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• Outgoing Emails (Git Patches) Blocked by Windows Live

  - by SteveStifler

  Just recently I dove into the VideoLAN open source project. This was my first time using git, and when sending in my first patch (using git send-email --to [email protected] patches), I was sent the following message from my computer's local mail in the terminal (I'm on OSX 10.6 by the way): Mail rejected by Windows Live Hotmail for policy reasons. We generally do not accept email from dynamic IP's as they are not typically used to deliver unauthenticated SMTP e-mail to an Internet mail server. http:/www.spamhaus.org maintains lists of dynamic and residential IP addresses. If you are not an email/network admin please contact your E-mail/Internet Service Provider for help. Email/network admins, please visit http://postmaster.live.com for email delivery information and support They must think I'm a spammer. I have a dynamic IP and my ISP (Charter) won't let me get a static one, so I tried editing git preferences: git config --global user.email "[email protected]" to my gmail account. However I got the exact same message again. My guess is that it has something to do with the native mail's preferences, but I have no idea how to access them or modify them. Anybody have any ideas for solving this? Thanks!

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• Worklight console app, update

  - by jarkko

  We're using Worklight 6.1.0.0 / WebSphere 8.0.0.2 (ND/aix). This seemed pretty close to my question too, but for version 6.0. I've successfully done uninstall/install to our worklight console war package. However, there is some extra work on re-deploying adapters and such. I was looking for a way to just update the console. Among the ant tasks there is a target 'minimal-update', which sounds like what I'm looking for (is it?). However when all other pieces fell into place, I have an error for mapping the datasources: ADMA0007E: A validation error occurred in task Mapping resource references to resources. The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) name is not specified for resource reference jdbc/WorklightDS in module Worklight with EJB name . Contents of the 'minimal-update' task is pretty much the same as for 'install'. I tried that as update from websphere admin console (but i should use the ant task - right?), that gave me a wizard screen to map jdbc/WorklightDS from package to jdbc/WorklightDS on server. This left me wondering how could I tell this using the ant task.

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• Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

  - by Martin Cox

  Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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• How can I format Custom Data and display in autocomplete when source is an DB

  - by Andres Scarpone

  so I'm trying to get some info in the auto-complete widget like it's shown in the JQuery UI demo Demo, the only problem is they use a variable that they fill with the data they want to show, I instead want to access the data and the different description and stuff using a Data Base in MySQL, for this I have changed the source to use another php page that looks up the info. here is the code for the Auto-complete, I really don't understand the methods so I haven't changed it from the basic search. This is the JS: $(document).ready((function(){ $( "#completa" ).autocomplete({ source: "buscar.php", minLength: 1, focus: function (event, ui){ $("#completa").val(ui.item.val); return false; }; })); This is what I have in buscar.php: <?php $conec = mysql_connect(localhost, root, admin); if(!$conec) { die(mysql_error()); } else { $bd = mysql_select_db("ve_test",$conec ); if(!$bd) { die(mysql_error()); } } $termino = trim(strip_tags($_GET['term']));//Obtener el termino que envia el autocompletar $qstring = "SELECT name, descripcion FROM VE_table WHERE name LIKE '%".$termino."%'"; $result = mysql_query($qstring);//Solicitud a la Base de Datos while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result,MYSQL_ASSOC))//Realizar un LOOP sobre los valores obtenidos { $row['value']=htmlentities(stripslashes($row['name'])); $row_set[] = $row;//build an array } echo json_encode($row_set);//Enviar los datos al autocompletar en codificacion JSON, Altamente Necesario. ?

