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  • Error in jquery attribute selector and IE6-7

    - by Guillermo Vasconcelos
    Hi, I'm trying to implement a JQuery script to process some areas inside an image map. I'm using $('area[shape="poly"]') as a selector to obtain the areas I'm interested in. It is working fine in IE8 and Firefox, but it is not selecting the elements in IE6 or IE7. This is a test page that shows this problem. I don't know if this is a JQuery bug or I am doing something wrong. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $(document).ready(function() { var areas = $('area[shape="poly"]'); alert('areas: ' + areas.length); }); //]]> </script> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <img id="img1" src="nothing.gif" style="width:300px; height:300px; border: 2px solid black" usemap="#map1"/> <map id="map1"> <area shape="rect" title="rectArea" coords="126,112,231,217" alt=""/> <area shape="poly" title="polyArea1" coords="274,72,262,70,251,68,240,67,228,66,217,67,206,68,194,70,183,72,181,63,192,60,204,58,216,57,228,56,240,57,252,58,264,60,276,63" alt=""/> <area shape="poly" title="polyArea2" coords="241,194,235,193,228,193,222,193,216,194,196,119,204,117,212,116,220,115,228,115,237,115,245,116,253,117,261,119" alt=""/> </map> </body> </html> This is showing 2 in IE8 and Firefox and 0 in IE6-7 Thanks, Guillermo

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  • Lazy loading Javascript, object not created from IE8 cache

    - by doum-ti-di-li-doom
    Unfortunately the bug does not happen outside of my application! Scenario index.php <?php header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); header('Last-Modified: '.gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s').'GMT'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); header('Pragma: no-cache'); ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Lazy loader</title> </head> <body> ... <script type="text/javascript" src="internal.js"></script> ... </body> </html> internal.js myApp = { timerHitIt: false, hitIt: function () { if (arguments.callee.done) { return; } arguments.callee.done = true; if (myApp.timerHitIt) { clearInterval(myApp.timerHitIt); } var elt = document.createElement("script"); elt.async = true; elt.type = "text/javascript"; elt.src = "external.js"; elt.onload = elt.onreadystatechange = function () { alert(typeof(something)); } document.body.appendChild(elt); } } if (document.addEventListener) { document.addEventListener("DOMContentLoaded", myApp.hitIt, false); } /*@cc_on @*/ /*@if (@_win32) document.write("<script id=__ie_onload defer src="+((location.protocol == "https:") ? "//:" : "javascript:void(0)")+"><\/script>"); document.getElementById("__ie_onload").onreadystatechange = function () { if (this.readyState == "complete") { myApp.hitIt(); } }; /*@end @*/ if (/WebKit/i.test(navigator.userAgent)) { timerHitIt = setInterval(function () { if (/loaded|complete/.test(document.readyState)) { myApp.hitIt(); } }, 10); } window.onload = myApp.hitIt; external.js something = {}; alert(true); Valid results are undefined - true - object (± new request) true - object (± cached javascript) But sometimes, when hitting F5, I get true - undefined Does anyone have a clue why alert(true) is executed but something is not set?

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  • Replace a div content with PHP

    - by Zakaria
    hi everybody, yesterday, I posted a question about "Hom to change a DIV id with a php function" and someone found the right answer with a regular expression. The problem is that I wanted to use this answer to aplly the method on other same problems. But, as I'm very bad at regular expressions, I couldn't. So the problem is that I upload some videos with FCKEditor and put the video script in my database and the result is like that: <div id="player959093-parent" style="text-align: center;float: left;"> <div style="border-style: none; height: 160px; width: 270px; overflow: hidden; background-color: rgb(220, 220, 220); background-image: url(http://localhost/fckeditor/editor/plugins/flvPlayer/flvPlayer.gif); background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center;"><script src="http://localhost/fckeditor/editor/plugins/flvPlayer/swfobject.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div id="player959093"><a href="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">Get the Flash Player</a> to see this player. <div id="player959093-config" style="display: none;visibility: hidden;width: 0px;height:0px;overflow: hidden;">url=/editeur/images/flash/FOO.flv width=270 height=160 loop=false play=false downloadable=false fullscreen=true displayNavigation=true displayDigits=true align=left dispPlaylist=none playlistThumbs=false</div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var s1 = new SWFObject("http://localhost/editeur/javascript/fckeditor/editor/plugins/flvPlayer/mediaplayer.swf","single","270","160","7"); s1.addVariable("width","270"); s1.addVariable("height","160"); s1.addVariable("autostart","false"); s1.addVariable("file","/editeur/images/flash/FOO.flv"); s1.addVariable("repeat","false"); s1.addVariable("image",""); s1.addVariable("showdownload","false"); s1.addVariable("link","/editeur/images/flash/FOO.flv"); s1.addParam("allowfullscreen","true"); s1.addVariable("showdigits","true"); s1.addVariable("shownavigation","true"); s1.addVariable("logo",""); s1.write("player959093"); </script></div> </div> When I echo this content once in my PHP page, It works great. More than once, the videos doesn't appear. Which is obvious because of the unique ID. As you can see, the content has these ids: div id="player959093-parent" div id="player959093" div id="player959093-config s1.write("player959093"); So my question is: Is there a function that can replace the string "player959093" or concatenate it with some other string to resolve the display problem? Thank you very much, Regards.

