Search Results

Search found 11051 results on 443 pages for 'bind variables'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 32/443 | < Previous Page | 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39  | Next Page >

  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I Bind a viewmodel property to a dependency property of a custom control

    - by Robert
    I want to use a color picker in my wpf application and I saw a nice looking one on this codeproject page. The control works fine until I want to connect the control to a viewmodel. I created a small test program with this viewmodel: public class ColorViewModel : ViewModelBase { public ColorViewModel() { LineColor = Brushes.Yellow; } SolidColorBrush _brushColor; public SolidColorBrush LineColor { get { return _brushColor; } set { _brushColor = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => LineColor); } } } The test program has a textbox and the colorpicker controls: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="Please Select a Color" FontWeight="Bold" Margin="10" Foreground="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> <vw:ColorPickerControlView x:Name="ForeColorPicker" Margin="10" CurrentColor="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }"/> </StackPanel> In the loaded event of the window I set the viewmodel to the datacontext like this: DataContext = new ColorViewModel(); The problem is that I can't seem to bind the LineColor property of the viewmodel to the CurrentColor property of the ColorPickerControlView. The CurrentControl property of the ColorPickerControlView seems to be fine. The constructor looks like this: public ColorPickerControlView() { this.DataContext = this; InitializeComponent(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(SelectColorCommand, SelectColorCommandExecute)); } In the constructor of the UserControl there is the line this.DataContext = this; I read that is is necessary to bind the dependency properties. Do I override this line when I set my viewmodel to the datacontext and is that why I can't bind to the CurrentColor property? Is there any workaround? Or did I make another mistake?

    Read the article

  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

    Read the article

  • Bind WCF webservice to specific network interface / IP

    - by Markus
    On a machine with multiple network cards I need to bind a WCF webservice to a specific network interface. It seems that the default is to bind on all network interfaces. The machine has two network adapters with the IPs 192.168.0.10 and 192.168.0.11. I have an Apache running that binds on 192.168.0.10:80 and need to run the webservice on 192.168.0.11:80. (Due to external circumstances I cannot choose another port.) I tried the following: string endpoint = "http://192.168.0.11:80/SOAP"; ServiceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(TService), new Uri(endpoint)); ServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(TContract), Binding, ""); // or: ServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(TContract), Binding, endpoint); But it doesn't work; netstat -ano -p tcp always shows the webservice listening on 0.0.0.0:80, which is all interfaces (if I got that correct). When I start Apache first, it correctly binds to the other interface, which in turn prevents the WCF service to bind to "all". Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to bind Assisted Injected class to interface?

    - by eric2323223
    Here is the problem I met: Class SimpleCommand implements Executable{ private final ConfigManager config; private String name; @Inject public SimpleCommand(ConfigManager config, @Assisted String name){ this.config = config; this.name = name; } } Class MyModule extends AbstractModule{ @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommandFactory.class).toProvider(FactoryProvider.newFactory(CommandFactory.class, SimpleCommand.class)); bind(Executable.class).to(SimpleCommand.class); } } When I try to get instance of SimpleCommand using: Guice.createInjector(new MyModule()).getInstance(CommandFactory.class).create("sample command"); I got this error: 1) No implementation for java.lang.String annotated with @com.google.inject.assistedinject.Assisted(value=) was bound. while locating java.lang.String annotated with @com.google.inject.assistedinject.Assisted(value=) for parameter 2 at model.Command.<init>(SimpleCommand.java:58) at module.MyModule.configure(MyModule.java:34) So my problem is how can I bind SimpleCommand to Executable when SimpleCommand has Assisted Injected parameter? Here is the CommandFactory and its implementation: public interface CommandFactory{ public Command create(String name); } public class GuiceCommandFactory implements CommandFactory{ private Provider<ConfigManager> configManager ; @Inject public GuiceCommandFactory(Provider<ConfigManager> configManager){ this.configManager = configManager; } public Command create(String cmd){ return new Command(configManager.get(), cmd); } }

    Read the article

  • Monads with Join() instead of Bind()

