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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • First tab doesnt show with Jquery UI Tabs using Cufon

    - by BoulderDave
    I'm using Cufon to render the font for my Jquery Tabs. A strange problem I'm finding is that with the first tab, the text isn't rendered. If I remove Cufon, the text is there, or if I remove jquery tabs (so that its just html list items) the text is there (properly rendered by cufon). There seems to be timing issue with the loading I think, where cufon renders the text, but then the jquery tabs css is applied, and perhaps they are 'breaking' each other. Anybody had this issue? $(document).ready(function() { Cufon.replace('.tab'); }); <ul class="tabnav"> <li><a href="bottoms.html" title="Bottoms"><div class="tab">Bottoms</div></a></li> <li><a href="tops.html" title="Tops"><div class="tab">Tops</div></a></li> <li><a href="skirts.html" title="Skirts"><div class="tab">Skirts</div></a></li> <li><a href="dresses.html" title="Dresses"><div class="tab">Dresses</div></a></li> <li><a href="shoes.html" title="Shoes"><div class="tab">Shoes</div></a></li> </ul>

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  • Sending basic authentication information via form

    - by VolatileStorm
    I am working on a site that currently uses a basic authentication dialog box login system, that is the type of dialog that you get if you go here: http://www.dur.ac.uk/vm.boatclub/password/index.php I did not set this system up and am not in a position to easily/quickly work around it, but it DOES work. The issue however is that the dialog box is not very helpful in telling you what login information you have to use (that is which username and password combination), and so I would like to replace it with a form. I had been thinking that this wasn't possible but I wanted to ask in order to find out. Is it possible to set up an HTML form that sends the data to the server such that it accepts it in the same way that it would using this dialog box? Alternatively is it possible to set up a PHP script that would take normal form data and process it somehow passing it to the server such that it logs in? Edit: After being told that this is basic authentication I went around and have managed to find a way that works and keeps the user persistently logged in. However, this does not work in internet explorer. The solution was simply to redirect the user to: http://username:[email protected]/vm.boatclub/password/index.php But Internet Explorer removed it due to phishing uses about 3 years ago. Is there a way to use javascript to get the browser to access the site in this way? Or will I have to simply change my UI?

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  • Rendering 'belongs_to" in index view question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have created a simple blog application with Ruby on Rails. The applications consists of two tables, posts and comments. Comments belongs_to :post and posts has_many :comments. I created posts table with the following columns: title:string, body:text. I created the comments table with the following columns: body:text post_id:integer name:string email:string In the /views/comments/index.html.erb display I would like to show a listing of all comments w/ the post title as well. Currently, the index view only displays post_id, body, name, email. How do I replace the post_id column with the corresponding post title? Here is my code: CommentsController Index action: def index @comments = Comment.all :order => "created_at DESC" respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @comments } format.json { render :json => @comments } format.atom end end /views/comments/index.html.erb <h1>Listing comments</h1> <table> <tr> <th>Post</th> <th>Body</th> </tr> <% @comments.each do |comment| %> <tr> <td><%=h comment.post_id %></td> <td><%=h comment.body %></td> <td><%=h comment.name %></td> <td><%=h comment.email %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> <br />

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  • XAML, binding Width and Height properties to the same properties of other control

    - by JAG
    I'm trying to create a reflection effect and it's working great except that I have to hard-code some values. This is my XAML: <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="60"/> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition Height="80"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <StackPanel Grid.Row="1" VerticalAlignment="Center"> <UserControl x:Name="CurrentPresenter" /> <Border Width="500" Height="200" > <Border.Background> <VisualBrush Visual="{Binding ElementName=CurrentPresenter}" > <VisualBrush.Transform> <TransformGroup> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="-1" CenterX="500" CenterY="99" /> </TransformGroup> </VisualBrush.Transform> </VisualBrush> </Border.Background> <Border.OpacityMask> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,0.6"> <GradientStop Offset="-0.6" Color="Black"></GradientStop> <GradientStop Offset="0.6" Color="Transparent"></GradientStop> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> </Border> </StackPanel> </Grid> I've tried to replace Border's Width="500" and Height="200" by Width="{Binding ElementName=CurrentPresenter, Path=Width}" and Height="{Binding ElementName=CurrentPresenter, Path=Height}" but it doesn't seem to work. Wha's wrong with this code? UPDATE: If I set Width and Height here: <UserControl x:Name="CurrentPresenter" Height="200" Width="500" /> It works as expected. However it doesn't work if I set those values in the UserControl XAML. Any ideas?