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  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • Trying to create an infinite for loop that can stop using function doIt()

    - by JoeOzz
    Hey guys, I'm new to javascript and I'm doing a project for my final in class. I need to make it so this game engine I manipulated causes the generation button to go for an infinite loop. I also need to stop it using (Reset==1). Any help? Here's the code I have so far if that helps: function generation() { for(y2=0; y2<2500; y2++) { tempmapactual[y2]=mapactual[y2]; } for (g=0;g<2500;g++) { neighbours=0; for (h=0;h<8;h++) { if (g+coords[h]>0 && g+coords[h]<2499 && mapactual[g+coords[h]]=="white.gif") {neighbours=neighbours+1;} } if (neighbours>=4 || neighbours==1 || neighbours==0) {tempmapactual[g]="black.gif";} if (neighbours==3) {tempmapactual[g]="white.gif";} } for(y3=0; y3<2500; ++y3) { if (mapactual[y3]!=tempmapactual[y3]) { mapactual[y3]=tempmapactual[y3]; document.images[y3+offset].src=mapactual[y3]; } } } </script> <script> function doIt() { for (i=0; i<X; i++) { // This is where I have trouble. What part of generation() do I call? } if (Reset==1) break; // This will kill the loop instantly. } } </script> <script> window.onload(doIt($(X).value))); </script> <form> <input type="button" value="generate" onClick="generation();"> </form> <form> <input type="text"> </form> <form> <input type="button" value="Infinite Loop!" onclick="doIt();"> </form> <form> <input type="button" value="Reset" onclick="doIt();"> </form>

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  • How to Load Dependent Files on Demand + Check if They're Loaded or Not?

    - by br4inwash3r
    I'm trying to implement an assets/dependency loader that i've found from an old article at 24Ways.org. most of you might be familiar with it. it's from this article by Christian Heilmann: http://24ways.org/2007/keeping-javascript-dependencies-at-bay i've modified the script to load CSS files as well. and it's now quite close to what i want. but i still need to do some checking to see wether an asset have been completely loaded or not. just wondering if you guys have any ideas :) here's what my script currently looked like: var assetLoader = { assets: { products: { js: 'products.js', css: 'products.css', loaded: false }, articles: { js: 'articles.js', css: 'articles.css', loaded: false }, [...] cycle: { js: 'jquery.cycle.min.js', loaded: false }, swfobject: { js: 'jquery.swfobject.min.js', loaded: false } }, add: function(asset) { var comp = assetLoader.assets[asset]; var path = '/path/to/assets/'; if (comp && comp.loaded == false) { if (comp.js) { // load js var js = document.createElement('script'); js.src = path + 'js/' + comp.js; js.type = 'text/javascript'; js.charset = 'utf-8'; // append to document document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(js); } if (comp.css) { // load css var css = document.createElement('link'); css.rel = 'stylesheet'; css.href = path + 'css/' + comp.css; css.type = 'text/css'; css.media = 'screen, projection'; css.charset = 'utf-8'; // append to document document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(css); } } }, check: function(asset) { assetLoader.assets[asset].loaded = true; } } Christian explains this method in his article in great detail. I don't want to confuse you guys anymore with my bad english :P and here's an example of how i run the script: ... // load jquery cycle plugin if (page=='tvc' || page=='products') { if (!assetLoader.assets.cycle.loaded) { assetLoader.add('cycle'); } } // load products page assets if (!assetLoader.assets.products.loaded) { assetLoader.add('products'); } ... this kind of approach is very problematic though. coz assets loads asynchronously, which means some of the code inside products.js that depends on jquery.cycle.js might continue running before jquery.cycle.js is even loaded resulting in errors. while i'm quite aware that scripts can be attached with an onload event, i'm just not really sure how to implement it to my script. anyone care to help me? please... :P

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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • JavaScript code inside UpdatePanel

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an UpdatePanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); } You'll see that the button does not poput the alert message, even though the code is present on the page.

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  • how to use window.onload?

