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  • Is there a way in .NET to access the bytecode/IL/CLR that is currently running?

    - by Alix
    Hi. I'd like to have access to the bytecode that is currently running or about to run in order to detect certain instructions and take specific actions (depending the instructions). In short, I'd like to monitor the bytecode in order to add safety control. Is this possible? I know there are some AOP frameworks that notify you of specific events, like an access to a field or the invocation of a method, but I'd like to skip that extra layer and just look at all the bytecode myself, throughout the entire execution of the application. I've already looked at the following questions (...among many many others ;) ):     Preprocessing C# - Detecting Methods     What CLR/.NET bytecode tools exist? as well as several AOP frameworks (although not in great detail, since they don't seem to do quite what I need) and I'm familiar with Mono.Cecil. I appreciate alternative suggestions, but I don't want to introduce the overhead of an AOP framework when what I actually need is access to the bytecode, without all the stuff they add on top to make it more user-friendly (... admittedly very useful stuff when you don't want to go low-level). Thanks :)

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  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • SSRS How to access the current value within a list control?

    - by Dale Burrell
    In SQL Server Reporting Services I have a report which has a list control which groups on currency. Within the list control I display the detailed rows of all records filtered to those with a value = £500. i.e. the top earners. However for each row I need to calculate the percentage of its amount over the total of the entire dataset. Because I am filtering it I can't use Sum(Fields!Amount.Value) as that only sums the data after filtering, so I am trying a conditional sum over the entire dataset, but am struggling with the correct condition e.g =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = "£", Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") So where the hardcoded currency symbol is I need to access the current value of currency for the list control, but because my sum is scoped at dataset level any field access is dataset level. Ideally I'd like something like the following, otherwise any other ideas on how to solve this problem. =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = myListControl.Value, Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") In fact, thinking about it, it would work if I just could access the row level data at that point, but how to do that when its at dataset scope within the sum statement? Hope that makes sense, any help appreciated.

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  • Cross domain javascript to access localhost. Possible?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, for one reason or another I need for javascript to access a webserver on the localhost. This localhost webserver is under our control so we can have whatever software running in it. How would you do this? I've seen things like YQL but this accesses another domain from the internet. This kind of access causes a lot of problems with firewalls and such. So I want to access the same computer that the browser is running on. How would you do this with javascript and whatever software running on the localhost server? Also, the javascript is being run from an internet site. And the localhost server will not be running on the same port are the internet website is. Is this possible to do? I know about the cross-domain restrictions but I've also seen there are ways around them such as YQL. How does something like YQL work? How would you reimplement it?

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  • Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

    - by Trantec
    Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

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  • PHP Access property of a class from within a class instantiated in the original class.

    - by Iain
    I'm not certain how to explain this with the correct terms so maybe an example is the best method... $master = new MasterClass(); $master->doStuff(); class MasterClass { var $a; var $b; var $c; var $eventProccer; function MasterClass() { $this->a = 1; $this->eventProccer = new EventProcess(); } function printCurrent() { echo '<br>'.$this->a.'<br>'; } function doStuff() { $this->printCurrent(); $this->eventProccer->DoSomething(); $this->printCurrent(); } } class EventProcess { function EventProcess() {} function DoSomething() { // trying to access and change the parent class' a,b,c properties } } My problem is i'm not certain how to access the properties of the MasterClass from within the EventProcess-DoSomething() method? I would need to access, perform operations on and update the properties. The a,b,c properties will be quite large arrays and the DoSomething() method would be called many times during the execuction of the script. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated :)

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  • (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

    - by Eugene
    i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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  • Access property of a class from within a class instantiated in the original class.