    - by MathematicalOrchid
    Monads are usually explained in turns of return and bind. However, I gather you can also implement bind in terms of join (and fmap?) In programming languages lacking first-class functions, bind is excruciatingly awkward to use. join, on the other hand, looks quite easy. I'm not completely sure I understand how join works, however. Obviously, it has the [Haskell] type join :: Monad m = m (m x) - m x For the list monad, this is trivially and obviously concat. But for a general monad, what, operationally, does this method actually do? I see what it does to the type signatures, but I'm trying to figure out how I'd write something like this in, say, Java or similar. (Actually, that's easy: I wouldn't. Because generics is broken. ;-) But in principle the question still stands...) Oops. It looks like this has been asked before: Monad join function Could somebody sketch out some implementations of common monads using return, fmap and join? (I.e., not mentioning >>= at all.) I think perhaps that might help it to sink in to my dumb brain...

    Read the article

  • JQuery:bind.blur() is not working

    - by user198880
    Hello, I need to add a row to a table.I am using jQuery to add the row.But i my Add() function everyhing is working fine except that the blur function for the input fild "txtQuantity" is not getting triggered for the newly added row.Here is my function, function Add() { var rowPart = $('#trPart0').clone(true).show().insertAfter('#tblPart tbody>tr:last'); var index = document.getElementById("hdnMaxPartId").value; $("#tblPart tbody>tr:last").attr("id", "trPart" + index); $("td:eq(0) img", rowPart).attr("id", "imgPartDelete" + index).attr("onclick", ""); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(0)", rowPart).attr("id", "hdnWODefPartId" + index); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(1)", rowPart).attr("id", "hdnPartCost" + index); $("td:eq(1) input:eq(3)", rowPart).attr("id", "txtPart" + index).attr("name", "txtPart" + index).attr("onkeyup", ""); $("td:eq(2) input", rowPart).attr("id", "txtQuantity" + index).attr("onblur", ""); $("td:eq(3) div", rowPart).attr("id", "divPartCost" + index); $("td:eq(4) div", rowPart).attr("id", "divPartUnit" + index); $("#imgPartDelete" + index).unbind().bind('click', function() { DeletePart(index); } ); $("#txtPart" + index).unbind().bind('keyup', function() { ajax_showOptions(this,"getPartForAC",event,2,"replace","div_part_list"+index); } ); $("#txtQuantity" + index).unbind().bind('blur', function() { ChangeClassForObject(this,"clsSpText_blur"); CalculateCost(index,this,"divPartCost"+index); } ); }

    Read the article

  • std::bind overload resolution

    - by bpw1621
    The following code works fine #include <functional> using namespace std; using namespace std::placeholders; class A { int operator()( int i, int j ) { return i - j; } }; A a; auto aBind = bind( &A::operator(), ref(a), _2, _1 ); This does not #include <functional> using namespace std; using namespace std::placeholders; class A { int operator()( int i, int j ) { return i - j; } int operator()( int i ) { return -i; } }; A a; auto aBind = bind( &A::operator(), ref(a), _2, _1 ); I have tried playing around with the syntax to try and explicitly resolve which function I want in the code that does not work without luck so far. How do I write the bind line in order to choose the call that takes the two integer arguments?

    Read the article

  • File system loop detected in /var/named/chroot/var/named/ CentOS6.3

    - by wilco
    When I use find command on shell, I got the following error. find: File system loop detected; /var/named/chroot/var/named' is part of the same file system loop as/var/named'. I verified the inode number and it comes out the same as below. [root@serverone ~]# ls -ldi /var/named/chroot/var/named/ /var/named 6684673 drwxr-x--- 6 root named 4096 Sep 7 17:17 /var/named 6684673 drwxr-x--- 6 root named 4096 Sep 7 17:17 /var/named/chroot/var/named/ I cannot remove the directory with rm -f and it is saying this is directory. It is minimal CentOS6.3 install with plesk 11. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Master/Slave DNS setup vs. rsync'ed DNS servers

    - by Jakobud
    We currently have primary and secondary DNS servers on our corporate network. They are setup in a master/slave type setup, where the slave gets its DNS information from the master. I'm trying to figure out what the real advantage is for the master/slave setup instead of just setting up an automated rsync between the two to keep the DNS settings matched. Can anyone shed some light on this? Or is it just a preferential thing? If that is the case, it seems like the rsync setup would be much easier to setup, maintain and understand.