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• SugarmCRM REST API always returns "null"

  - by TuomasR

  I'm trying to test out the SugarCRM REST API, running latest version of CE (6.0.1). It seems that whenever I do a query, the API returns "null", nothing else. If I omit the parameters, then the API returns the API description (which the documentation says it should). I'm trying to perform a login, passing as parameter the method (login), input_type and response_type (json) and rest_data (JSON encoded parameters). The following code does the query: $api_target = "http://example.com/sugarcrm/service/v2/rest.php"; $parameters = json_encode(array( "user_auth" => array( "user_name" => "admin", "password" => md5("adminpassword"), ), "application_name" => "Test", "name_value_list" => array(), )); $postData = http_build_query(array( "method" => "login", "input_type" => "json", "response_type" => "json", "rest_data" => $parameters )); echo $parameters . "\n"; echo $postData . "\n"; echo file_get_contents($api_target, false, stream_context_create(array( "http" => array( "method" => "POST", "header" => "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n", "content" => $postData ) ))) . "\n"; I've tried different variations of parameters and using username instead of user_name, and all provide the same result, just a response "null" and that's it.

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• jQuery autocomplete on multiple fields

  - by Onigoetz

  Hi all, Surprisingly, I didn't find any answers to my question. I want to make a form on jQuery with two fields. City Code. City Name. and when I enter a city code and go out of the field. I want an autocomplete on the city name. I Installed the jQuery Autocomplete plugin. and I have the following code : $(document).ready(function() { $("#field_localite").autocomplete('admin/ajax/npa', { extraParams: { npa: function() { return $("#field_npa").val(); } } }); $("#field_npa").blur(function() { $("#field_localite").search(); }); }); The problem is that the .search() method. doesnt launch the autocomplete. I'm looking for a method to trigger this autocomplete search on the field. do you know a way or a plugin able to do this search ? thanks in advance BTW : the PHP code behin is totally tested and works, it returns the data when doing the call.

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• DB Design to store custom fields for a table

  - by Fazal

  Hi All, this question came up based on the responses I got for the question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2785033/getting-wierd-issue-with-to-number-function-in-oracle As everyone suggested that storing Numeric values in VARCHAR2 columns is not a good practice (which I totally agree with), I am wondering about a basic Design choice our team has made and whether there are better way to design. Problem Statement : We Have many tables where we want to give certain number of custom fields. The number of required custom fields is known, but what kind of attribute is mapped to the column is available to the user E.g. I am putting down a hypothetical scenario below Say you have a laptop which stores 50 attribute values for every laptop record. Each laptop attributes are created by the some admin who creates the laptop. A user created a laptop product lets say lap1 with attributes String, String, numeric, numeric, String Second user created laptop lap2 with attributes String,numeric,String,String,numeric Currently there data in our design gets persisted as following Laptop Table Id Name field1 field2 field3 field4 field5 1 lap1 lappy lappy 12 13 lappy 2 lap2 lappy2 13 lappy2 lapp2 12 This example kind of simulates our requirement and our design Now here if somebody is lookinup records for lap2 table doing a comparison on field2, We need to apply TO_NUMBER. select * from laptop where name='lap2' and TO_NUMBER(field2) < 15 TO_NUMBER fails in some cases when query plan decides to first apply to_number instead of the other filter. QUESTION Is this a valid design? What are the other alternative ways to solve this problem One of our team mates suggested creating tables on the fly for such cases. Is that a good idea How do popular ORM tools give custom fields or flex fields handling? I hope I was able to make sense in the question. Sorry for such a long text.. This causes us to use TO_NUMBER when queryio

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• Deserialize xml which uses attribute name/value pairs

  - by Bodyloss

  My application receives a constant stream of xml files which are more or less a direct copy of the database record <record type="update"> <field name="id">987654321</field> <field name="user_id">4321</field> <field name="updated">2011-11-24 13:43:23</field> </record> And I need to deserialize this into a class which provides nullable property's for all columns class Record { public long? Id { get; set; } public long? UserId { get; set; } public DateTime? Updated { get; set; } } I just cant seem to work out a method of doing this without having to parse the xml file manually and switch on the field's name attribute to store the values. Is their a way this can be achieved quickly using an XmlSerializer? And if not is their a more efficient way of parsing it manually? Regards and thanks My main problem is that the attribute name needs to have its value set to a property name and its value as the contents of a <field>..</field> element

