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  • Informix, NHibernate, TransactionScope interaction difficulties

    - by John Prideaux
    I have a small program that is trying to wrap an NHibernate insert into an Informix database in a TransactionScope object using the Informix .NET Provider. I am getting the error specified below. The code without the TransactionScope object works -- including when the insert is wrapped in an NHibernate session transaction. Any ideas on what the problem is? BTW, without the EnterpriseServicesInterop, the Informix .NET Provider will not participate in a TransactionScope transaction (verified without NHibernate involved). Code Snippet: public static void TestTScope() { Employee johnp = new Employee { name = "John Prideaux" }; using (TransactionScope tscope = new TransactionScope( TransactionScopeOption.Required, new TransactionOptions() { Timeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), IsolationLevel = IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted }, EnterpriseServicesInteropOption.Full)) { using (ISession session = OpenSession()) { session.Save(johnp); Console.WriteLine("Saved John to the database"); } } Console.WriteLine("Transaction should be rolled back"); } static ISession OpenSession() { if (factory == null) { Configuration c = new Configuration(); c.AddAssembly(Assembly.GetCallingAssembly()); factory = c.BuildSessionFactory(); } return factory.OpenSession(); } static ISessionFactory factory; Stack Trace: NHibernate.ADOException was unhandled Message="Could not close IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection connection" Source="NHibernate" StackTrace: at NHibernate.Connection.ConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) at NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SuppliedConnectionProviderConnectionHelper.Release() at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaMetadataUpdater.GetReservedWords(Dialect dialect, IConnectionHelper connectionHelper) at NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaMetadataUpdater.Update(ISessionFactory sessionFactory) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl..ctor(Configuration cfg, IMapping mapping, Settings settings, EventListeners listeners) at NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory() at HelloNHibernate.Employee.OpenSession() in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Employee.cs:line 73 at HelloNHibernate.Employee.TestTScope() in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Employee.cs:line 53 at HelloNHibernate.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\Development\ScratchProject\HelloNHibernate\Program.cs:line 19 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException: IBM.Data.Informix.IfxException Message="ERROR - no error information available" Source="IBM.Data.Informix" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.HandleError(IntPtr hHandle, SQL_HANDLE hType, RETCODE retcode) at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.DisposeClose() at IBM.Data.Informix.IfxConnection.Close() at NHibernate.Connection.ConnectionProvider.CloseConnection(IDbConnection conn) InnerException:

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  • sp_addlinkserver using trigger

    - by Nanda
    I have the following trigger, which causes an error when it runs: CREATE TRIGGER ... ON ... FOR INSERT, UPDATE AS IF UPDATE(STATUS) BEGIN DECLARE @newPrice VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @FILENAME VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @server VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @provider VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @datasrc VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @location VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @provstr VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @catalog VARCHAR(50) DECLARE @DBNAME VARCHAR(50) SET @server=xx SET @provider=xx SET @datasrc=xx SET @provstr='DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=xxxxxxxx;UID=xx;PWD=xx;' SET @DBNAME='[xx]' SET @newPrice = (SELECT STATUS FROM Inserted) SET @FILENAME = (SELECT INPUT_XML_FILE_NAME FROM Inserted) IF @newPrice = 'FAIL' BEGIN EXEC master.dbo.sp_addlinkedserver @server, '', @provider, @datasrc, @provstr EXEC master.dbo.sp_addlinkedsrvlogin @server, 'true' INSERT INTO [@server].[@DBNAME].[dbo].[maildetails] ( 'to', 'cc', 'from', 'subject', 'body', 'status', 'Attachment', 'APPLICATION', 'ID', 'Timestamp', 'AttachmentName' ) VALUES ( 'P23741', '', '', 'XMLFAILED', @FILENAME, '4', '', '8', '', GETDATE(), '' ) EXEC sp_dropserver @server END END The error is: Msg 15002, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSaddserver_internal, Line 28 The procedure 'sys.sp_addlinkedserver' cannot be executed within a transaction. Msg 15002, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_addlinkedsrvlogin, Line 17 The procedure 'sys.sp_addlinkedsrvlogin' cannot be executed within a transaction. Msg 15002, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_dropserver, Line 12 The procedure 'sys.sp_dropserver' cannot be executed within a transaction. How can I prevent this error from occurring?

