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• MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

  - by Click Ahead

  Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

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• Error in Postgres execute

  - by RAJA

  I'm using this function... -- Function: dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) -- DROP FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(IN in_orgmgrtype character varying, INOUT in_parentid integer, IN in_levelid integer, IN in_name character varying, IN in_phone character varying, IN in_webpage character varying, IN in_owner character varying, OUT out_accountid integer) RETURNS record AS $BODY$ DECLARE l_CoID int; l_CurrID int; l_OrgMgrId int; errmsg varchar(250); BEGIN IF in_ParentID = -1 THEN errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; l_CoID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser(in_user); IF l_CoID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetCompanyIDForUser failed'; END IF; errmsg := 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; l_OrgMgrID := dbo.sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany(in_OrgMgrType, l_CoID); IF l_OrgMgrID = -2 THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'execute sp_Acc_GetOrgMgrIDForCompany failed'; END IF; in_ParentID := l_OrgMgrID; ELSE errmsg := 'Select orgmgrid failed'; SELECT OrgMgrID INTO l_CurrID FROM dbo.OrgMgr WHERE Name = in_Name AND ParentID = in_ParentID; END IF; -- if not, add it IF l_CurrID IS NULL THEN errmsg := 'Insert into orgmgr(account creation) failed'; INSERT INTO dbo.OrgMgr (ParentID, LevelID, Name, PrimaryPhone, WebPage, Owner) VALUES (in_ParentID, in_LevelID, in_Name, in_Phone, in_WebPage, in_Owner); out_AccountID := currval('dbo.OrgMgr_accountid_seq'); ELSE out_AccountID := -1; END IF; COMMIT; EXCEPTION WHEN RAISE_EXCEPTION THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE NOTICE 'ERROR : %',errmsg; WHEN OTHERS THEN out_AccountID := 99; RAISE EXCEPTION 'ERROR : %',errmsg; END $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 100; ALTER FUNCTION dbo.sp_acc_createaccount(character varying, integer, integer, character varying, character varying, character varying, character varying) OWNER TO postgres; But.. it's showing error in execute time .. ERROR: SPI_execute_plan failed executing query "ROLLBACK": SPI_ERROR_TRANSACTION

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• Good way to maintain Muliple level selection menu list in J2ME

  - by geoaxis

  Hello, I need a good way to maintain multiple form level data for menue selection. So for example If I have A and B, each might Have 1 2 3 so A A1 A2 A3 B B1 B2 B3 And this can continue for long, so that I could have A - A1 - A1.1 - A1.1.1 -.... I have the following class in place, works ok But I suspect we could have better. I just need to perform selection ni a selection tree like Widget, but each level of selection comes in another form (in J2ME) import java.util.Vector; public class Tag { private String tag; private Vector childTags; private Tag parent; Tag(String tag, Vector childtag) { this.tag = tag; this.childTags= childTags; } public void setChildTags(Vector childTags) { this.childTags = childTags; } public Vector getChildTags() { return this.childTags; } public String getTag() { return this.tag; } public String toString(int depth) { String a =""; if(depth==0) { a = a + this.getTag(); } if(this.getChildTags()!= null) { for(int k=0;k <this.getChildTags().capacity(); k++) { for (int i=0; i<depth; i++ ) { a = a + ("-"); } a = a+ ( ((Tag)this.getChildTags().elementAt(k)).toString(depth++)); } } return a; } }

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• How does one create and use a pointer to an array of an unknown number of structures inside a class?

  - by user1658731

  Sorry for the confusing title... I've been playing around with C++, working on a project to parse a game's (Kerbal Space Program) save file so I can modify it and eventually send it over a network. I'm stuck with storing an unknown number of vessels and crew members, so I need to have an array of unknown size. Is this possible? I figured having a pointer to an array would be the way to go. I have: class SaveFileSystem { string version; string UT; int activeVessel; int numCrew; ??? Crews; // !! int numVessels; ??? Vessels; // !! } Where Crews and Vessels should be arrays of structures: struct Crew { string name; //Other stuff }; struct Vessel { string name; //Stuff }; I'm guessing I should have something like: this->Crews = new ???; this->Vessels = new ???; in my constructor to initialize the arrays, and attempt to access it with: this->Crews[0].name = "Ship Number One"; Does this make any sense??? I'd expect the "???"'s to involve a mess of asterisk's, like "*struct (*)Crews" but I have no real idea. I've got normal pointers down and such, but this is a tad over my head... I'd like to access the structures like in the last snippet, but if C++ doesn't like that I could do pointer arithmetic. I've looked into vectors, but I have an unhealthy obsession with efficiency, and it really pains me how you don't know what's going on behind it.