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  • firefox and javascript redirection

    - by Joe
    Hello there, I currently have a issue with firefox, where all other browser behave in the right way - even IE6! What I want to do is redirection to a subpage but leaving a history entry. There are 2 methods of rewriting the url as far as I know: window.location = "some.url"; - redirect to some.url with history entry window.location.replace("some.url"); - redirect without history entry So I have to use the first one and tested in the firebug console everthing works fine. Now there is the kind of strange part of this question: the same statement, that worked fine in the console doesn't in some jQuery callback handler: jQuery("#selector").bind("submit", function() { $.getJSON("some_cool_json", function(response) { var redirect_path = response.path; window.location = redirect_path; }); return false; }); where response_path is set correctly, I checked it! Even the redirection is working correctly, but there is no history entry created. Any ideas on that one? Would be great! ;) Cheers Joe

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  • oracle sequence init

    - by gospodin
    I wanted to export 3 tables from db1 into db2. Before the export starts, I will create the sequences for those 3 tables. CREATE SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; After the export, I will reinitialize sequnce values to match the max(id) + 1 from the table. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "TEST_SEQUENCE" AUTHID CURRENT_USER is v_num number; begin select max(ID) into v_num from TABLE_1; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY ' || v_num; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE 1TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY 1'; end; / show errors; execute TEST_SEQ; This procedure compiles and executes without problems. But when I want to check t he last value of the sequence, like select TEST_SEQ.nextval from dual; I still get the "1". Can someone tell me why my procedure did not impact my sequence? ps. I am using oracle sql developper to pass sql. Thanks

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  • Abstracting boxed array structures in J

    - by estanford
    I've been working on a J function for a while, that's supposed to scan a list and put consecutive copies of an element into separate, concatenated boxes. My efforts have taken me as far as the function (<;. 2) ((2&(~:/\)),1:) which tests successive list entries for inequality, returns a list of boolean values, and cuts the list into boxes that end each time the number 1 appears. Here's an example application: (<;. 2) ((2&(~:/\)),1:) 1 2 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 +-+-+-----+-+-----+ |1|1|0 0 1|1|0 0 1| +-+-+-----+-+-----+ The task would be finished if I could then replace all those booleans with their corresponding values in the input argument. I've been looking for some kind of mystery function that would let me do something like final =: mysteryfunction @ (<;. 2) ((2&(~:/\)),1:) final 1 2 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 +-+-+-----+-+-----+ |1|2|3 3 3|4|1 1 1| +-+-+-----+-+-----+ In an ideal situation, there would be some way to abstractly represent the nesting pattern generated by (<;. 2) ((2&(~:/\)),1:) to the original input list. (i.e. "This boxed array over here has the first element boxed at depth one, the second element boxed at depth one, the third, fourth, and fifth elements boxed together at depth one,..., so take that unboxed list over there and box it up the same way.") I tried fooling around with ;. , S: , L:, L. and &. to produce that behavior, but I haven't had much luck. Is there some kind of operator or principle I'm missing that could make this happen? It wouldn't surprise me if I were overthinking the whole issue, but I'm running out of ideas.

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  • Bulk Insert of hundreds of millions of records

    - by Dave Jarvis
    What is the fastest way to insert 237 million records into a table that has rules (for distributing the data across 84 child tables)? First I tried inserts. No go. Then I tried inserts with BEGIN/COMMIT. Not nearly fast enough. Next, I tried COPY FROM, but then noticed the documentation states that the rules are ignored. (And it was having difficulties with the column order and date format -- it said that '1984-07-1' was not a valid integer; true, but a bit unexpected.) Some example data: station_id,taken,amount,category_id,flag 1,'1984-07-1',0,4, 1,'1984-07-2',0,4, 1,'1984-07-3',0,4, 1,'1984-07-4',0,4,T Here is the table structure (with one rule included): CREATE TABLE climate.measurement ( id bigserial NOT NULL, station_id integer NOT NULL, taken date NOT NULL, amount numeric(8,2) NOT NULL, category_id smallint NOT NULL, flag character varying(1) NOT NULL DEFAULT ' '::character varying ) WITH ( OIDS=FALSE ); ALTER TABLE climate.measurement OWNER TO postgres; CREATE OR REPLACE RULE i_measurement_01_001 AS ON INSERT TO climate.measurement WHERE date_part('month'::text, new.taken)::integer = 1 AND new.category_id = 1 DO INSTEAD INSERT INTO climate.measurement_01_001 (id, station_id, taken, amount, category_id, flag) VALUES (new.id, new.station_id, new.taken, new.amount, new.category_id, new.flag); I can generate the data into any format. Am looking for something that won't take four days. I originally had the data in MySQL (still do), but am hoping to get a performance increase by switching to PostgreSQL and am eager to use its PL/R extensions for stats. I was also thinking about using: http://pgbulkload.projects.postgresql.org/ Any help, tips, or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!