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  • What purpose does “using” serve when used the following way

    - by user287745
    What purpose does “using” serve when used the following way:- ONE EXAMPLE IS THIS, (AN ANSWERER- @richj - USED THIS CODE TO SOLVE A PROBLEM THANKS) private Method(SqlConnection connection) { using (SqlTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction()) { try { // Use the connection here .... transaction.Commit(); } catch { transaction.Rollback(); throw; } } } OTHER EXAMPLE I FOUND WHILE READING ON MICROSOFT SUPPORT SITE public static void ShowSqlException(string connectionString) { string queryString = "EXECUTE NonExistantStoredProcedure"; StringBuilder errorMessages = new StringBuilder(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); try { command.Connection.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (SqlException ex) { for (int i = 0; i < ex.Errors.Count; i++) { errorMessages.Append("Index #" + i + "\n" + "Message: " + ex.Errors[i].Message + "\n" + "LineNumber: " + ex.Errors[i].LineNumber + "\n" + "Source: " + ex.Errors[i].Source + "\n" + "Procedure: " + ex.Errors[i].Procedure + "\n"); } Console.WriteLine(errorMessages.ToString()); } } } I AM doing at top of page as using system.data.sqlclient etc so why this using thing in middle of code, What if I omit it (I know the code will work) but what functionality will I be losing

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  • Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed issue with hib

    - by Bijendra Singh
    I am getting Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed exception when integrating my method is called from the portlet. I am using spring transaction management for handling all the hibernate transaction in the spring configuration file through AOP. When I run my hibernate dao method for persisting the data through Junit its working fine. Exception description: I am facing an issue that is when I run my code through unit test case data is getting updated in database properly but when I run the same code with integration with portlet my code is executing finely but after the completion of transaction the records is not getting updated to database. The following error can be seen in the log which is [4/7/10 23:06:38:685 MDT] 0000006c LocalTranCoor E WLTC0014E: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionContainment is completing or completed. [4/7/10 23:06:38:689 MDT] 0000006c LocalTransact E J2CA0026E: Method addSync caught java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot enlist Synchronization. LocalTransactionCoordinator is completing or completed. at com.ibm.ws.LocalTransaction.LocalTranCoordImpl.enlistSynchronization(LocalTranCoordImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.LocalTransactionWrapper.addSync(LocalTransactionWrapper.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.initializeForUOW(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.involveMCInTran(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ejs.j2c.ConnectionManager.associateConnection(ConnectionManager.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.reactivate(WSJdbcConnection.java(Compiled Code)) at com.ibm.ws.rsadapter.jdbc.WSJdbcConnection.getWarnings(WSJdbcConnection.java:1539)

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  • Data Transfer Objects VS Domain/ActiveRecord Entities in the View in RoR

    - by leypascua
    I'm coming from a .NET background, where it is a practice to not bind domain/entity models directly to the view in not-so-basic CRUD-ish applications where the view does not directly project entity fields as-is. I'm wondering what's the practice in RoR, where the default persistence mechanism is ActiveRecord. I would assert that presentation-related info should not be leaked to the entities, not sure though if this is how real RoR heads would do it. If DTOs/model per view is the approach, how will you do it in Rails? Your thoughts? EDIT: Some examples: - A view shows a list of invoices, with the number of unique items in one column. - A list of credit card accounts, where possibly fraudulent transactions were executed. For that, the UI needs to show this row in red. For both scenarios, The lists don't show all of the fields of the entities, just a few to show in the list (like invoice #, transaction date, name of the account, the amount of the transaction) For the invoice example, The invoice entity doesn't have a field "No. of line items" mapped on it. The database has not been denormalized for perf reasons and it will be computed during query time using aggregate functions. For the credit card accounts example, surely the card transaction entity doesn't have a "Show-in-red" or "IsFraudulent" invariant. Yes it may be a business rule, but for this example, that is a presentation concern, so I would like to keep it out of my domain model.