    - by Patrick
    I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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  • Setting background-image with javascript

    - by Mattoe3k
    In chrome, safari, and opera setting the background image to an absolute reference such as: "/images/image.png" changes it to "http://sitepath/images/image.png". It does not do this in firefox. Is there any way to avoid this behavior, or is it written into the browser's javascript engine? Using jquery to set the background-image also does this problem. The problem is that I am posting the HTML to a php script that needs the urls in this specific format. I know that setting the image path relative fixes this, but I can't do that. The only other alternative would be to use a regexp. to convert the urls. Thanks. Test this in firefox, and chrome / webkit browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div style="height:400px;width:400px;background-image:url(/images/images/logo.gif);"> </div> <br /> <br /> <div id="test" style="height:400px;width:400px;"> </div> <script type="text/javascript" src="/javascripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#test").css('background-image',"url(/images/images/logo.gif)"); alert(document.getElementById('test').style.backgroundImage); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • jQuery doesn't work in <head>?!

    - by Hanz
    This code is supposed to make a slideshow out of stacked list-elements (I commented out the CSS so I can see what's going on) by fading out the topmost elements until only the first one is visible, then fade in the topmost element and the rest and start anew. If I put the script below my content inside the <body> and throw out the $(function() { it works perfectly fine, but in the <head> nothing happens. I wrote this yesterday and today I still can't see the mistake, so I'm posting it here. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title></title> <style type="text/css"> ul { position: relative; } ul li { /*position: absolute; left: 0; top: 0;*/ } </style> <script src="jquery-1.5.1.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var i = 0; var count = $('ul li').size(); function fade() { if (i < count-1) { $('ul li:nth-child('+(count-i)+')').fadeOut(300); i++; } else { $('ul li:nth-child('+count+')').fadeIn(300, function(){$('ul li').show();}); i = 0; } } $('button').click(function() { setInterval('fade()', 1000); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <button>Slideshow GO!</button> <ul id="slider"> <li><img src="1.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="2.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="3.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="4.jpg" /></li> </ul> </body> </html> Thanks

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  • jQuery animate slidding background image using mouse position wont stop... just keeps going

    - by simian
    I have a neat little jQuery script I am working on. Goal: parent div with overflow hidden holds a larger div with image. When I move the mouse to the left or right of the parent div, the div with image changes margin-left to move left or right. Problem is... if I move the mouse out of the parent div (left or right), the image keeps going. I need the image to stop when the mouse is not on the inside left or right edge of the parent div. Any ideas? <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ jQuery.noConflict (); jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery('#container').mousemove(function(e){ var parentWidth = jQuery('#container').width(); var parentWidthLeft = Math.round(.1 * jQuery('#container').width()); var parentWidthRight = Math.round(jQuery('#container').width() - parentWidthLeft); var parentHeight = jQuery('#container').height(); var parentOffset = jQuery('#container').offset(); var X = Math.round(e.pageX - parentOffset.left); var Y = Math.round(e.pageY - parentOffset.top); if (X<parentWidthLeft) { jQuery('#image').animate({'left': '-' + parentWidth }, 5000); } if (X>parentWidthRight) { jQuery('#image').animate({'left': parentWidth }, 5000); } if (X<=parentWidthRight && X>=parentWidthLeft) { jQuery('#image').stop(); } if (X<1) { jQuery('#image').stop(); } }); jQuery('#container').mouseleave(function(){ jQuery('#image').stop(); }); }); // ]]> </script> </head> <body> <div id="container" style="width: 500px; height: 500px; overflow: hidden; border: 10px solid #000; position: relative; margin: auto auto;"> <div id="image" style="position: absolute; left: 0; top: 0;"><img src="http://dump4free.com/imgdump/1/Carmen-Electra_1wallpaper1024x768.jpg" alt="" /></div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • What should I learn & use to become a pro in PHP & Python Web development?