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  • Did the Unity Team fix that "generics handling" bug back in 2008?

    - by rasx
    At my level of experience with Unity it might be faster to ask whether the "generics handling" bug acknowledged by ctavares back in 2008 was fixed in a public release. Here was the problem (which might be my problem today): Hi, I get an exception when using .... container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,), typeof(Dictionary<,)); The exception is... "Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"IDictionary2\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The type Dictionary2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. When I attempt... IDictionary myExampleDictionary = container.Resolve(); Here was the moderated response: There are no books that'll help, Unity is a little too new for publishers to have caught up yet. Unfortunately, you've run into a bug in our generics handling. This is currently fixed in our internal version, but it'll be a little while before we can get the bits out. In the meantime, as a workaround you could do something like this instead: public class WorkaroundDictionary : Dictionary { public WorkaroundDictionary() { } } container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,),typeof(WorkaroundDictionary<,)); The WorkaroundDictionary only has the default constructor so it'll inject no problem. Since the rest of your app is written in terms of IDictionary, when we get the fixed version done you can just replace the registration with the real Dictionary class, throw out the workaround, and everything will still just work. Sorry about the bug, it'll be fixed soon!

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  • Checking inherited attributes in an 'ancestry' based SQL table

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm using the ancestry gem to help organise my app's tree structure in the database. It basically writes a childs ancestor information to a special column called 'ancestry'. The ancestry column for a particular child might look like '1/34/87' where the parent of this child is 87, and then 87's parent is 34 and 34's is 1. It seems possible that we could select rows from this table each with a subquery that checks all the ancestors to see if a certain attribute it set. E.g. in my app you can hide an item and its children just by setting the parent element's visibility column to 0. I want to be able to find all the items where none of their ancestors are hidden. I tried converting the slashes to comma's with the REPLACE command but IN required a set of comma separated integers rather than one string with comma separated string numbers. It's funny, because I can do this query in two steps, e.g. retrieve the row, then take its ancestry column, split out the id's and make another query that checks that the id is IN that set of id's and that visibility isn't ever 0 and whala! But joining these into one query seems to be quite a task. Much searching has shown a few answers but none really do what I want. SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 99; 99's ancestry column reads '1/34/87' SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE visibility = 0 AND id IN (1,34,87); kind of backwards, but if this returns no rows then the item is visible. Has anyone come across this before and come up with a solution. I don't really want to go the stored procedure route. It's for a rails app.

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  • Regex to add CDATA for mal formed XML

    - by AntonioCS
    Hey guys! I have this huge xml file (13 mb) and it has some malformed values. Here is a sample of the xml: <propertylist> <adprop index="0" proptype="type" value="Ft"/> <adprop index="0" proptype="category" value="Bs"/> <adprop index="0" proptype="subcategory" value="Bsm"/> <adprop index="0" proptype="description" value="MOONEN CUSTOM 58"/> </propertylist> Now this is ok. But I many other nodes that are not encapsulated in CDATA that need to be. The node that gives me problems is the <adprop index="0" proptype="description" value=""/> I created this regular expression: <adprop index="0" proptype="description" value="(.+)"\/> to catch that node and replace it with this: <adprop index="0" proptype="description" value="<![CDATA[\1]]>"\/> I run this in notepad++ and it works. The only problem is when the value="" is multi lined like: <adprop index="0" proptype="description" value="cutter that has demonstrated her offshore capabiliti from there to the Canaries with her current owner. Spacious homely interior with over 2m headroom and heaps of" /> It fails with this one, and there are plenty like this one. Can anyone help me out in the regular expression so that I can catch the value when it's multi lined? Thanks