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• Regular expression either/or not matching everything

  - by dwatransit

  I'm trying to parse an HTTP GET request to determine if the url contains any of a number of file types. If it does, I want to capture the entire request. There is something I don't understand about ORing. The following regular expression only captures part of it, and only if .flv is the first int the list of ORd values. (I've obscured the urls with spaces because Stackoverflow limits hyperlinks) regex: GET.?(.flv)|(.mp4)|(.avi).? test text: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy match output: GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv I don't understand why the .*? at the end of the regex isnt callowing it to capture the entire text. If I get rid of the ORing of file types, then it works. Here is the test code in case my explanation doesn't make sense: public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub String sourcestring = "GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy"; Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?\.flv."); // this works //output: // [0][0] = GET http :// foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv?mt=video/xy // the match from the following ends with the ".flv", not the entire url. // also it only works if .flv is the first of the 3 ORd options //Pattern re = Pattern.compile("GET .?(\.flv)|(\.mp4)|(\.avi).?"); // output: //[0][0] = GET http: // foo.server.com/download/0/37/3000016511/.flv // [0][1] = .flv // [0][2] = null // [0][3] = null Matcher m = re.matcher(sourcestring); int mIdx = 0; while (m.find()){ for( int groupIdx = 0; groupIdx < m.groupCount()+1; groupIdx++ ){ System.out.println( "[" + mIdx + "][" + groupIdx + "] = " + m.group(groupIdx)); } mIdx++; } } }

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• Using different numeric variable types

  - by DataPimp

  Im still pretty new so bear with me on this one, my question(s) are not meant to be argumentative or petty but during some reading something struck me as odd. Im under the assumption that when computers were slow and memory was expensive using the correct variable type was much more of a necessity than it is today. Now that memory is a bit easier to come by people seem to have relaxed a bit. For example, you see this sample code everywhere: for (int i = 0; i < length; i++) int? (-2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,648) for length? Isnt byte (0-255) a better choice? So Im curious of your opinion and what you believe to be best practice, I hate to think this would be used only because the acronym "int" is more intuitive for a beginner...or has memory just become so cheap that we really dont need to concern ourselves with such petty things and therefore we should just use long so we can be sure any other numbers/types(within reason) used can be cast automagically? ...or am Im just being silly by concerning myself with such things?

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• Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

  - by Dan

  I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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• C# reflection, cloning

  - by Enriquev

  Say I have this class Myclass that contains this method: public class MyClass { public int MyProperty { get; set; } public int MySecondProperty { get; set; } public MyOtherClass subClass { get; set; } public object clone<T>(object original, T emptyObj) { FieldInfo[] fis = this.GetType().GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic); object tempMyClass = Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T)); foreach (FieldInfo fi in fis) { if (fi.FieldType.Namespace != original.GetType().Namespace) fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, fi.GetValue(original)); else fi.SetValue(tempMyClass, this.clone(fi.GetValue(original), fi.GetValue(original))); } return tempMyClass; } } Then this class: public class MyOtherClass { public int MyProperty777 { get; set; } } when I do this: MyClass a = new MyClass { MyProperty = 1, MySecondProperty = 2, subClass = new MyOtherClass() { MyProperty777 = -1 } }; MyClass b = a.clone(a, a) as MyClass; how come on the second call to clone, T is of type object and not of type MyOtherClass

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• Custom Model Validator for MVC

  - by scottrakes

  I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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• MySQL - optimising selection across two linked tables

  - by user293594

  I have two MySQL tables, states and trans: states (200,000 entries) looks like: id (INT) - also the primary key energy (DOUBLE) [other stuff] trans (14,000,000 entries) looks like: i (INT) - a foreign key referencing states.id j (INT) - a foreign key referencing states.id A (DOUBLE) I'd like to search for all entries in trans with trans.A 30. (say), and then return the energy entries from the (unique) states referenced by each matching entry. So I do it with two intermediate tables: CREATE TABLE ij SELECT i,j FROM trans WHERE A30.; CREATE TABLE temp SELECT DISTINCT i FROM ij UNION SELECT DISTINCT j FROM ij; SELECT energy from states,temp WHERE id=temp.i; This seems to work, but is there any way to do it without the intermediate tables? When I tried to create the temp table with a single command straight from trans: CREATE TABLE temp SELECT DISTINCT i FROM trans WHERE A30. UNION SELECT DISTINCT j FROM trans WHERE A30.; it took a longer (presumably because it had to search the large trans table twice. I'm new to MySQL and I can't seem to find an equivalent problem and answer out there on the interwebs. Many thanks, Christian