    - by pecker
    Hello, I'll just show some code to show how I do web development in PHP. <html> <head> <title>Example #3 TDavid's Very First PHP Script ever!</title> </head> <? print(Date("m/j/y")); require_once("somefile.php"); $mysql_db = "DATABASE NAME"; $mysql_user = "YOUR MYSQL USERNAME"; $mysql_pass = "YOUR MYSQL PASSWORD"; $mysql_link = mysql_connect("localhost", $mysql_user, $mysql_pass); mysql_select_db($mysql_db, $mysql_link); $result = mysql_query("SELECT impressions from tds_counter where COUNT_ID='$cid'", $mysql_link); if(mysql_num_rows($result)) { mysql_query("UPDATE tds_counter set impressions=impressions+1 where COUNT_ID='$cid'", $mysql_link); $row = mysql_fetch_row($result); if(!$inv) { print("$row[0]"); } } ?> <body> </body> </html> Thats it. I write every file like this. Recently, I learnt OOP and started using classes & objects in PHP. I hear that there are many frameworks there for PHP. They say that one must use these libraries. But I feel they are just making things complicated. Anyway, this is how I've been doing my web development. Now, I want to improve this. and make it professional. Also I want to move to Python. I searched SO archives and found everyone suggesting Django. But, can any one give me some idea about how web development in Python works? user (client) request for page --- webserver(-embedded PHP interpreter) ---- Server side(PHP) Script --- MySQL Server. Now, is it that instead of PHP interpreter there is python interpreter & instead of php script there is python script, which contains both HTML & python (embedded in some kind of python tags). Python script connects to database server and fetches some data which will be printed as HTML. or is it different in python world? Is this Django thing like frameworks for PHP? Can't one code in python without using Django. Because, I never encountered any post without django Please give me some kick start.

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  • PHP_AUTH_USER only known in certain frames

    - by Rob
    Getting very confused by PHP_AUTH_USER. Within my web pages I have .htaccess files in every directory, controlling who can (and cant) see certain folders. In order to further customise the pages I was hoping to use PHP_AUTH_USER within the PHP code, i.e. tailor page contents based on the user. This only seems to work partially. The code snippets below hopefully demonstrate my problems. The main index.php creates a framed page with a menu structure in the top left hand corners, some irrelvant stuff in top right and then the tailor made contents in bottom frame. In top left the user is correctly shown, but in the bottom frame PHP_AUTH_USER doesnt seem to be set anymore (it returns empty and when printing all $HTTP_SERVER_VARS its not listed). Script.php is in a different path, but they all have .htaccess files in them and all other contents is displayed correctly. Why does it not know about PHP_AUTH_USER there? Running version php version 5.2.12 on chrome. index.php <FRAMESET ROWS="35%, *"> <FRAMESET COLS="25%, *"> <FRAME SRC="Menu.php"> <FRAME SRC="Something.php"> </FRAMESET> <FRAME SRC="../OtherPath/Script.php?large=1" name="outputlisting"> </FRAMESET> </FRAMESET> Menu.php <ul> <li>Reporting <ul> <li>Link1 <a href="../OtherPath/Script.php" target="outputlisting">All</a>, <a href="../OtherPath/Script.php?large=1" target="outputlisting">Big</a> </ul> <?php echo 'IP Address: ' . $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'] . '<br />'; echo 'User: ' . $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; ?> Script.php <?php echo 'User: ' . $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; ?>

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  • Chrome is creating duplicate sessions with the same id

    - by dlwiest
    I encountered an issue while I was revising my session library today, and this might be the first time I've ever seen a browser-specific problem on a back end script. I hope somebody can shed some light. Basically how the session library works is: when instantiated, it checks for a cookie called 'id' (in the form of a uniqid result) on the client machine. If a cookie is found, the script checks that and a hashed copy of the user agent string against entries in a session table. If a matching entry is found, the script resumes the session. If no cookie named 'id' is found, or if no matching entry exists in the sessions table, the script creates both. Fairly standard, I think. Now here's the weird part: in Firefox, everything works as predicted. The user gets one session, which he'll always resume upon connection, as long as 24 hours of inactivity has not elapsed. But when I visit the page in Chrome, even though it looks the same and appears to be executing queries in the same order, I see two entries in the session table. The sessions share an agent string, but the ids are different, and timestamp logs indicate that the ghost session is being created shortly (within a second) after the one created for the user. For debugging purposes, I've been printing queries to the screen as they're executed, and this is an example of what I'm seeing when Chrome should be opening one session and is somehow opening two instead: // Attempting to resume a session SELECT id FROM sessions WHERE id = '4fd24a5cd8df12.62439982' AND agent = '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca' // No result, so it creates a new one INSERT INTO sessions (id, agent, start, last) VALUES ('4fd24ef0347f26.72354606', '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca', '1339182832', '1339182832') // Clear old sessions DELETE FROM sessions WHERE last < 1339096432 And here's what I'm seeing in the database afterward: id, agent, start, last 4fd24ef0347f26.72354606, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182832, 1339182832 4fd24ef0857f94.72251285, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182833, 1339182833 Am I missing something obvious? The only thing I can think of is that Chrome might be creating a hidden session in the background, possibly to crawl the page. If that's the case though, it could become a problem later, when I begin associating active sessions with entries in the users table. I've been looking for possible bugs in my script, but I haven't found anything so far, and everything works as expected in Firefox.