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  • php: replacing double <br /> with </p><p>

    - by andufo
    i use nicEdit to write RTF data in my CMS. The problem is that it generates strings like this: hello first line<br><br />this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line since this is for a news site, i much prefer the final html to be like this: <p>hello first line</p><p>this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line</p> so my current solution is this: i need to trim the $data for <br /> at the start/end of the string replace <br /><br /> with </p><p> (one single <br /> is allowed). finally, add <p> at the start and </p> at the end i only have the 3rd step so far. can someone give me a hand with steps 1 and 2? function replace_br($data) { # step 3 $data = '<p>'.$data.'</p>'; return $data; } thanks! ps: it would be even better to avoid specific situations. example: "hello<br /><br /><br /><br /><br />too much space" -- those 5 breaklines should also be converted to just one "</p><p>"

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  • Load XML file on seperate thread, overwrite old , and save.

    - by Luis Tovar
    Hey everyone... so Im trying to figure out how to do this. I have bounced around alot of forums to try and find my answer, but no success. Either their process it too complicated for me to understand, or is just overkill. What I am trying to do is this. I have an XML file within my app. Its a 500k xml file that i dont want the user to have to wait on when loading. SO... I put it in my app which kills the load time, and makes the app available offline. What i want to do is, when the app loads, in the background (seperate thread) download the SAME xml file which MIGHT be updated with new data. Once the xml file is complete, i want to REPLACE the xml file that was used to load the file. Any suggestions or code hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Why does Safari/Opera not work with this javascript code?

    - by robinjfisher
    Hi, I am working on a calendar that will show bookings. The height of containing the booking is calculated dynamically in proportion to the length of the booking. The following code works perfectly well in Firefox but not in Safari or Opera: function calculateBookingHeight(from, to) { var today = new Date; var end = new Date.UTC(today.getUTCFullYear(),today.getUTCMonth(),today.getUTCDate(),23); var start = new Date.UTC(today.getUTCFullYear(),today.getUTCMonth(),today.getUTCDate(),6); var from = new Date(from); var to = new Date(to); if (from > start && to < end) { var difference = (to - from) / 120000; } else if (from > start && to > end) { var difference = (end - from) / 120000; } else { var difference = 510 } return difference; } In summary, each hour on the calendar is a height of 30px. The second if statement deals with the end of the booking being the following day. If I replace the entire code block with return 510, Safari behaves as expected and sets the height of each booking to 510px so I assume it must be something in this function that is causing the problem. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks Robin

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  • Using diff and patch to force one local code base to look like another

    - by Dave Aaron Smith
    I've noticed this strange behavior of diff and patch when I've used them to force one code base to be identical to another. Let's say I want to update update_me to look identical to leave_unchanged. I go to update_me. I run a diff from leave_unchanged to update_me. Then I patch the diff into update_me. If there are new files in leave_unchanged, patch asks me if my patch was reversed! If I answer yes, it deletes the new files in leave_unchanged. Then, if I simply re-run the patch, it correctly patches update_me. Why does patch try to modify both leave_unchanged and update_me? What's the proper way to do this? I found a hacky way which is to replace all +++ lines with nonsense paths so patch can't find leave_unchanged. Then it works fine. It's such an ugly solution though. $ mkdir copyfrom $ mkdir copyto $ echo "Hello world" > copyfrom/myFile.txt $ cd copyto $ diff -Naur . ../copyfrom > my.diff $ less my.diff diff -Naur ./myFile.txt ../copyfrom/myFile.txt --- ./myFile.txt 1969-12-31 19:00:00.000000000 -0500 +++ ../copyfrom/myFile.txt 2010-03-15 17:21:22.000000000 -0400 @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +Hello world $ patch -p0 < my.diff The next patch would create the file ../copyfrom/myFile.txt, which already exists! Assume -R? [n] yes patching file ../copyfrom/myFile.txt $ patch -p0 < my.diff patching file ./myFile.txt

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  • Include error in writing html file from php