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• authorise user from mysql database

  - by Jacksta

  I suck at php, and cant find the error here. The script gets 2 variables "username" and "password" from a html from then check them against a MySQL databse. When I run this I get the follow error "Query was empty" <? if ((!$_POST[username]) || (!$_POST[password])) { header("Location: show_login.html"); exit; } $db_name = "testDB"; $table_name = "auth_users"; $connection = @mysql_connect("localhost", "admin", "pass") or die(mysql_error()); $db = @mysql_select_db($db_name, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $slq = "SELECT * FROM $table_name WHERE username ='$_POST[username]' AND password = password('$_POST[password]')"; $result = @mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $num = mysql_num_rows($result); if ($num != 0) { $msg = "<p>Congratulations, you're authorised!</p>"; } else { header("Location: show_login.html"); exit; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Secret Area</title> </head> <body> <? echo "$msg"; ?> </body> </html>

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• Pass a model object while using a upload

  - by Dejan.S

  I'm trying to pass my model object along with the file I'm uploading but I'm stuck on how I should that should be done. This is the code I use now [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload(PageBody pageBody) { foreach (string file in Request.Files) { var hpf = Request.Files[file] as HttpPostedFileBase; if (hpf.ContentLength == 0) continue; string savedFileName = Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "Content/Uploads/", Path.GetFileName(hpf.FileName)); hpf.SaveAs(savedFileName); _pageBody.Pictures.Add(new PageBodyPicture() { Picture = file }); } return View(pageBody); } here is my view code, I got the model.Id but there but it wont pass even if I put just Id to the Upload method. <form action="/Admin/Upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> <%= Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Id)%> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Upload" /> </form>

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• C# Dataset Dynamically Add DataColumn

  - by Wesley

  I am trying to add a extra column to a dataset after a query has completed. I have a database relationship of the following: Employees / \ Groups EmployeeGroups Empoyees holds all the data for that individual, I'll name the unique key the UserID. Groups holds all the groups that a employee can be a part of, i.e. Super User, Admin, User; etc. I will name the unique key GroupID EmployeeGroups holds all the associations of which groups each employee belongs too. (UserID | GroupID) What I am trying to accomplish is after querying for a all users I want to loop though each user and add what groups that user is a part of by adding a new column to the dataset named 'Groups' which is a string to insert the values of the next query to get all the groups that user is a part of. Then by user of databinding populate a listview with all employees and their group associations My code is as follows; Position 5 is the new column I am trying to add to the dataset. string theQuery = "select UserID, FirstName, LastName, EmployeeID, Active from Employees"; DataSet theEmployeeSet = itsDatabase.runQuery(theQuery); DataColumn theCol = new DataColumn("Groups", typeof(string)); theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Columns.Add(theCol); foreach (DataRow theRow in theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Rows) { theRow.ItemArray[5] = "1234"; } At the moment, the code will create the new column but when i assign the data to that column nothing will be assigned, what am I missing? If there is any further explination or information I can provide, please let me know. Thank you all

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• Rails Model inheritance in forms

  - by Tiago

  I'm doing a reporting system for my app. I created a model ReportKind for example, but as I can report a lot of stuff, I wanted to make different groups of report kinds. Since they share a lot of behavior, I'm trying to use inheritance. So I have the main model: model ReportKind << ActiveRecord::Base end and created for example: model UserReportKind << ReportKind end In my table report_kinds I've the type column, and until here its all working. My problem is in the forms/controllers. When I do a ReportKind.new, my form is build with the '*report_kind*' prefix. If a get a UserReportKind, even through a ReportKind.find, the form will build the 'user_report_kind' prefix. This mess everything in the controllers, since sometimes I'll have params[:report_kind], sometimes params[:user_report_kind], and so on for every other inheritance I made. Is there anyway to force it to aways use the 'report_kind' prefix? Also I had to force the attribute 'type' in the controller, because it didn't get the value direct from the form, is there a pretty way to do this? Routing was another problem, since it was trying to build routes based in the inherited models names. I overcome that by adding the other models in routes pointing to the same controller.

