a connection problem; everything works fine in Firefox, Chrome and even IE7; I have tried with add-ons disabled and resetting IE settings, still happens. Ideas welcome.

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  • Trying to save file from Flash to PHP using $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]

    - by jolyonruss
    Let me start by saying PHP isn't my forte, I'm usually reluctant to try working with it because of problems exactly like this. The code works fine on my local machine under MAMP and on my server, but doesn't on the clients server :'( So what am I trying to do, well - save an image from Flash onto the server, simple right?! I'm using the method described on this site here: http://designreviver.com/tutorials/actionscript-3-jpeg-encoder-revealed-saving-images-from-flash/ but have made a small alteration so that instead of echoing the jpg causing the browser to download it locally, I do an fwrite and an fclose to save it to the server. Here is my PHP: $imageFile = '../images/' . $_GET['name']; $imageHandle = fopen($imageFile, "w"); fwrite($imageHandle, $jpg); fclose($imageHandle); } ? I've dona a phpinfo() on my clients server and it's running 5.2.2 my host is running 5.2.11 I don't know if much can have changed in those 9 minor revisions? I've also read another question on here which suggests making suer always_populate_raw_post_data is set to ON, but it's set to OFF on all of the server environments I've been testing in. I'm doing some XML saving using file_get_contents('php://input') which I've tried but failed to get working with images. Any help would be gratefully received, I'm happy to post the AS3 as well but it's EXACTLY the same as example I've linked above and works locally. As far as I can tell the problem lies with the PHP. Cheers.

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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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  • Universal Authentication to Google Data API?

    - by viatropos
    Hey, I want to be able to have say 10 admin users store all their documents on google docs for a domain ('http://docs.google.com/a/domain.com'), and have everyone else be able to view them through 'domain.com/documents'. I'm just not certain how the whole authentication thing works in that case. Should I use OAuth? Or could I just use ClientLogin for say the root/global admin, and anytime someone goes to the site, they login as that? That works for personal docs, but it doesn't seem to be working for Google Apps. I would like it so the user has no idea they're accessing google docs, so I don't want them to have to say "Yes, Authenticate this App with Google", as seen in this Doclist Manager App. The app is basically: Admin stores a bunch of forms and documents User uses form and views documents the admin has posted ... so there's no need to access the user's Google Docs. But it seems like AuthSub and OAuth are addressing that instead... Thanks for the tips.

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  • Apache and backslashes in mod_rewrite

    - by NuCalTone
    I want to process all incoming requests through a single script (index.php in web-root). So, the following is what currently happens: http://localhost/foo/bar/baz Is routed by Apache (through .htaccess) to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo/bar/baz This works well, however, in Firefox I am able to do this: http://localhost/foo\ - notice the backslash. And Apache, instead of doing: /index.php?url=foo\ Emits a generic error page saying: Object not found! The requested URL was not found on this server. If you entered the URL manually please check your spelling and try again. If you think this is a server error, please contact the webmaster. Error 404 localhost Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 Directly going to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo\ works without issues, however. All the sites that I've seen on the internet seem to be able to handle backslashes gracefully (e.g., http://stackoverflow.com/tags/php\\\\\). I consider this behavior a bug and I want to force Apache to forward backslashes correctly. Here's my .htaccess file in its entirety: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [L] How can I make this work properly?

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  • Primitive type 'short' - casting in Java

    - by gemm
    Hello, I have a question about the primitive type 'short' in Java. I am using JDK 1.6. If I have the following: short a = 2; short b = 3; short c = a + b; the compiler does not want to compile - it says that it "cannot convert from int to short" and suggests that I make a cast to short, so this: short c = (short) (a + b); really works. But my question is why do I need to cast? The values of a and b are in the range of short - the range of short values is {-32,768, 32767}. I also need to cast when I want to perform the operations -, *, / (I haven't checked for others). If I do the same for primitive type int, I do not need to cast aa+bb to int. The following works fine: int aa = 2; int bb = 3; int cc = aa +bb; I discovered this while designing a class where I needed to add two variables of type short, and the compiler wanted me to make a cast. If I do this with two variables of type int, I don't need to cast. Thank you very much in advance. A small remark: the same thing also happens with the primitive type byte. So, this workes: byte a = 2; byte b = 3; byte c = (byte) (a + b); but this not: byte a = 2; byte b = 3; byte c = a + b; For long, float, double, and int, there is no need to cast. Only for short and byte values.