    - by Grozav Alex Ioan
    I seem to have some problem with my code here. It creates a file from the php file, but I get an error on the include path. include('../include/config.php'); $name = ($_GET['createname']) ? $_GET['createname'] : $_POST['createname']; function buildhtml($strphpfile, $strhtmlfile) { ob_start(); include($strphpfile); $data = ob_get_contents(); $fp = fopen ($strhtmlfile, "w"); fwrite($fp, $data); fclose($fp); ob_end_clean(); } buildhtml('portfolio.php?name='.$name, "../gallery/".$name.".html"); The problem seems to be here: 'portfolio.php?name='.$name Any way I can replace this, and still send the variable over? Here's the error I get when I put ?name after the php extension: Warning: include(portfolio.php?name=hyundai) [function.include]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in D:\Projects\Metro Web\Coding\admin\create.php on line 15 Warning: include(portfolio.php?name=hyundai) [function.include]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in D:\Projects\Metro Web\Coding\admin\create.php on line 15 Warning: include() [function.include]: Failed opening 'portfolio.php?name=hyundai' for inclusion (include_path='.;C:\php\pear') in D:\Projects\Metro Web\Coding\admin\create.php on line 15

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  • How to Elegantly convert switch+enum with polymorphism

    - by Kyle
    I'm trying to replace simple enums with type classes.. that is, one class derived from a base for each type. So for example instead of: enum E_BASE { EB_ALPHA, EB_BRAVO }; E_BASE message = someMessage(); switch (message) { case EB_ALPHA: applyAlpha(); case EB_BRAVO: applyBravo(); } I want to do this: Base* message = someMessage(); message->apply(this); // use polymorphism to determine what function to call. I have seen many ways to do this which all seem less elegant even then the basic switch statement. Using dyanimc_pointer_cast, inheriting from a messageHandler class that needs to be updated every time a new message is added, using a container of function pointers, all seem to defeat the purpose of making code easier to maintain by replacing switches with polymorphism. This is as close as I can get: (I use templates to avoid inheriting from an all-knowing handler interface) class Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) = 0; }; class Alpha : public Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) { sandbox->applyAlpha(); } }; class Bravo : public Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) { sandbox->applyBravo(); } }; class Sandbox { public: void run() { Base* alpha = new Alpha; Base* bravo = new Bravo; alpha->apply(this); bravo->apply(this); delete alpha; delete bravo; } void applyAlpha() { // cout << "Applying alpha\n"; } void applyBravo() { // cout << "Applying bravo\n"; } }; Obviously, this doesn't compile but I'm hoping it gets my problem accross.

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  • how can exec change the behavior of exec'ed program

    - by R Samuel Klatchko
    I am trying to track down a very odd crash. What is so odd about it is a workaround that someone discovered and which I cannot explain. The workaround is this small program which I'll refer to as 'runner': #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { if (argc == 1) { fprintf(stderr, "Usage: %s prog [args ...]\n", argv[0]); return 1; } execvp(argv[1], argv + 1); fprintf(stderr, "execv failed: %s\n", strerror(errno)); // If exec returns because the program is not found or we // don't have the appropriate permission return 255; } As you can see, all this program does is use execvp to replace itself with a different program. The program crashes when it is directly invoked from the command line: /path/to/prog args # this crashes but works fine when it is indirectly invoked via my runner shim: /path/to/runner /path/to/prog args # works successfully For the life of me, I can figure out how having an extra exec can change the behavior of the program being run (as you can see the program does not change the environment). Some background on the crash. The crash itself is happening in the C++ runtime. Specifically, when the program does a throw, the crashing version incorrectly thinks there is no matching catch (although there is) and calls terminate. When I invoke the program via runner, the exception is properly caught. My question is any idea why the extra exec changes the behavior of the exec'ed program?

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  • Obtaining YouTube video ID in a URL and inputting selected video ID into a URL

    - by Dave
    I've been having trouble in trying to figure this out. What I am trying to do is, obtain the ID of a video from YouTube, and input the 11 character ID into the css of a div of a specific id by using jquery. I know the URL for the thumbnail of any video, but I just need to be able to change the ID to display different video thumbnails. <script> $(document).ready(function() { function(data){ videoID = data.split('www.youtube.com/v/')[1].split('&amp')[0]; $("#304817679").append(videoID); }); $("#304817679").replaceWith("<div id=\"304817679\" style=\"background: url(http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ $.function(data) +"/0.jpg) no-repeat middle; width: 15px; height: 150px;\"></div>"); }); }); </script> <div id="304817679"> <div style="display: none;"><object width="248" height="222"><param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1"></param><param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param><embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/vy90n2nNRKQ&amp;rel=0&amp;egm=0&amp;showinfo=0&amp;fs=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="248" height="222" allowFullScreen="true" wmode="transparent"></embed></object></div> </div> Trying to explain this better, I want the 11 Character YouTube Video ID from the embedded code, and put it into the URL of the thumbnail (http://img.youtube.com/vi/"+ function(data) +"/0.jpg). Which, would then also replace the original div (div id="304817679"). Am I on the right track with my script? I'm entirely new to this, and I would appreciate some of the help that's offered here.