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• Modeling objects with multiple table relationships in Zend Framework

  - by andybaird

  I'm toying with Zend Framework and trying to use the "QuickStart" guide against a website I'm making just to see how the process would work. Forgive me if this answer is obvious, hopefully someone experienced can shed some light on this. I have three database tables: CREATE TABLE `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `username` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `first` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `last` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `gender` enum('M','F') default NULL, `birthyear` year(4) default NULL, `postal` varchar(16) default NULL, `auth_method` enum('Default','OpenID','Facebook','Disabled') NOT NULL default 'Default', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `email` (`email`), UNIQUE KEY `username` (`username`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_password` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `password` varchar(16) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_metadata` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `signup_date` datetime default NULL, `signup_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, `last_login_date` datetime default NULL, `last_login_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 I want to create a User model that uses all three tables in certain situations. E.g., the metadata table is accessed if/when the meta data is needed. The user_password table is accessed only if the 'Default' auth_method is set. I'll likely be adding a profile table later on that I would like to be able to access from the user model. What is the best way to do this with ZF and why?

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• Volatile fields in C#

  - by Danny Chen

  From the specification 10.5.3 Volatile fields: The type of a volatile field must be one of the following: A reference-type. The type byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, uint, char, float, bool, System.IntPtr, or System.UIntPtr. An enum-type having an enum base type of byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, or uint. First I want to confirm my understanding is correct: I guess the above types can be volatile because they are stored as a 4-bytes unit in memory(for reference types because of its address), which guarantees the read/write operation is atomic. A double/long/etc type can't be volatile because they are not atomic reading/writing since they are more than 4 bytes in memory. Is my understanding correct? And the second, if the first guess is correct, why a user defined struct with only one int field in it(or something similar, 4 bytes is ok) can't be volatile? Theoretically it's atomic right? Or it's not allowed simply because that all user defined structs(which is possibly more than 4 bytes) are not allowed to volatile by design?

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• ArrayList.Sort should be a stable sort with an IComparer but is not?

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  A stable sort is a sort that maintains the relative ordering of elements with the same value. The docs on ArrayList.Sort say that when an IComparer is provided the sort is stable: If comparer is set to null, this method performs a comparison sort (also called an unstable sort); that is, if two elements are equal, their order might not be preserved. In contrast, a stable sort preserves the order of elements that are equal. To perform a stable sort, you must implement a custom IComparer interface. Unless I'm missing something, the following testcase shows that ArrayList.Sort is not using a stable sort: internal class DisplayOrdered { public int ID { get; set; } public int DisplayOrder { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return string.Format("ID: {0}, DisplayOrder: {1}", ID, DisplayOrder); } } internal class DisplayOrderedComparer : IComparer { public int Compare(object x, object y) { return ((DisplayOrdered)x).DisplayOrder - ((DisplayOrdered)y).DisplayOrder; } } [TestFixture] public class ArrayListStableSortTest { [Test] public void TestWeblinkCallArrayListIsSortedUsingStableSort() { var call1 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 1, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call2 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 2, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call3 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 3, DisplayOrder = 2}; var list = new ArrayList {call1, call2, call3}; list.Sort(new DisplayOrderedComparer()); // expected order (by ID): 1, 2, 3 (because the DisplayOrder // is equal for ID's 1 and 2, their ordering should be // maintained for a stable sort.) Assert.AreEqual(call1, list[0]); // Actual: ID=2 ** FAILS Assert.AreEqual(call2, list[1]); // Actual: ID=1 Assert.AreEqual(call3, list[2]); // Actual: ID=3 } } Am I missing something? If not, would this be a documentation bug or a library bug? Apparently using an OrderBy in Linq gives a stable sort.

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• c incompatible types in assignment, problem with pointers?

  - by Fantastic Fourier

  Hi I'm working with C and I have a question about assigning pointers. struct foo { int _bar; char * _car[MAXINT]; // this is meant to be an array of char * so that it can hold pointers to names of cars } int foofunc (void * arg) { int bar; char * car[MAXINT]; struct foo thing = (struct foo *) arg; bar = arg->_bar; // this works fine car = arg->_car; // this gives compiler errors of incompatible types in assignment } car and _car have same declaration so why am I getting an error about incompatible types? My guess is that it has something to do with them being pointers (because they are pointers to arrays of char *, right?) but I don't see why that is a problem. when i declared char * car; instead of char * car[MAXINT]; it compiles fine. but I don't see how that would be useful to me later when I need to access certain info using index, it would be very annoying to access that info later. in fact, I'm not even sure if I am going about the right way, maybe there is a better way to store a bunch of strings instead of using array of char *?