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• What is the difference between calling Stream.Write and using a StreamWriter?

  - by John Nelson

  What is the difference between instantiating a Stream object, such as MemoryStream and calling the memoryStream.Write() method to write to the stream, and instantiating a StreamWriter object with the stream and calling streamWriter.Write()? Consider the following scenario: You have a method that takes a Stream, writes a value, and returns it. The stream is read from later on, so the position must be reset. There are two possible ways of doing it (both seem to work). // Instantiate a MemoryStream somewhere // - Passed to the following two methods MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); // Not using a StreamWriter private static Stream WriteToStream(Stream stream, string value) { stream.Write(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(value), 0, value.Length); stream.Flush(); stream.Position = 0; return stream; } // Using a StreamWriter private static Stream WriteToStreamWithWriter(Stream stream, string value) { StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(stream); sw.Write(value, 0, value.Length); sw.Flush(); stream.Position = 0; return stream; } This is partially a scope problem, as I don't want to close the stream after writing to it since it will be read from later. I also certainly don't want to dispose it either, because that will close my stream. The difference seems to be that not using a StreamWriter introduces a direct dependency on Encoding.Default, but I'm not sure that's a very big deal. What's the difference, if any?

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• List of Users and Role using Membership Provider

  - by Jemes

  I’m trying to produce a view to show a list of users and their role using the built in membership provider. My model and controller are picking up the users and roles but I’m having trouble displaying them in my view. Model public class AdminViewModel { public MembershipUserCollection Users { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } } Controller public ActionResult Admin() { AdminViewModel viewModel = new AdminViewModel { Users = MembershipService.GetAllUsers(), Roles = RoleService.GetRoles() }; return View(viewModel); } View Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<IEnumerable<Account.Models.AdminViewModel>>" <table> <tr> <td>UserName</td> <td>Email</td> <td>IsOnline</td> <td>CreationDate</td> <td>LastLoginDate</td> <td>LastActivityDate</td> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%=item.UserName %></td> <td><%=item.Email %></td> <td><%=item.IsOnline %></td> <td><%=item.CreationDate %></td> <td><%=item.LastLoginDate %></td> <td><%=item.LastActivityDate %></td> <td><%=item.ROLE %></td> </tr> <% }%> </table>

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• Using JMX classes to notify on events over time

  - by Cincinnati Joe

  I've been looking at JMX for monitoring application and system metrics (partially because MBeans can accessed by various tools such as JConsole). It would seem like the classes included with JMX would be useful for things like notification when metrics have exceeded thresholds. But I'm not sure they fit with the way I want to measure these over a specified time period. For example, let's say I want to notify an admin when the average CPU load is over 95% for more than 5 minutes. Is that something can be done with a GaugeMonitor? From the docs, it doesn't seem quite suited for this, and I'm wondering if instead I should write my own MBean with the necessary logic. A more relevant example is when the login times for users exceed 10s over a period of 5 mins. Slightly different would be the last 20 logins took more than 10s on average. Another case would be when a process crashes 4+ times in an hour. Or the request queue exceeds 15 for 5 mins. Are the JMX Monitor classes useful for this kind of thing?

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• What technologies/tools do people use to implement live websites ?