    - by Iain
    I'm not certain how to explain this with the correct terms so maybe an example is the best method... $master = new MasterClass(); $master-doStuff(); class MasterClass { var $a; var $b; var $c; var $eventProccer; function MasterClass() { $this->a = 1; $this->eventProccer = new EventProcess(); } function printCurrent() { echo '<br>'.$this->a.'<br>'; } function doStuff() { $this->printCurrent(); $this->eventProccer->DoSomething(); $this->printCurrent(); } } class EventProcess { function EventProcess() {} function DoSomething() { // trying to access and change the parent class' a,b,c properties } } My problem is i'm not certain how to access the properties of the MasterClass from within the EventProcess-DoSomething() method? I would need to access, perform operations on and update the properties. The a,b,c properties will be quite large arrays and the DoSomething() method would be called many times during the execuction of the script. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated :)

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  • How do you get - Better than 1024x768 Driver for 64 bit Dell PowerEdge Server

    - by tinyJoe
    How do you get better than 1024x768 resolution? Just installed MS Server 2008 64bit on a Dell PowerEdge 64bit box (works OK - Previously running MS Server 2003 32bit) After install - gives a a max resultion of 1024x768 I want to change the reslution to 1280x1024 (Same LCD Worked OK on server 2003) When I down load a driver I get a messeage "Radeon 7000 does not recognise driver" Also have Have a new LG W1042 I'd like to use. This goes up to 1440

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  • How to programmatically detect Cipher type and Encryption level from a wireless network device from

    - by amexn
    Now my team working in a network project using windows application c#. I didn't know how to programmatically detect Cipher type and Encryption level from a wireless network device from windows 2003 server. After searching i got WMI (Windows Management Instrumentation) for solving the problem.+ Please suggest example/reference for finding Cipher type and Encryption level from a wireless network device from windows 2003 server

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  • How to know when the kernel was last compiled? [closed]

    - by Mehmet Tuncal
    I have installed a linux distro and I "think" it is vulnerable to kernel exploits. I have to update kernel but I need to know if it is really compiled in year 2003? How can I know if additional updates are made to the kernel? Linux gandalf 2.4.21-4.ELsmp #1 SMP Fri Oct 3 17:52:56 EDT 2003 i686 i686 i386 GNU/Linux Does also "smp" mean that it is safe from latest threats or something? Thank you.

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  • Lucene.Net Keyword based case insensitive query ?

    - by Yoann. B
    Hi, I need to make a Lucene exact case insensitive keyword match query. I tried using KeywordAnalyzer but it's case sensitive ... Sample : Keyword : "Windows Server 2003" = Got Results Keyword : "windows server 2003" = No results ... Another sample (multi keywords) : Keywords : "ASP.NET, SQL Server" = Got results Keywords : "asp.net, sql server" = No results

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  • How to pull/push data from/to existing SAP system?

    - by Ahmed
    I need to connect to a SAP system, to pull/push data to/from that system? I downloaded SAP PDK for .NET, build a solution using it, but this requires Portal Runtime for .NET to be installed on server, and this cannot be done, because SAP server is a Solaris one! Also, I've checked existing solutions, but all of them use VS.NET 2003, to create what is called SAP Connector Proxy? So, is there a way to connect to SAP system apart from using VS.NET 2003?

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  • session value lost in page load

    - by user314399
    i have converted a web application project from 2003 to 2005.everything works fine in 2003,but the converted web application project in 2005 has some problem, problem is in session values,initially the session value works fine(for the first time),but if the page is loaded for the second time the session value becomes empty. please get me some answers or links to refer.

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  • wcf message size causing permission issue

    - by Ferrell Carr
    silverlight 3.0 client wcf 3.0 VS.Net 2005 Web Site Win 2003 Server 50 column observable collection. return observable collection select top 975 * ... no problem return observable collection select * .... Issue On SL client after proxy.Get 50 col OC logon screen from win 2003 server pops up Mever makes it to the completed event.

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  • How to set the correct Visual Studio version as JIT debugger?

    - by Lothar
    I have VS2003, VS2005 and VS2008 installed on my machine. The C++ application is compiled with VS2005 but when it crashs and i select debug the Just-In-Time Debugging dialog comes up and only offers me "New instance of Visual Studio .NET 2003". Debugging a 2005 compiled program with 2003 is not possible. If i attach the process to VS2005 then it works well, but this is very inconvenient. How do i set .NET 2005 vor JIT debugging?

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