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• shielding #include within namespace { } block?

  - by Jeff

  Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

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• how to templatize partial template specializations?

  - by Kyle

  I'm not even sure what title to give this question; hopefully the code will demonstrate what I'm trying to do: #include <string> #include <list> using namespace std; template<typename A> class Alpha { public: A m_alpha_a; }; template<typename B> class Bravo { public: B m_bravo_b; }; template<> class Alpha<string> { public: string m_alpha_string; }; template<typename B> template<> class Alpha<Bravo<B> > { public: Bravo<B> m_bravo_class; // Line A }; int main() { Alpha<int> alpha_int; alpha_int.m_alpha_a= 4; Alpha<string> alpha_string; alpha_string.m_alpha_string = "hi"; Alpha<Bravo<int> > alpha_bravo_int; alpha_bravo_int.m_bravo_class.m_bravo_b = 9; }; I want to write a specialization for Alpha<A> when A is of any type Bravo<B>, but the compiler says invalid explicit specialization before ‘’ token enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized (Referring to // Line A.) What's the correct syntax to do what I want?

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• Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

  - by Akusete

  Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

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• Foreign key not working in MySQL: Why can I INSERT a value that's not in the foreign column?

  - by stalepretzel

  I've created a table in MySQL: CREATE TABLE actions ( A_id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, type ENUM('rate','report','submit','edit','delete') NOT NULL, Q_id int NOT NULL, U_id int NOT NULL, date DATE NOT NULL, time TIME NOT NULL, rate tinyint(1), PRIMARY KEY (A_id), CONSTRAINT fk_Question FOREIGN KEY (Q_id) REFERENCES questions(P_id), CONSTRAINT fk_User FOREIGN KEY (U_id) REFERENCES users(P_id)); This created the table I wanted just fine (although a "DESCRIBE actions;" command showed me that the foreign keys were keys of type MUL, and I'm not sure what this means). However, when I try to enter a Q_id or a U_id that does not exist in the questions or users tables, MySQL still allows these values. What did I do wrong? How can I prevent a table with a foreign key from accepting invalid data? If I add TYPE=InnoDB to the end, I get an error: ERROR 1005 (HY000): Can't create table './quotes/actions.frm' (errno: 150) Why might that happen? I'm told that it's important to enforce data integrity with functional foreign keys, but also that InnoDB should not be used with MySQL. What do you recommend?

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• paging helper asp.net mvc

  - by csetzkorn

  Hi, I have implemented a paging html helper (adapted from steven sanderson's book). This is the current code: public static string PageLinks(this HtmlHelper html, int currentPage, int totalPages, Func pageUrl) { StringBuilder result = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 1; i <= totalPages; i++) { TagBuilder tag = new TagBuilder("a"); tag.MergeAttribute("href", pageUrl(i)); tag.InnerHtml = i.ToString(); if (i == currentPage) tag.AddCssClass("selectedPage"); result.AppendLine(tag.ToString()); } return result.ToString(); } This produces a bunch of links to each page of my items. If there are many pages this can be a bit overwhelming. I am looking for a similar implementation which produces something less overwhelming like this: where 6 is the current page. I am sure someone must have implemented something similar ... before I have to re-implement the wheel. Thanks. Christian

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• Extracting a .app from a zip file in Python, using ZipFile

  - by Yakattak

  I'm trying to extract new revisions of Chromium.app from their snapshots, and I can download the file fine, but when it comes to extracting it, ZipFile either extracts the chrome-mac folder within as a file, says that directories don't exist, etc. I am very new to python, so these errors make little sense to me. Here is what I have so far. import urllib2 response = urllib2.urlopen('http://build.chromium.org/buildbot/snapshots/chromium-rel-mac/LATEST') latestRev = response.read() print latestRev # we have the revision, now we need to download the zip and extract it latestZip = urllib2.urlopen('http://build.chromium.org/buildbot/snapshots/chromium-rel-mac/%i/chrome-mac.zip' % (int(latestRev)), '~/Desktop/ChromiumUpdate/%i-update' % (int(latestRev))) #declare some vars that hold paths n shit workingDir = '/Users/slehan/Desktop/ChromiumUpdate/' chromiumZipPath = '%s%i-update.zip' % (workingDir, (int(latestRev))) chromiumAppPath = 'chrome-mac/' #the path of the chromium executable within the zip file chromiumAppExtracted = '%s/Chromium.app' % (workingDir) # path of the extracted executable output = open(chromiumZipPath, 'w') #delete any current file there output.write(latestZip.read()) output.close() # we have the .zip now we need to extract the Chromium.app file, it's in ziproot/chrome-mac/Chromium.app import zipfile, os zippedFile = open(chromiumZipPath) zippedChromium = zipfile.ZipFile(zippedFile, 'r') zippedChromium.extract(chromiumAppPath, workingDir) #print zippedChromium.namelist() zippedChromium.close() #zippedChromium.close() Any ideas?