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  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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  • Ibatis startBatch() only works with SqlMapClient's own start and commit transactions, not with Sprin

    - by Brian
    Hi, I'm finding that even though I have code wrapped by Spring transactions, and it commits/rolls back when I would expect, in order to make use of JDBC batching when using Ibatis and Spring I need to use explicit SqlMapClient transaction methods. I.e. this does batching as I'd expect: dao.getSqlMapClient().startTransaction(); dao.getSqlMapClient().startBatch(); int i = 0; for (MyObject obj : allObjects) { dao.storeChange(obj); i++; if (i % DB_BATCH_SIZE == 0) { dao.getSqlMapClient().executeBatch(); dao.getSqlMapClient().startBatch(); } } dao.getSqlMapClient().executeBatch(); dao.getSqlMapClient().commitTransaction(); but if I don't have the opening and closing transaction statements, and rely on Spring to manage things (which is what I want to do!), batching just doesn't happen. Given that Spring does otherwise seem to be handling its side of the bargain regarding transaction management, can anyone advise on any known issues here? (Database is MySQL; I'm aware of the issues regarding its JDBC pseudo-batch approach with INSERT statement rewriting, that's definitely not an issue here)

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  • can't commit or rollback, MySQL out of sync error on .net

    - by sergiogx
    Im having trouble with a stored procedure, I can't commit after I execute it. Its showing this error "[System.Data.Odbc.OdbcException] = {"ERROR [HY000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver]Commands out of sync; you can't run this command now"}" The SP by itself works fine. does anyone have idea of what might be happening? .net code: [WebMethod()] [SoapHeader("sesion")] public Boolean aceptarTasaCero(int idMunicipio, double valor) { Boolean resultado = false; OdbcConnection cxn = new OdbcConnection(); cxn.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["mysqlConnection"].ConnectionString; cxn.Open(); OdbcCommand cmd = new OdbcCommand("call aceptarTasaCero(?,?)", cxn); cmd.Parameters.Add("idMunicipio", OdbcType.Int).Value = idMunicipio; cmd.Parameters.Add("valor", OdbcType.Double).Value = valor; cmd.Transaction = cxn.BeginTransaction(); try { OdbcDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.Read()) { resultado = Convert.ToBoolean(dr[0]); } cmd.Transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception ex) { ExBi.log(ex, sesion.idUsuario); cmd.Transaction.Rollback(); } finally { cxn.Close(); } return resultado; } and this is the code for the stored procedure DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `aceptartasacero` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`database`@`%` PROCEDURE `aceptartasacero`(pidMun INTEGER, pvalor double) BEGIN declare vExito BOOLEAN; INSERT INTO tasacero(anio,valor,idmunicipios) VALUES(YEAR(curdate()),pValor,pidMun); set vExito = true; select vExito; END $$ DELIMITER ; thanks.

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  • 1 oracle schema support large reques per day , is this safe ?

    - by Hlex
    I 'm java system designer. As we have large project to do tightly, Those projects are java api without webpage. I design to create general flow engine to support all project. This idea use 1 oracle schema , having general transaction table . And others control routing table. They all nearly complete. But DBA Team concern that he is suffered to maintain very large request to 1 schema. 1 reason is if there are problem is some table. He must offline tablespace to fix. This is problem because all project will be affected. I try to convince by split data of each table to partition by project_code & "month number to delete" . Eaxmple partition: PROJ1_05 PROJ1_06 PROJ1_07 PROJ2_05 PROJ2_06 PROJ2_07 and all transaction table will store on its partition. So, If there are problem on any part of tablespace then he should offline some partition and another project with use same table should able to service Transaction per day should around 10Meg Record per day. Is this a good idea? If I must use 1 schema, what is strategy to do? Do you have any comment?

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  • CommandBuilder and SqlTransaction to insert/update a row