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  • Using Rich Text Editor (WYSIWYG) in ASP.NET MVC

    - by imran_ku07
       Introduction:          In ASP.NET MVC forum I found some question regarding a sample HTML Rich Text Box Editor(also known as wysiwyg).So i decided to create a sample ASP.NET MVC web application which will use a Rich Text Box Editor. There are are lot of Html Editors are available, but for creating a sample application, i decided to use cross-browser WYSIWYG editor from openwebware. In this article I will discuss what changes needed to work this editor with ASP.NET MVC. Also I had attached the sample application for download at http://www.speedfile.org/155076. Also note that I will only show the important features, not discuss every feature in detail.   Description:          So Let's start create a sample ASP.NET MVC application. You need to add the following script files,         jquery-1.3.2.min.js        jquery_form.js        wysiwyg.js        wysiwyg-settings.js        wysiwyg-popup.js          Just put these files inside Scripts folder. Also put wysiwyg.css in your Content Folder and add the following folders in your project        addons        popups          Also create a empty folder Uploads to store the uploaded images. Next open wysiwyg.js and set your configuration                  // Images Directory        this.ImagesDir = "/addons/imagelibrary/images/";                // Popups Directory        this.PopupsDir = "/popups/";                // CSS Directory File        this.CSSFile = "/Content/wysiwyg.css";              Next create a simple View TextEditor.aspx inside View / Home Folder and add the folllowing HTML.        <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %>            <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd">        <html >            <head runat="server">                <title>TextEditor</title>                <script src="../../Scripts/wysiwyg.js" type="text/javascript"></script>                <script src="../../Scripts/wysiwyg-settings.js" type="text/javascript"></script>                <script type="text/javascript">                            WYSIWYG.attach('text', full);                            </script>            </head>            <body>                <% using (Html.BeginForm()){ %>                    <textarea id="text" name="test2" style="width:850px;height:200px;">                    </textarea>                    <input type="submit" value="submit" />                <%} %>            </body>        </html>                  Here i have just added a text area control and a submit button inside a form. Note the id of text area and WYSIWYG.attach function's first parameter is same and next to watch is the HomeController.cs        using System;        using System.Collections.Generic;        using System.Linq;        using System.Web;        using System.Web.Mvc;        using System.IO;        namespace HtmlTextEditor.Controllers        {            [HandleError]            public class HomeController : Controller            {                public ActionResult Index()                {                    ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!";                    return View();                }                    public ActionResult About()                {                                return View();                }                        public ActionResult TextEditor()                {                    return View();                }                [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)]                [ValidateInput(false)]                public ActionResult TextEditor(string test2)                {                    Session["html"] = test2;                            return RedirectToAction("Index");                }                        public ActionResult UploadImage()                {                    if (Request.Files[0].FileName != "")                    {                        Request.Files[0].SaveAs(Server.MapPath("~/Uploads/" + Path.GetFileName(Request.Files[0].FileName)));                        return Content(Url.Content("~/Uploads/" + Path.GetFileName(Request.Files[0].FileName)));                    }                    return Content("a");                }            }        }          So simple code, just save the posted Html into Session. Here the parameter of TextArea action is test2 which is same as textarea control name of TextArea.aspx View. Also note ValidateInputAttribute is false, so it's up to you to defends against XSS. Also there is an Action method which simply saves the file inside Upload Folder.          I am uploading the file using Jquery Form Plugin. Here is the code which is found in insert_image.html inside addons folder,        function ChangeImage() {            var myform=document.getElementById("formUpload");                    $(myform).ajaxSubmit({success: function(responseText){                insertImage(responseText);                        window.close();                }            });        }          and here is the Index View which simply renders the html of Editor which was saved in Session        <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %>        <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server">            Home Page        </asp:Content>        <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server">            <h2><%= Html.Encode(ViewData["Message"]) %></h2>            <p>                To learn more about ASP.NET MVC visit <a href="http://asp.net/mvc" title="ASP.NET MVC Website">http://asp.net/mvc</a>.            </p>            <%if (Session["html"] != null){                  Response.Write(Session["html"].ToString());            } %>                    </asp:Content>   Summary:          Hopefully you will enjoy this article. Just download the code and see the effect. From security point, you must handle the XSS attack your self. I had uploaded the sample application in http://www.speedfile.org/155076

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  • Cisco ASA 5505 allowing inbound ICMPv6