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  • Why does this code send the form input to the URL?

    - by marcamillion
    How do I get this form input to be stored in a variable, that I can then use later - rather than being appended to the end of the URL? <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live("click", function(e) { tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); return false; }); }); </script> <body> <div align="center"> <img src="images/ror1.gif" width="760" height="182" alt="Ror1" id="image-wrapper"> </div> </body>

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  • Difference between GL10 and GLES10 on Android

    - by kayahr
    The GLSurfaceView.Renderer interface of the Android SDK gives me a GL interface as parameter which has the type GL10. This interface is implemented by some private internal jni wrapper class. But there is also the class GLES10 where all the GL methods are available as static methods. Is there an important difference between them? So what if I ignore the gl parameter of onDrawFrame and instead use the static methods of GLES10 everywhere? Here is an example. Instead of doing this: void onDrawFrame(GL10 gl) { drawSomething(gl); } void drawSomething(GL10 gl) { gl.glLoadIdentity(); ... } I could do this: void onDrawFrame(GL10 gl) { drawSomething(); } void drawSomething() { GLES10.glLoadIdentity(); ... } The advantage is that I don't have to pass the GL context to all called methods. But even it it works (And it works, I tried it) I wonder if there are any disadvantages and reasons to NOT do it like that.

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  • python - tkinter - update label from variable

    - by Tom
    I wrote a python script that does some stuff to generate and then keep changing some text stored as a string variable. This works, and I can print the string each time it gets changed. Problems have arisen while trying to display that output in a GUI (just as a basic label) using tkinter. I can get the label to display the string for the first time... but it never updates. This is really the first time I have tried to use tkinter, so it's likely I'm making a foolish error. What I've got looks logical to me, but I'm evidently going wrong somewhere! from tkinter import * outputText = 'Ready' counter = int(0) root = Tk() root.maxsize(400, 400) var = StringVar() l = Label(root, textvariable=var, anchor=NW, justify=LEFT, wraplength=398) l.pack() var.set(outputText) while True: counter = counter + 1 #do some stuff that generates string as variable 'result' outputText = result #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result if counter == 5: break root.mainloop() I also tried: from tkinter import * outputText = 'Ready' counter = int(0) root = Tk() root.maxsize(400, 400) var = StringVar() l = Label(root, textvariable=var, anchor=NW, justify=LEFT, wraplength=398) l.pack() var.set(outputText) while True: counter = counter + 1 #do some stuff that generates string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) if counter == 5: break root.mainloop() In both cases, the label will show 'Ready' but won't update to change that to the strings as they're generated later. After a fair bit of googling and looking through answers on this site, I thought the solution might be to use update_idletasks - I tried putting that in after each time the variable was changed, but it didn't help. It also seems possible I am meant to be using trace and callback somehow to make all this work...but I can't get my head around how that works (I tried, but didn't manage to make anything that even looked like it would do something, let alone actually worked). I'm still very new to both python and especially tkinter, so, any help much appreciated but please spell it out for me if you can :)

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  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

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  • Debugging SIGABRT within NSManagedObjectContext -save:

    - by westsider
    From inside NSManagedObjectContext -save: I am getting this message: Assertion failed: (_Unwind_SjLj_Resume() can't return), function _Unwind_SjLj_Resume, file /SourceCache/libunwind/libunwind-24.1/src/Unwind-sjlj.c, line 326. Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. warning: Unable to read symbols for /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib (file not found). This happens when I delete an Experiment object with to-many with Run which has to-many with Sample which has to-one with Data. Experiment also has to-many with Page which has to-many with Display which has to-many to Run. I mention this to point out the cyclical nature of the graph. Here is a simplified graph of model: I had been using Delete Rules but have now switched to "No Action" delete rules in combination with -prepareForDeletion methods for all of these classes. This change made no difference. In both cases, the error message is the same. Interestingly, when I relaunch the app, all the objects that were marked for deletion have been deleted. Also, if an Experiment has no Run objects, then deletion works without incidence. For that matter, deleting a single Run from an Experiment also works. I am hoping that someone has seen something like this and can offer advice on what would cause this. Or, if someone has advice on how to get libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1, that might also be helpful. Update: I followed advice found here and was able to get Xcode to find libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1. But this did not help at all in diagnosing problem - which persists.

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  • toggling proximity sensor on iPhone loses an event

    - by slugolicious
    I'm using setProximitySensingEnabled and implemented proximityStateChanged in my UIApplication subclass. It looks like if sensing is toggled, that the first "off" event is being lost. My UIApplication class is pretty basic... -(void)proximityStateChanged:(BOOL)state { NSLog(state ? @"ON" : @"OFF"); } In my application delegate, I have a UISwitch that enables/disables the proximity sensor. -(IBAction)toggleProxy:(id)sender { [UIApplication sharedApplication].proximitySensingEnabled = prox.on; } "prox" is my UISwitch. The test works fine when it first starts. I tap the switch to turn it on and then put my hand over the sensor for a second then move it away and get: 2009-03-11 12:43:00.465 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:02.514 Proximity[324:20b] OFF 2009-03-11 12:43:04.046 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:05.621 Proximity[324:20b] OFF I then tap the switch to turn it off then tap again to turn it on. Now I get: 2009-03-11 12:43:12.005 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:14.789 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:16.467 Proximity[324:20b] OFF 2009-03-11 12:43:17.516 Proximity[324:20b] ON 2009-03-11 12:43:19.077 Proximity[324:20b] OFF Notice I get two ON's before an OFF. The OFF is lost somewhere. I can't replicate this behavior using Google's mobile app so I'm wondering if they're resetting something in between proximity enabling. They don't have the proximity sensor on all the time because if you cover the sensor, the screen doesn't go blank. You have to tilt the phone up and angle it back (to simulate the position it would be in at your ear) and then covering the sensor works. Anyone else playing with the sensor? In my particular app, I'm recording a voice message and when you move the phone away from your ear, I want to pause the recording (when I get an OFF). The first time I move the phone away from my ear, the recording is not paused. However, if I put it to my ear and move it away again, it is paused.

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  • How do I dynamically create a document for download in Javascript?

    - by Nelson
    I'm writing some Javascript code that generates an XML document in the client (via Google Earth plugin). I'd like the user to be able to click a button on the page and be prompted to save that XML to a new file. If I were generating the XML server-side this would be easy, just make the button open the link. But the XML is generated client-side. I've come up with a couple of hacks that half-work, inspired in part by this StackOverflow question. But neither completely work. Here's a demo HTML with embedded code: <html><head><script> function getData() { return '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><doc>Hello</doc>'; } function dlDataURI() { window.open("data:text/xml;charset=utf-8," + getData()); } function dlWindow() { var w = window.open(); w.document.open(); w.document.write(getData()); w.document.close(); } </script><body> <div onclick="dlDataURI()">Click for Data URL</div> <div onclick="dlWindow()">Click for Window</div> </body></html> The dlDataURI() version works great in Firefox, poorly in Chrome (can't save), and not at all in IE. The Window() version works OK in Firefox and IE, and not well in Chrome (can't save, XML embedded inside HTML). Neither version ever prompts a user download, it always opens a new window trying to display the XML. Is there a good way to do what I want in client side Javascript? I'd like this to work in today's browsers, ideally Firefox, MSIE 8, and Chrome.

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