    - by Jesse
    I can get this to work, but I feel as though I'm not doing it properly. The first time this runs, it works as intended, and a new row is inserted where "thisField" contains "doesntExist" However, if I run it a subsequent time, I get a run-time error that I can't insert a duplicate key as it violate the primary key "thisField". static void Main(string[] args) { using(var sqlConn = new SqlConnection(connString) ) { sqlConn.Open(); var dt = new DataTable(); var sqlda = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table WHERE thisField ='doesntExist'", sqlConn); sqlda.Fill(dt); DataRow dr = dt.NewRow(); dr["thisField"] = "doesntExist"; //Primary key dt.Rows.Add(dr); //dt.AcceptChanges(); //I thought this may fix the problem. It didn't. var sqlTrans = sqlConn.BeginTransaction(); try { sqlda.SelectCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM table WITH (HOLDLOCK, ROWLOCK) WHERE thisField = 'doesntExist'", sqlConn, sqlTrans); SqlCommandBuilder sqlCb = new SqlCommandBuilder(sqlda); sqlda.InsertCommand = sqlCb.GetInsertCommand(); sqlda.InsertCommand.Transaction = sqlTrans; sqlda.DeleteCommand = sqlCb.GetDeleteCommand(); sqlda.DeleteCommand.Transaction = sqlTrans; sqlda.UpdateCommand = sqlCb.GetUpdateCommand(); sqlda.UpdateCommand.Transaction = sqlTrans; sqlda.Update(dt); sqlTrans.Commit(); } catch (Exception) { //... } } } Even when I can get that working through trial and error of moving AcceptChanges around, or encapsulating changes within Begin/EndEdit, then I begin to experience a "Concurrency violation" in which it won't update the changes, but rather tell me it failed to update 0 of 1 affected rows. Is there something crazy obvious I'm missing?

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  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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  • transactions and delete using fluent nhibernate

    - by Will I Am
    I am starting to play with (Fluent) nHibernate and I am wondering if someone can help with the following. I'm sure it's a total noob question. I want to do: delete from TABX where name = 'abc' where table TABX is defined as: ID int name varchar(32) ... I build the code based on internet samples: using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { IQuery query = session.CreateQuery("FROM TABX WHERE name = :uid") .SetString("uid", "abc"); session.Delete(query.List<Person>()[0]); transaction.Commit(); } but alas, it's generating two queries (one select and one delete). I want to do this in a single statement, as in my original SQL. What is the correct way of doing this? Also, I noticed that in most samples on the internet, people tend to always wrap all queries in transactions. Why is that? If I'm only running a single statement, that seems an overkill. Do people tend to just mindlessly cut and paste, or is there a reason beyond that? For example, in my query above, if I do manage it to get it from two queries down to one, i should be able to remove the begin/commit transaction, no? if it matters, I'm using PostgreSQL for experimenting.

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  • Can't wrap my head around appengine data store persistence

    - by aloo
    Hi, I've run into the "can't operate on multiple entity groups in a single transaction." problem when using APPENGINE FOR JAVA w/ JDO with the following code: PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT this FROM " + TypeA.class.getName() + " WHERE userId == userIdParam "); q.declareParameters("String userIdParam"); List<TypeA> poos = (List<TypeA>) q.execute(userIdParam); for (TypeA a : allTypeAs) { a.setSomeField(someValue); } pm.close(); } The problem it seems is that I can't operate on a multiple entities at the same time b/c they arent in the same entity group while in a transaction. Even though it doesn't seem like I'm in a transaction, appengine generates one because I have the following set in my jdoconfig.xml: <property name="datanucleus.appengine.autoCreateDatastoreTxns" value="true"/> Fine. So far I think I understand. BUT - if I replace TypeA in the above code, with TypeB - I don't get the error. I don't believe there is anything different between type a and type b - they both have the same key structure. They do have different fields but that shouldn't matter, right? My question is - what could possible be different between TypeA and TypeB that they give this different behavior? And consequently what do you I fundamentally misunderstand that this behavior could even exist.... Thanks.

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  • SQL: Join multiple tables and get a grouped sum

    - by Scienceprodigy
    I have a database with 3 tables that have related data. One table has transactions, and the other two relate to transaction categories. Basically it's financial data, so each transaction has a category (i.e. "gasoline" for a gas purchase transaction). A short version of my Transactions table looks like this- Transactions Table: ________________________________ | ID | Type | Amount | Category | --------------------------------- I also have two more tables relating a category to a categories parent. So basically, every Category entry in the Transactions Table belongs to a parent category (i.e. "gasoline" would belong to say "Automotive Expenses"). For categories, and their parent, I have two tables - Category Children: ____________________________________________ | ID | Parent Category ID | Child Category | -------------------------------------------- Category Parent: ________________________ | ID | Parent Category | ------------------------ What I'm trying to do is query the database and have it return a total spending by parent category. To get "spending" the Type of transactions must be "Debit". I tried the following statement: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category = 'category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id = category_parents._id WHERE trans_type = 'Debit' GROUP BY parent_category ORDER BY totals DESC but it gives me the following exception: 12-31 13:51:21.515: ERROR/Exception on query(4403): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: no such column: category_children.parent_category_id: , while compiling: SELECT category_parents.parent_category, SUM(amount) AS totals FROM (transactions INNER JOIN category_children ON transactions.category='category_children.child_category') INNER JOIN category_parents ON category_children.parent_category_id=category_parents._id where trans_type='Debit' group by parent_category order by totals desc Any help is appreciated. (EXTRA CREDIT: I also need to make another statement to do spending by child category, given the parent category)