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• How can I map stored procedure result into a custom class with linq-to-sql?

  - by Remnant

  I have a stored procedure that returns a result set (4 columns x n Rows). The data is based on multiple tables within my database and provides a summary for each department within a corporate. Here is sample: usp_GetDepartmentSummary DeptName EmployeeCount Male Female HR 12 5 7 etc... I am using linq-to-sql to retrieve data from my database (nb - have to use sproc as it is something I have inherited). I would like to call the above sproc and map into a department class: public class Department { public string DeptName {get; set;} public int EmployeeCount {get; set;} public int MaleCount {get; set;} public int FemaleCount {get; set;} } In VS2008, I can drag and drop my sproc onto the methods pane of the linq-to-sql designer. When I examine the designer.cs the return type for this sproc is defined as: ISingleResult<usp_GetDepartmentSummaryResult> What I would like to do is amend this somehow so that it returns a Department type so that I can pass the results of the sproc as a strongly typed view: <% foreach (var dept in Model) { %> <ul> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.DeptName %></li> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.EmployeeCount %></li> etc... Any ideas how to achieve this? NB - I have tried amending the designer.cs and dbml xml file directly but with limited success. I admit to being a little out of my depth when it comes to updating those files directly and I am not sure it is best practice? Would be good to get some diretion. Thanks much

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• How to return all records and whether a related record exists?

  - by David Glenn

  Using Entity Framework 4 CTP5 I have a basic model and a basic DbContext that works public class Customer { public int CustomerId { get; set; } public int Name { get; set; } //... public ICollection<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public bool HasAddress { get { return Addresses.Count > 0; } } } public class Address { public int AddressId { get; set; } public string StreetLine1 { get; set; } //.... public Customer Customer { get; set; } } How can I query my DbContext to return all customers and whether they have an address? A customer can have multiple addresses and I don't want to return all the addresses for each customer when I am only interested in whether they have an address or not. I use context.Customers.Include(c => c.Addresses) but that returns all addresses for each customer

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• Send Click Message to another application process

  - by Nazar

  Hi Guys I have a scenario, i need to send click events to an independent application. I started that application with the following code. private Process app; app = new Process(); app.StartInfo.FileName = app_path; app.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = dir_path; app.Start(); Now i want to send Mouse click message to that applicaiton, I have specific coordinates in relative to application window. How can i do it using Windows Messaging or any other technique. I used [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern void mouse_event(UInt32 dwFlags, UInt32 dx, UInt32 dy, UInt32 dwData, IntPtr dwExtraInfo); It works well but cause the pointer to move as well. So not fit for my need. Then i use. [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, int lParam); It works well for minimize maximize, but do not work for mouse events. The codes for mousevents i am using are, WM_LBUTTONDOWN = 0x201, //Left mousebutton down WM_LBUTTONUP = 0x202, //Left mousebutton up WM_LBUTTONDBLCLK = 0x203, //Left mousebutton doubleclick WM_RBUTTONDOWN = 0x204, //Right mousebutton down WM_RBUTTONUP = 0x205, //Right mousebutton up WM_RBUTTONDBLCLK = 0x206, //Right mousebutton do Thanks for the help in advance, and waiting for feedback.

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• How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

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• C++ Beginner Delete Question

  - by Pooch

  Hi all, This is my first year learning C++ so bear with me. I am attempting to dynamically allocate memory to the heap and then delete the allocated memory. Below is the code that is giving me a hard time: // String.cpp #include "String.h" String::String() {} String::String(char* source) { this->Size = this->GetSize(source); this->CharArray = new char[this->Size + 1]; int i = 0; for (; i < this->Size; i++) this->CharArray[i] = source[i]; this->CharArray[i] = '\0'; } int String::GetSize(const char * source) { int i = 0; for (; source[i] != '\0'; i++); return i; } String::~String() { delete[] this->CharArray; } Here is the error I get when the compiler tries to delete the CharArray: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xccccccc0. And here is the last call on the stack: msvcr100d.dll!operator delete(void * pUserData) Line 52 + 0x3 bytes C++ I am fairly certain the error exists within this piece of code but will provide you with any other information needed. Oh yeah, using VS 2010 for XP. Thanks for any and all help!

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