    Read the article

  • DNS Query.log - Multiple query’s for ripe.net

    - by Christopher Wilson
    Currently I run a DNS server (bind9) that handles queries from clients over the internet lately I have noticed hundreds of queries from all different address's that look like this (Server IP removed) client 216.59.33.210#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.204#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 184.107.255.202#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 205.204.65.83#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 69.162.110.106#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.210#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 69.162.110.106#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 216.59.33.204#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) client 208.64.127.5#53: query: ripe.net IN ANY +ED (0.0.0.0) Can someone please explain why there are so many clients querying for ripe.net ?

    Read the article

  • Ninject 3.0 MVC kernel.bind error Auto Registration

    - by user295734
    Getting and error on kernel.Bind(scanner = ... "scanner" has the little error line under it in VS 2010. Cannot convert lambda expression to type 'System.Type[]' because it is not a delegate type Tyring to Auto Register like the old kernel.scan in 2.0. I can not figure out what i am doing wrong. Added and removed so many Ninject packages. completely lost, getting to be a big waste of time. using System; using System.Web; using Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.DynamicModuleHelper; using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Common; //using Ninject.Extensions.Conventions; using Ninject.Web.WebApi; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using CommonServiceLocator.NinjectAdapter; using System.Reflection; using System.IO; using LR.Repository; using LR.Repository.Interfaces; using LR.Service.Interfaces; using System.Web.Http; public static class NinjectWebCommon { private static readonly Bootstrapper bootstrapper = new Bootstrapper(); /// <summary> /// Starts the application /// </summary> public static void Start() { DynamicModuleUtility.RegisterModule(typeof(OnePerRequestHttpModule)); DynamicModuleUtility.RegisterModule(typeof(NinjectHttpModule)); bootstrapper.Initialize(CreateKernel); } /// <summary> /// Stops the application. /// </summary> public static void Stop() { bootstrapper.ShutDown(); } /// <summary> /// Creates the kernel that will manage your application. /// </summary> /// <returns>The created kernel.</returns> private static IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Bind<Func<IKernel>>().ToMethod(ctx => () => new Bootstrapper().Kernel); kernel.Bind<IHttpModule>().To<HttpApplicationInitializationHttpModule>(); RegisterServices(kernel); return kernel; } /// <summary> /// Load your modules or register your services here! /// </summary> /// <param name="kernel">The kernel.</param> private static void RegisterServices(IKernel kernel) { kernel.Bind(scanner => scanner.FromAssembliesInPath(Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location)) .Select(IsServiceType) .BindToDefaultInterface() .Configure(binding => binding.InSingletonScope()) ); } private static bool IsServiceType(Type type) { // temp return true; // .Any() is not recognized either. return true; // type.IsClass && type.GetInterfaces().Any(intface => intface.Name == "I" + type.Name); }

    Read the article

  • Transfer DNS zones from master to slave (MS DNS to BIND9)

    - by Bryan
    Hello, I have a problem with DNS servers. My master dns server runs on Microsoft DNS server and now I want to start slave DNS server on Linux Bind9. The problems is that master MS DNS server can't validate slave DNS server (bind9) and can't resolve FQDN. Maybe, I missed something... firewall, dns configuration and network looks like ok. And the second question is: How I can make full transfer of dns zones to slave dns server? from MS DNS to BIND9 Thanks in advance. Regards, Bryan

    Read the article

  • What's required to configure Ubuntu to use a specific DNS server?

    - by ks78
    I've setup two Amazon EC2 instances, both running Ubuntu Server. One is configured as a DNS server running bind9, which will be used to allow EC2 instances to communicate with each other based on hostname rather than IP, since their private IPs may change. I think I have the DNS server setup correctly. I want to use the second EC2 instance to test the DNS server. Using Webmin, I've added the DNS server's private IP to the client's DNS Servers list and added the domain to the Search Domains list. I did have to edit /etc/dhcp3/dhclint.conf to make my changes stick. After reboot, I expected I'd be able to ping or nslookup the DNS server from the test client, but it can't seem to find the server. Is there something I'm missing? What's required to configure an Ubuntu client to use a DNS server? I just want to make sure I'm not missing something before I assume the server's the problem.