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  • How to bind an ADF Table on button click

    - by Juan Manuel Formoso
    Coming from ASP.NET I'm having a hard time with basic ADF concepts. I need to bind a table on a button click, and for some reason I don't understand (I'm leaning towards page life cycle, which I guess is different from ASP.NET) it's not working. This is my ADF code: <af:commandButton text="#{viewcontrollerBundle.CMD_SEARCH}" id="cmdSearch" action="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.cmdSearch_click}" partialSubmit="true"/> <af:table var="row" rowBandingInterval="0" id="t1" value="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.transactionList}" partialTriggers="::cmdSearch" binding="#{backingBeanScope.indexBean.table}"> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="idTransaction" id="c2"> <af:outputText value="#{row.idTransaction}" id="ot4"/> </af:column> <af:column sortable="false" headerText="referenceCode" id="c5"> <af:outputText value="#{row.referenceCode}" id="ot7"/> </af:column> </af:table> This is cmdSearch_click: public String cmdSearch_click() { List l = new ArrayList(); Transaction t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(1)); t.setReferenceCode("AAA"); l.add(t); t = new Transaction(); t.setIdTransaction(BigDecimal.valueOf(2)); t.setReferenceCode("BBB"); l.add(t); setTransactionList(l); // AdfFacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addPartialTarget(table); return null; } The commented line also doesn't work. If I populate the list on my Bean's constructor, the table renders ok. Any ideas?

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  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

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  • need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

    - by railsnew
    I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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  • How can the Three-Phase Commit Protocol (3PC) guarantee atomicity?

    - by AndiDog
    I'm currently exploring worst case scenarios of atomic commit protocols like 2PC and 3PC and am stuck at the point that I can't find out why 3PC can guarantee atomicity. That is, how does it guarantee that if cohort A commits, cohort B also commits? Here's the simplified 3PC from the Wikipedia article: Now let's assume the following case: Two cohorts participate in the transaction (A and B) Both do their work, then vote for commit Coordinator now sends precommit messages... A receives the precommit message, acknowledges, and then goes offline for a long time B doesn't receive the precommit message (whatever the reason might be) and is thus still in "uncertain" state The results: Coordinator aborts the transaction because not all precommit messages were sent and acknowledged successfully A, who is in precommit state, is still offline, thus times out and commits B aborts in any case: He either stays offline and times out (causes abort) or comes online and receives the abort command from the coordinator And there you have it: One cohort committed, another aborted. The transaction is screwed. So what am I missing here? In my understanding, if the automatic commit on timeout (in precommit state) was replaced by infinitely waiting for a coordinator command, that case should work fine.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • Using NULLs in matchup table

    - by TomWilsonFL
    I am working on the accounting portion of a reservation system (think limo company). In the system there are multiple objects that can either be paid or submit a payment. I am tracking all of these "transactions" in three tables called: tx, tx_cc, and tx_ch. tx generates a new tx_id (for transaction ID) and keeps the information about amount, validity, etc. Tx_cc and tx_ch keep the information about the credit card or check used, respectively, which link to other tables (credit_card and bank_account among others). This seems fairly normalized to me, no? Now here is my problem: The payment transaction can take place for a myriad of reasons. Either a reservation is being paid for, a travel agent that booked a reservation is being paid, a driver is being paid, etc. This results in multiple tables, one for each of the entities: agent_tx, driver_tx, reservation_tx, etc. They look like this: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `driver_tx` ( `tx_id` int(10) unsigned zerofill NOT NULL, `driver_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `reservation_id` int(11) default NULL, `reservation_item_id` int(11) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`tx_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; Now this transaction is for a driver, but could be applied to an individual item on the reservation or the entire reservation overall. Therefore I demand either reservation_id OR reservation_item_id to be null. In the future there may be other things which a driver is paid for, which I would also add to this table, defaulting to null. What is the rule on this? Opinion? Obviously I could break this out into MANY three column tables, but the amount of OUTER JOINing needed seems outrageous. Your input is appreciated. Peace, Tom