    - by Astron
    I am trying to allow inbound unsolicited ICMPv6 requests from an external link-local address to my outside (external) interfaces link-local address. I can ping (echo-request) the external address and receive a pong (echo-reply) but ICMPv6 messages initiated on the far side are dropped. I am running 9.0(1) in order to use some of the newer features. Does the Cisco ASA not allow unsolicited inbound requests from a link-local address? Should it matter if all ICMPv6 is allowed? Statements being denied: %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=129, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=131, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=131, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=136, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=136, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside %ASA-3-313008: Denied IPv6-ICMP type=136, code=0 from fe80::XXXX:XXXX:XXXX:XXXX on interface outside I created both an inbound ACL and ICMP permit statements: access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any any access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any any membership-report access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any any membership-report 0 access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any any echo-reply 0 access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any any echo-reply access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any interface outside membership-report access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any interface outside membership-report 0 access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any6 any6 echo-reply access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any6 any6 membership-report access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any6 any6 echo-reply 0 access-list OUTSIDE-IN extended permit icmp6 any6 any6 membership-report 0 snip access-group OUTSIDE-IN in interface outside ipv6 icmp permit any inside ipv6 icmp permit any membership-report outside ipv6 icmp permit any echo-reply outside ipv6 icmp permit any router-advertisement outside ipv6 icmp permit any neighbor-solicitation outside ipv6 icmp permit any neighbor-advertisement outside ipv6 icmp permit any outside

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  • /etc/rc.local not being run on Ubuntu Desktop Install

    - by loosecannon
    I have been trying to get sphinx to run at boot, so I added some lines to /etc/rc.local but nothing happens when I start up. If i run it manually it works however. /etc/init.d/rc.local start works fine as does /etc/rc.local It's listed in the default runlevel and is all executable but it does not work. I am considering writing a separate init.d script to do the same thing but that's a lot of work for a simple task dumbledore:/etc/init.d# ls -l rc* -rwxr-xr-x 1 root root 8863 2009-09-07 13:58 rc -rwxr-xr-x 1 root root 801 2009-09-07 13:58 rc.local -rwxr-xr-x 1 root root 117 2009-09-07 13:58 rcS dumbledore:/etc/init.d# ls /etc/rc.local -l -rwxr-xr-x 1 root root 491 2011-05-14 16:13 /etc/rc.local dumbledore:/etc/init.d# runlevel N 2 dumbledore:/etc/init.d# ls /etc/rc2.d/ -l total 4 lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-04-22 18:53 K08vmware -> /etc/init.d/vmware -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 677 2011-03-28 15:10 README lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-04-22 18:53 S19vmware -> /etc/init.d/vmware lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-05-15 14:09 S20ddclient -> ../init.d/ddclient lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 20 2011-03-10 18:00 S20fancontrol -> ../init.d/fancontrol lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 20 2011-03-10 18:00 S20kerneloops -> ../init.d/kerneloops lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 27 2011-03-10 18:00 S20speech-dispatcher -> ../init.d/speech-dispatcher lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 19 2011-03-10 18:00 S25bluetooth -> ../init.d/bluetooth lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 20 2011-03-10 18:00 S50pulseaudio -> ../init.d/pulseaudio lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 15 2011-03-10 18:00 S50rsync -> ../init.d/rsync lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 15 2011-03-10 18:00 S50saned -> ../init.d/saned lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 19 2011-03-10 18:00 S70dns-clean -> ../init.d/dns-clean lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-03-10 18:00 S70pppd-dns -> ../init.d/pppd-dns lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 14 2011-05-07 11:22 S75sudo -> ../init.d/sudo lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 24 2011-03-10 18:00 S90binfmt-support -> ../init.d/binfmt-support lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 17 2011-05-12 21:18 S91apache2 -> ../init.d/apache2 lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 22 2011-03-10 18:00 S99acpi-support -> ../init.d/acpi-support lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 21 2011-03-10 18:00 S99grub-common -> ../init.d/grub-common lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-03-10 18:00 S99ondemand -> ../init.d/ondemand lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 18 2011-03-10 18:00 S99rc.local -> ../init.d/rc.local dumbledore:/etc/init.d# cat /etc/rc.local #!/bin/sh -e # # rc.local # # This script is executed at the end of each multiuser runlevel. # Make sure that the script will "exit 0" on success or any other # value on error. # # In order to enable or disable this script just change the execution # bits. # # By default this script does nothing. # Start sphinx daemon for rails app on startup # Added 2011-05-13 # Cannon Matthews cd /var/www/extemp /usr/bin/rake ts:config /usr/bin/rake ts:start touch ./tmp/ohyeah cd - exit 0 dumbledore:/etc/init.d# cat /etc/init.d/rc.local #! /bin/sh ### BEGIN INIT INFO # Provides: rc.local # Required-Start: $remote_fs $syslog $all # Required-Stop: # Default-Start: 2 3 4 5 # Default-Stop: # Short-Description: Run /etc/rc.local if it exist ### END INIT INFO PATH=/sbin:/usr/sbin:/bin:/usr/bin . /lib/init/vars.sh . /lib/lsb/init-functions do_start() { if [ -x /etc/rc.local ]; then [ "$VERBOSE" != no ] && log_begin_msg "Running local boot scripts (/etc/rc.local)" /etc/rc.local ES=$? [ "$VERBOSE" != no ] && log_end_msg $ES return $ES fi } case "$1" in start) do_start ;; restart|reload|force-reload) echo "Error: argument '$1' not supported" >&2 exit 3 ;; stop) ;; *) echo "Usage: $0 start|stop" >&2 exit 3 ;; esac