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  • vs10 not deploying all required files - then not over-writing updated files

    - by justSteve
    I'm in the habit of deploying to alternating folders (/inetpub/wwwroot/mySite & /inetpub/wwwroot/mySite2) so if something unexpected happens with the deploy i can quickly swap back to a previous version just by changing the path in IIS So i was deploying an MVC2 webapp to a empty folder figuring that VS would send up all the files it needs. Not even close. Initially, it didn't even upload a couple required nHibernate.dlls. Later, after manually copying files referenced in the thrown exceptions, i just copied all the files from the previous compile and then re-published over the top expecting VS to over-write the changed files. Failed that too. No reports of errors by VS....just failed to over-write a number of pre-existing (but changed/updated) files. Hard to believe these kinds of errors (and lack of feedback that errors were encountered) in a state of the art tool like VS. Clearly, I'm doing something wrong. I'm using VisualSVN for source control and connect to my colocated server via a VPN-based mapped network drive (so I can use FileSystem to publish). (both of which can complicate file properties) VS08 had more choices for which files it would send up - i found i needed to use the 'All files in source' on an initial deployment, the 'Replace Matching'. If I choose 'delete all existing...' I'd be back to square 1 and have to deploy with the 'All files in source project folder'. But VS10 doesn't have the 'All files in source project folder. I ended up manually copying the files - which seems not right in the extreme. Are these known issues others have to deal with? What's best practice for deploying a web-app? thx

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

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  • database schema eligible for delta synchronization

    - by WilliamLou
    it's a question for discussion only. Right now, I need to re-design a mysql database table. Basically, this table contains all the contract records I synchronized from another database. The contract record can be modified, deleted or users can add new contract records via GUI interface. At this stage, the table structure is exactly the same as the Contract info (column: serial number, expiry date etc.). In that case, I can only synchronize the whole table (delete all old records, replace with new ones). If I want to delta(only synchronize with modified, new, deleted records) synchronize the table, how should I change the database schema? here is the method I come up with, but I need your suggestions because I think it's a common scenario in database applications. 1)introduce a sequence number concept/column: for each sequence, mark the new added records, modified records, deleted records with this sequence number. By recording the last synchronized sequence number, only pass those records with higher sequence number; 2) because deleted contracts can be added back, and the original table has primary key constraints, should I create another table for those deleted records? or add a flag column to indicate if this contract has been deleted? I hope I explain my question clearly. Anyway, if you know any articles or your own suggestions about this, please let me know. Thanks!

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  • Foosball result prediction

    - by Wolf
    In our office, we regularly enjoy some rounds of foosball / table football after work. I have put together a small java program that generates random 2vs2 lineups from the available players and stores the match results in a database afterwards. The current prediction of the outcome uses a simple average of all previous match results from the 4 involved players. This gives a very rough estimation, but I'd like to replace it with something more sophisticated, taking into account things like: players may be good playing as attacker but bad as defender (or vice versa) players do well against a specific opponent / bad against others some teams work well together, others don't skills change over time What would be the best algorithm to predict the game outcome as accurately as possible? Someone suggested using a neural network for this, which sounds quite interesting... but I do not have enough knowledge on the topic to say if that could work, and I also suspect it might take too many games to be reasonably trained. EDIT: Had to take a longer break from this due to some project deadlines. To make the question more specific: Given the following mysql table containing all matches played so far: table match_result match_id int pk match_start datetime duration int (match length in seconds) blue_defense int fk to table player blue_attack int fk to table player red_defense int fk to table player red_attack int fk to table player score_blue int score_red int How would you write a function predictResult(blueDef, blueAtk, redDef, redAtk) {...} to estimate the outcome as closely as possible, executing any sql, doing calculations or using external libraries?

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