    Read the article

  • bind9 "error sending response: host unreachable"

    - by wolfgangsz
    of course), I have a number of DNS servers, all running bind9 (9.5.1, to be specific) under fedora. 4 of them are slaves, fed by a common master for our public DNS. These are all located on the public gateways of our various offices. One of them has tons of messages in its log files similar to these: Jul 21 17:26:18 gateway named[3487]: client 10.171.3.8#52500: view internal: error sending response: host unreachable I wonder where that comes from. The firewall is open on port 53 between the two machines (10.171.3.8 is an internal DNS server located on a Windows Domain Controller). The internal domains do NOT list the gateway as a name server (so there should not be any attempts of replicating the domains), and the gateway does not handle any internal DNS. The clients in these messages vary between the two domain controllers on the internal network and a third internal name server (running bind9 on debian in a different segment of the network). Any pointers are highly welcome. In response to the first reply: The issue with this really is that tcpdump doesn't show any problems. Here is an extract from "tcpdump -i any port 53" 09:13:38.283308 IP valine.aminocom.com.61815 ns-pri.ripe.net.domain: 14075 PTR? 166.225.58.95.in-addr.arpa. (44) 09:13:42.007410 IP gateway-eng.aminocom.com.37047 alanine.aminocom.com.domain: 35410+ PTR? 12.3.172.10.in-addr.arpa. (42) At the same time, the DNS log shows: Jul 22 09:13:38 gateway named[3487]: client 10.171.3.6#61300: view internal: error sending response: host unreachable Jul 22 09:13:40 gateway named[3487]: client 10.172.3.12#56230: view internal: error sending response: host unreachable Jul 22 09:13:40 gateway named[3487]: client 10.171.3.8#55221: view internal: error sending response: host unreachable Jul 22 09:13:49 gateway named[3487]: client 10.171.3.8#51342: view internal: error sending response: host unreachable So clearly at 09:13:40 there were two unsuccessful attempts to connect to internal machines (10.172.3.12 and 10.171.3.8, both are DNS servers), but nothing in the tcpdump output.

    Read the article

  • Website occasionally unavailable - DNS problem

    - by Kamil
    Hi, I have a problem with my website. I have webmin and virualmin. I have one domain as alias, and this alias sometimes is unavailable for several minutes. It's probably DNS problem because chrome shows 105 (net::ERR_NAME_NOT_RESOLVED). How can I troubleshoot this problem?

    Read the article

  • Plesk wildcard subdomain not working

    - by avdgaag
    I'm trying to set up a wildcard subdomain on my VPS. Ultimately I want to end up with this: main site: my.domain.tld subdomain: sub1.my.domain.tld - should end up serving my.domain.tld/sub1 I am using plesk 8.6. I have created a DNS A record pointing at my VPS' IP. I have then restarted the DNS server and waited up to 24 hours. But trying ping sub1.my.domain.tld results in an unknown host error. So I know there's more stuff involved, configuring apache etc. But so far, I cannot even get the subdomain working at all, let alone serve up the right content. I have also tried a CNAME record, to no effect. I have also tried creating a regular subdomain with a fixed name, which also does not work. Pre-configured subdomains DO work, like ftp.my.domain.tld or mail.my.domain.tld. I am clearly missing something here, but my hosting provider charges a small fortune for any support request not involving hardware physically burning down, so I'm hesitant to ask them. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to setup DNS server behind a VPN