  - by MadSeb

  Hi, I have the following situation: -I have a server A hooked up to a piece of hardware that sends values and information out of every second. Programs on the server machine can read these values. This server A is in a very remote location so Internet connection is very slow and not reliable but the connection does exist. Let's say it's a weather station in the Arctic. -Users from the home location want to monitorize the weather values somehow. Well, the users can use a remote desktop connection the server A but that would be too too slow. My idea is somehow to have a website on a web server (let's call the webserver - B and B is in a home location ) and make the server A connect to the server B and somehow send values and the web application reads the values and displays them....... but how to do such a system ?? I know I can use MySQL and have the server A connect to a SQL server on server B and send INSERT queries and have the web application running on server B constantly read from the SQL server but I think that would be way way too slow and I think there has to be a better solution. Any ideas ? BTW. The users should be able to send information to the weather station from the website as well ( so an ADMIN user should be allowed to shut down the weather station from the website or whatever) Best regards, MadSeb

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• Codeigniter return config file as array with autoload enabled

  - by Fverswijver

  So I'm using CodeIgniter to build a website and I've made it so that all my specific settings are stored in a config file that's automatically loaded. I've also built a page that loads the settings file, makes a nice little table and allows me to edit everything from that page, afterwards it saves the entire page again (I know I could've done the same with a database but I want to try it this way). My problem is that I can't seem to use this bit when autoloading of my config file is enabled, but when I disable autoloading I can't seem to manually load it, it never finds my variables. So what I'm doing here is just taking all values from the config file and putting them in a single array so I can pass this array onto my settings administration page (edit/show all settings). $this->config->load('site_settings', TRUE); $data['settings'] = $this->config->item('site_settings'); ... $this->load->view('template', $data); config/site_settings.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); $config['header_img'] = './img/header/'; $config['copyright_text'] = 'Copyright Instituto Kabu'; $config['copyright_font'] = './system/fonts/motoroil.ttf'; $config['copyright_font_color'] = 'ffffff'; $config['copyright_font_size'] = '32';

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• HTML5 audio with PHP script does not work on iPad/Iphone

  - by saulob

  Ok, I'm trying to play an HTML audio code on iPad but does not work. I created one PHP script to send to the MP3 request to the HTML5 audio code mp3_file_player.php?n=mp3file.mp3 The player is here: http://www.avault.com/news/podcast-news/john-romero-podcast-episode-80/ You will see that works on every HTML5 supported browser even on my iPod Touch. But does not work on iPad/iPhone, even on Safari on Mac OSX (I tried on Safari/Windows, worked fine) This is my PHP code: header("X-Powered-By: "); header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); header("Content-Length: ". (string)(filesize($episode_filename)) .""); header("Content-type: audio/mpeg"); readfile($episode_filename); exit(); Everything works fine, the MP3 has the same headers like reading the mp3 directly. HTTP Headers from direct file access: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:31 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Last-Modified Wed, 26 May 2010 13:39:19 GMT Etag "dac0039-41d91f8-4877f669cefc0" Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 50656162 Content-Range bytes 18390614-69046775/69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg HTTP Header from my PHP script: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:08 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg The only thing different it's the Content-Range, I even tried to add it, but if I use it the player will not work on my Ipod Touch. So I removed. Thank you very much.

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• IIS doesn't send two responses to the same client at the same time (only for ASP)

  - by dr. evil

  I've got 2 ASP pages. I do a request to the first page from Firefox (which takes 30 seconds to process on server-side), and during the execution of 30 seconds I do another request from Firefox to the second page (takes less than 1 second in server-side), but it does come after 31 second. Because it waits first requests to finish. When I request to the first page from Firefox and then request the second page from IE it's just instant. So basically ASP - IIS 6 somehow limiting every client to one request (long processing request) at a time. I need to get around this problem in my .NET client application. This is tested in 3 different systems. If you want to test you can try the ASP scripts at the end. This behaviour is same in a long SQL execution or just in a time consuming ASP operation. Note: It's not about HTTP Keep Alive It's not about persistent connection limit (we tried to increase this in firefox and in .NET with Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit) It's not about User Agent This doesn't happen in ASP.NET so I assume it's something to the with ASP.dll I'm trying to solve this on the client not the server. I don't have direct control over the server it's a 3rd party solution. Is there any way to get around this? Sample ASP Code: First ASP: <% Set cnn = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Connection") cnn.Open "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=master;User Id=sa;Password=;" cnn.Execute("WAITFOR DELAY '0:0:30'") cnn.Close %> Second ASP: <% Response.Write "bla bla" %>

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• MS Access: Permission problems with views

  - by Keith Williams

  "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

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• NSFetchedResultsController on secondary UITableView - how to query data?