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  • Zimbra MTA settings

    - by user192702
    Hi have some questions for Zimbra v8.0.6GA. Under Configure - MTA - Network, I'm seeing a few settings and am not very clear what to do with them. Web mail MTA Host name Is this for delivering local mail only (ie not for external mails)? According to this link, it says the following. That's a mouthful but what is "composed messages"? Is this for a multi server deployment where the Postfix server for Zimbra isn't installed on the same box that as the rest of the servers? Webmail MTA is used by the Zimbra server for composed messages and must be the location of the Postfix server in the Zimbra MTA. Relay MTA for external delivery My understanding after reading the doc is that if my ISP doesn't force me to relay outgoing mails through them, and I have enabled DNS lookup, I can leave this blank? Inbound SMTP host name Sorry I know this is explained as "If your MX records point to a spam-relay or any other external non-Zimbra server, enter the name of that server in the Inbound SMTP host name field." but I'm not following. Can someone provide an example? MTA Trusted Networks The admin doc says "To set up MTA trusted networks on a per server basis, make sure that MTA trusted networks have been set up as global settings and then go the Configure Servers MTA page and in the MTA Trusted Networks field enter the trusted network addresses for the server." However I see out of the box it has default networks setup for the server whereas on a global level it's blank. Does this mean there is a bug with the install software and I have to copy the setting from the server to the global setting?

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  • wget mirroring, subdomains and directories and cookies

    - by Jimmu
    Hi all, I have an account on a web page that is now "full" (ie I have used up all my allocated space) and I would like to make a mirror of that site. wget seems like the thing to use. The problem is that I would only like to mirror the sites the lie within this directory http://user.domain.com/room/2324343/transcript/ (and sub-directories). Whilst saving the correct stylesheets, javascripts and css etc which exist in different directories. There as also uploaded files that are linked to within the pages in the transcript directory (on different directories) that I would like to download/mirror (theses are in a variatey of formats .exe, .py, .png, .app (and many more)). There are also images that are on different severs that are on these pages. Also I would like it if the links (which are sometimes relative , sometimes absoulute (but to internal things), sometimes external ) worked correctly so that if they link to things that have been downloaded(mirrored) they work fine (without internet connection), but if they link to things that are external or havent been mirrored they link to the external site. Basically so they work as expected. Another problem is that you have to log in to acess the site. Can wget be used to acomplish this or is there a better way? either way how do I achive this? (I have asked this question at stackoverflow.com/questions/2190115/wget-mirroring-subdomains-and-directories-and-cookies but it was recommended that I try asking it here)

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  • How do I host multiple independent, secured SharePoint sites (WSS 3.0) without using Active Director

    - by Kyle Noland
    I have a SharePoint site set up on one of my networks to service Active Directory users. To be clear, this is a Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 installation running on Windows Server 2003 Standard. It is not an option to upgrade the server or SharePoint version. Management would like to create several new sites, one for each of a handful of clients. These sites will be used like "dropboxes" or FTP sites so that my company can make large files available to outside contacts, and vice versa. Here are my requirements: I do not want to have to create Active Directory accounts for each external contact. If possible, I would like to store the external usernames and passwords in a database that I can write a small GUI for so that management can handle adding their own external contacts. Each client site must be sandboxed from each other and from my main company SharePoint site. I would like to keep everything running on port 80 and be able to access the sites as either clientname.mycompany.com or www.mycompany.com/clientname If anybody has ever done this I would really appreciate hearing about any lessons you learned and suggestions for how to set this up. Kyle

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  • How do I host multiple independent, secured SharePoint sites (WSS 3.0) without using Active Directory on the same server?