    - by Brian
    I want to host some websites behind a VPN and I need some help with the finer points of the configuration. Thus far I've settled on OpenVPN + Bind9 and I want to configure the domains like this: External DNS mail.example.com www.example.com vpn.example.com I want to be able to connect to the vpn using 'vpn.example.com'. Once connected I then want to be able to resolve anything which is '*.vpn.example.com' with the DNS server sitting behind the VPN. I know that OpenVPN can push DNS servers to clients when they connect. I am having trouble though with the DNS config, both internal and external. I've gone through a few tutorials etc. and tried to reason about it myself but I'm not getting anywhere. So my main question would be does the above configuration make sense? If so, any general pointers or examples would be greatly appreciated. Here's what I've tried so far based on this tutorial (I've redacted my domain with example.com). When I try the tests with dig at the end to check the resolution is working it fails. db.vpn.example.com $TTL 15m vpn.example.com. IN SOA ns.vpn.example.com. [email protected]. ( 2009010910 ;serial 900 ;refresh 900 ;retry 900 ;expire 900 ;minimum TTL ) vpn.example.com. IN NS ns.vpn.example.com. ns IN A 192.168.0.2 test IN A 192.168.0.2

    Read the article

  • Point dns server to root dns servers [duplicate]

    - by Dhaksh
    This question already has an answer here: What is a glue record? 3 answers Why does DNS work the way it does? 4 answers I have setup a custom authoritative only DNS server using bind9. Its a Master ans Slave method. Assume DNS Servers are: ns1.customdnsserver.com [192.168.91.129] ==> Master ns2.customdnsserver.com [192.168.91.130] ==> Slave Now i will host few shared hosting websites in my own web server. Where i will link above Nameservers to my domains in shared hosting. My Question is: How do i tell root DNS servers about my own authoritative only DNS server? So that when someone queries for domain www.example.com and if the domain's website is hosted in my shared hosting i want root servers to point the query to my own DNS Server so that the www.example.com get resolved for IP address.

    Read the article

  • Can I completely remove the Windows DNS in favour of BIND9 in an AD network?

    - by Vinícius Ferrão
    I would like to remove the DNS feature of Windows Domain Controllers and point the DNS servers to our BIND9 servers. I know it's possible to setup coexistence but this requires a number of extra Windows DNS Servers equals to the number of Domain Controllers in the network. Active Directory expects the _msdcs zone and other things like _tcp, _udp; etc. The main question is: how to make BIND9 takes care of all this AD specific data? And with dynamic updating to make AD even more happier. Thanks, PS: Making BIND9 points to the Windows DNS Servers to resolve the Active Directory specific zones isn't an option. We already do this... EDIT: As today, I'm running without Windows DNS. I'm writing up a guide on how to do this, and I'll update this topic.

    Read the article

  • How to configure DNS server to forward queries about particular domain AND all of its subdomains

    - by user71061
    I have DNS server (linux box with bind9), which is authorative for some domains, and forward all other queries to external DNS server of my ISP provider. So far no problem. Now I want that queries about some specific domains were forwarded to my internal DNS server, f.e.: zone "some_domain" { type forward; forwarders { some_internal_dns_ip; }; }; So far still no problem, all works ok. But then, I want also to forward some reverse DNS queries to my internal DNS. So, I have added: zone "16.172.in-addr.arpa" { type forward; forwarders { some_internal_dns_ip; }; }; And this doesn't work as I expect. Queries about "16.172.in-addr.arpa" (for example 1.16.172.in-addr.arpa) are resolved correctly, but reverse queries about full address (for example 1.1.16.172.in-addr.arpa) are not. I understand that my server should use here some recursive query, but could not configure it. I have already tried adding following options recursion yes; allow-recursion { 127.0.0.1; }; allow-recursion-on { 127.0.0.1; }; but with no success . (I have used loopback address here, because I need this functionality only for my DNS host, and not for its clients) Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Setting up DNS server on VPS on the internet