  - by Jason

  I am creating a core-data based Navigation iPhone app with multiple screens. Let's say it is a flash-card application. The data model is very simple, with only two entities: Language, and CardSet. There is a one-to-many relationship between the Language entity and the CardSet entities, so each Language may contain multiple CardSets. In other words, Language has a one-to-many relationship Language.cardSets which points to the list of CardSets, and CardSet has a relationship CardSet.language which points to the Language. There are two screens: (1) An initial TableView screen, which displays the list of languages; and (2) a secondary TableView screen, which displays the list of CardSets in the Language. In the initial screen, which lists the languages, I am using NSFetchedResultsController to keep the list of languages up-to-date. The screen passes the Language selected to the secondary screen. On the secondary screen, I am trying to figure out whether I should again use an NSFetchedResultsController to maintain the list of CardSets, or if I should work through Language.cardSets to simply pull the list out of the object model. The latter makes the most sense programatically because I already have the Language - but then it would not automatically be updated on changes. I have looked at the NSFetchedResultsController documentation, and it seems like I can easily create predicates based on attributes - but not relationships. I.e., I can create the following NSFetchedResultsController: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"name LIKE[c] 'Chuck Norris'"]; How can I access my data through the direct relationship - Language.cardSets - and also have the table auto-update using NSFetchedResultsController? Is this possible?

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• Entity Framework DateTime update extremely slow

  - by Phyxion

  I have this situation currently with Entity Framework: using (TestEntities dataContext = DataContext) { UserSession session = dataContext.UserSessions.FirstOrDefault(userSession => userSession.Id == SessionId); if (session != null) { session.LastAvailableDate = DateTime.Now; dataContext.SaveChanges(); } } This is all working perfect, except for the fact that it is terribly slow compared to what I expect (14 calls per second, tested with 100 iterations). When I update this record manually through this command: dataContext.Database.ExecuteSqlCommand(String.Format("update UserSession set LastAvailableDate = '{0}' where Id = '{1}'", DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fffffff"), SessionId)); I get 55 calls per second, which is more than fast enough. However, when I don't update the session.LastAvailableDate but I update an integer (e.g. session.UserId) or string with Entity Framework, I get 50 calls per second, which is also more than fast enough. Only the datetime field is terrible slow. The difference of a factor 4 is unacceptable and I was wondering how I can improve this as I don't prefer using direct SQL when I can also use the Entity Framework. I'm using Entity Framework 4.3.1 (also tried 4.1).

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• Sync version of the project with Java

  - by Alexadar

  I have a problem, I need to sync version of the project. Changes are performed on main project that resides on central Coldfusion server. There are about 30 remote Coldfusion servers, that has to sync with latest version on central server. New synch application will to be done in Java! I have a direct link to each remote location. Mostly Windows OS and Windows tools are used. My idea: The synchronization is performed at the level of synchronization of folders. I would like to avoid the use of SVN and similar tools. My idea is to carry out comparison of folders on the local server (comparison is performed between the old and new versions),with NO communication with remote servers, make the difference between the versions and the same is sent to the remote machines. We will install Tomcat on every remote server. "Sync application" deployed on Tomcat will take care about differences. Remote server will return me an answer, about the success of the sync. Any kind of suggestion or completely new approach on this topic is more than welcome. Thanks Best regards

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• What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

  - by Pichan

  I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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• Routing redirection decision

  - by programming late night

  I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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