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  • Database design: Calculating the Account Balance

    - by 001
    How do I design the database to calculate the account balance? 1) Currently I calculate the account balance from the transaction table In my transaction table I have "description" and "amount" etc.. I would then add up all "amount" values and that would work out the user's account balance. I showed this to my friend and he said that is not a good solution, when my database grows its going to slow down???? He said I should create separate table to store the calculated account balance. If did this, I will have to maintain two tables, and its risky, the account balance table could go out of sync. Any suggestion? EDIT: OPTION 2: should I add an extra column to my transaction tables "Balance". now I do not need to go through many rows of data to perform my calculation. Example John buys $100 credit, he debt $60, he then adds $200 credit. Amount $100, Balance $100. Amount -$60, Balance $40. Amount $200, Balance $240.

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  • Sql Compact and __sysobjects

    - by Scott Wisniewski
    I have some SQL Compact queries that create tables inside of transaction. This is mainly because I need to simulate temporary tables, which SQL Compact does not support. I do this by creating a real table, and then dropping it at the end of the transaction. This mostly works. Sometimes, however, when creating the tables Sql Compact will try to acquire PAGE level locks on the __sysobjects table. If there are several concurrent queries running that create "temp" tables, the attempt to acquire a page lock can result in a dead lock followed by a SqlLockTimeout exception. For normal tables I could fix this using a "with (rowlock)" hint. However, because I'm not writing the query to insert into __sysobjets (SQL server does that in response to "create table") I can't do this. Does anyone know of a way I could get around this? I've thought about pulling the table creation out of the transaction, but that opens up the possibility of phantom temporary tables that I'd then need to clean up regularly. Ideally I'd like to avoid that if possible.

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  • Combining two-part SQL query into one query

    - by user332523
    Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

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  • Ant build script executing <sql> task using java code

    - by Jay
    Any idea, why none of the debugging comments are printed once after executing the ANT build script's SQL task via java code? The java class to execute the sql in build scirpt is public class AntRunnerTest { private Project project; public void executeTask(String taskName) { try { project = new Project(); project.init(); project.setBasedir(new String(".")); ProjectHelper helper = ProjectHelper.getProjectHelper(); project.addReference("ant.projectHelper", helper); helper.parse(project, new File("build-copy.xml")); System.out.println("Before"); project.executeTarget(taskName); System.out.println("After"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } public static void main(String args[]) { try { AntRunnerTest newInst = new AntRunnerTest(); newInst.executeTask("sql"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(""+e); } } } I dont see the debug String "After" getting printed in the console. I noticed this issue only when i try to execute a sql task using java code. The ant script has the following simple transaction tag in it. <transaction> <![CDATA[ select now() ]]> </transaction> Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

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  • NHibernate + Fluent long startup time

    - by PaRa
    Hi all, am new to NHibernate. When performing below test took 11.2 seconds (debug mode) i am seeing this large startup time in all my tests (basically creating the first session takes a tone of time) setup = Windows 2003 SP2 / Oracle10gR2 latest CPU / ODP.net 2.111.7.20 / FNH 1.0.0.636 / NHibernate 2.1.2.4000 / NUnit 2.5.2.9222 / VS2008 SP1 using System; using System.Collections; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; using System.IO; using System.Text; using System.Data; using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Data.Common; using NHibernate; using log4net.Config; using System.Configuration; using FluentNHibernate; [Test()] public void GetEmailById() { Email result; using (EmailRepository repository = new EmailRepository()) { results = repository.GetById(1111); } Assert.IsTrue(results != null); } public class EmailRepository : RepositoryBase { public EmailRepository():base() { } } In my RepositoryBase public T GetById(object id) { using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { T returnVal = session.Get(id); transaction.Commit(); return returnVal; } catch (HibernateException ex) { // Logging here transaction.Rollback(); return null; } } } The query time is very small. The resulting entity is really small. Subsequent queries are fine. Its seems to be getting the first session started. Has anyone else seen something similar?

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