    - by Nick Duffell
    I have followed multiple online tutorials on setting this up, it is BIND9 on a debian server. It is the only server I have, so it is acting as both ns1, ns1, and the server they domain name should point to itself. It all appears to be working and when I dig the domain name from the server itself I get (what seems to me) the correct output: ; << DiG 9.7.3 << theonetekkit.com.au ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; -HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: NOERROR, id: 18593 ;; flags: qr aa rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 1, AUTHORITY: 2, ADDITIONAL: 2 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;theonetekkit.com.au. IN A ;; ANSWER SECTION: theonetekkit.com.au. 3000 IN A 103.4.17.189 ;; AUTHORITY SECTION: theonetekkit.com.au. 3000 IN NS ns1.theonetekkit.com.au. theonetekkit.com.au. 3000 IN NS ns2.theonetekkit.com.au. ;; ADDITIONAL SECTION: ns1.theonetekkit.com.au. 3000 IN A 103.4.17.189 ns2.theonetekkit.com.au. 3000 IN A 103.4.17.189 ;; Query time: 15 msec ;; SERVER: 103.4.17.189#53(103.4.17.189) ;; WHEN: Wed Nov 7 02:12:58 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 121 When I dig it from another server / computer, however, I am getting a problem: ; << DiG 9.7.3 << theonetekkit.com.au ;; global options: +cmd ;; Got answer: ;; -HEADER<<- opcode: QUERY, status: SERVFAIL, id: 56637 ;; flags: qr rd ra; QUERY: 1, ANSWER: 0, AUTHORITY: 0, ADDITIONAL: 0 ;; QUESTION SECTION: ;theonetekkit.com.au. IN A ;; Query time: 22 msec ;; SERVER: 103.4.16.166#53(103.4.16.166) ;; WHEN: Wed Nov 7 02:12:40 2012 ;; MSG SIZE rcvd: 37 I have given it more than enough time for the records to be refreshed since setting up the DNS server, so I don't know what would be causing this. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • named-checkzone reports 'ns.example.com.ns' has no address records (A or AAAA)

    - by hydroparadise
    The first thing I see wrong is that its a recursion problem. But I'm not sure where the problems lie in my reverse lookup file. ns should report back as ns.example.com but instead getting ns.example.com.ns. Of course it wouldn't find any entries for that name because there isn't one, nor is it supposed to. Here's my reverse file: $TTL 86400 @ IN SOA ns.example.com root.example.com. ( 16071990 ; Serial 3600 ; Refresh 1800 ; Retry 604800 ; Expire 86400 ; Minimum TTL ) @ IN NS ns.example.com It's not extraordinarily complicated. What my question is, what other files affect the output for named-checkzone when checking a name against the revers file?

    Read the article

  • Internal and External DNS from Different Servers, Same Zone

    - by Shane
    Hello All, I am either having trouble understanding how DNS works, or I am having trouble configuring my DNS correctly (either one isn't good). I am currently working with a domain, I'll call it webdomain.com, and I need to allow all of our internal users to get out to dotster to get our public DNS entries just like the rest of the world. Then, on top of that, I want to be able to supply just a few override DNS entries for testing servers and equipment that is not available publically. As an example: public.webdomain.com - should get this from dotster outside.webdomain.com - should get this from dotster as well testing.webdomain.com - should get this from my internal dns controller The problem that I seem to be running into at every turn is that if I have an internal DNS controller that contains a zone for webdomain.com then I can get my specified internal entries but never get anything from the public DNS server. This holds true regardless of the type of DNS server I use also--I have tried both a Linux Bind9 and a Windows 2008 Domain Controller. I guess my big question is: am I being unreasonable to think that a system should be able to check my specified internal DNS and in the case where a requested entry doesn't exist it should fail over to the specified public dns server -OR- is this just not the way DNS works and I am lost in the sauce? It seems like it should be as simple as telling my internal DNS server to forward any requests that it can't fulfill to dotster, but that doesn't seem to work. Could this be a firewall issue? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Plesk wildcard subdomain not working

    - by avdgaag
    I'm trying to set up a wildcard subdomain on my VPS. Ultimately I want to end up with this: main site: my.domain.tld subdomain: sub1.my.domain.tld - should end up serving my.domain.tld/sub1 I am using plesk 8.6. I have created a DNS A record pointing at my VPS' IP. I have then restarted the DNS server and waited up to 24 hours. But trying ping sub1.my.domain.tld results in an unknown host error. So I know there's more stuff involved, configuring apache etc. But so far, I cannot even get the subdomain working at all, let alone serve up the right content. I have also tried a CNAME record, to no effect. I have also tried creating a regular subdomain with a fixed name, which also does not work. Pre-configured subdomains DO work, like ftp.my.domain.tld or mail.my.domain.tld. I am clearly missing something here, but my hosting provider charges a small fortune for any support request not involving hardware physically burning down, so I'm hesitant to ask them. Any ideas?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39  | Next Page >