    - by Kyle Noland
    I have a SharePoint site set up on one of my networks to service Active Directory users. To be clear, this is a Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 installation running on Windows Server 2003 Standard. It is not an option to upgrade the server or SharePoint version. Management would like to create several new sites, one for each of a handful of clients. These sites will be used like "dropboxes" or FTP sites so that my company can make large files available to outside contacts, and vice versa. Here are my requirements: I do not want to have to create Active Directory accounts for each external contact. If possible, I would like to store the external usernames and passwords in a database that I can write a small GUI for so that management can handle adding their own external contacts. Each client site must be sandboxed from each other and from my main company SharePoint site. I would like to keep everything running on port 80 and be able to access the sites as either clientname.mycompany.com or www.mycompany.com/clientname If anybody has ever done this I would really appreciate hearing about any lessons you learned and suggestions for how to set this up. Kyle

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  • Networking Home Office

    - by Matt
    I'm in the process of building an office in my garden. It's about 25m away from my house. I'd like to run a wired network connection to the office. I'd rather not go down the powerline route, as speeds don't seem great, and I'm likely to want to be moving a lot of data around on the internal network. I have an electrician who is running armoured electrical cable to the office, and is providing conduit for me to run network cable. My questions are: 1) What type of cable to run 2) How I terminate/connect it at both ends I could get something like armoured cat6 utp solid core (like this: http://www.netstoredirect.com/cat6-cable/289166-external-armoured-cat6-utp-solid-cable-price-per-metre.html) which seems fairly robust, but then I have to terminate it. Additionally, where the cable enters my house, there is about another 15m to where my router is situated. I also read this artice: http://www.audioholics.com/audio-video-cables/bjc-cat-network-cable-quality-interview which scared me into realising I don't know what I'm doing!! particularly with termination. Or I could get an "cat6 external patch cable" (e.g http://www.netstoredirect.com/rj45-network-cables/239231-external-cat6-utp-ldpe-rj45-patch-leads.html) and run that in the conduit, and work out how to terminate it at the house end. At the office end I guess I can just plug it into a switch. Any help? Thanks

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  • How to connect through a proxy using Remote Desktop?

    - by scottmarlowe
    So I've got a home server running Windows Server 2003. I use a dual network card setup and Routing and Remote Access to link the internal, private network to the external connection. The external connection hooks directly to my cable modem (so no routers or other devices sitting between). The problem I'm having is that I can't connect remotely from a location outside the house (so connecting to the server's external connection) to the server using either Remote Desktop or VNC. I have enabled both ports in Routing and Remote Access's firewall to allow access, and I have enabled Remote Desktop in Windows Server 2003. The odd thing is that I can access my home server's SVN repository and I can even ping the server's IP. I am using the IP to attempt to connect, though I use a dyndns.com provided name to connect to my SVN repository, so it shouldn't make a difference (I know the IP is getting resolved correctly). Any ideas on where to start diagnosing this one? I haven't seen anything in my server's event log. If any other info is needed, let me know. Thanks. UPDATE: One last piece of information: We use a proxy server at work, which I'm nearly 100% sure is the culprit. I have a workaround--if I connect to our VPN (even though I'm already inside the building) I am able to connect to my home server. This is with VNC. However, is there a way to connect through a proxy using Remote Desktop? ONE MORE UPDATE: Indeed, it was the http proxy I'm sitting behind at work that was causing the issue. An acceptable workaround is to use my VPN connection to bypass the proxy, and I'm in!

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  • What Apache/PHP configurations do you know and how good are they?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I wanted to ask you about PHP/Apache configuration methods you know, their pros and cons. I will start myself: ---------------- PHP as Apache module---------------- Pros: good speed since you don't need to start exe every time especially in mpm-worker mode. You can also use various PHP accelerators in this mode like APC or eAccelerator. Cons: if you are running apache in mpm-worker mode, you may face stability issues because every glitch in any php script will lead to unstability to the whole thread pool of that apache process. Also in this mode all scripts are executed on behalf of apache user. This is bad for security. mpm-worker configuration requires PHP compiled in thread-safe mode. At least CentOS and RedHat default repositories doesn't have thread-safe PHP version so on these OSes you need to compile at least PHP yourself (there is a way to activate worker mpm on Apache). The use of thread-safe PHP binaries is considered experimental and unstable. Plus, many PHP extensions does not support thread-safe mode or were not well-tested in thread-safe mode. ---------------- PHP as CGI ---------------- This seems to be the slowest default configuration which seems to be a "con" itself ;) ---------------- PHP as CGI via mod_suphp ---------------- Pros: suphp allows you to execute php scipts on behalf of the script file owner. This way you can securely separate different sites on the same machine. Also, suphp allows to use different php.ini files per virtual host. Cons: PHP in CGI mode means less performance. In this mode you can't use php accelerators like APC because each time new process is spawned to handle script rendering the cache of previous process useless. BTW, do you know the way to apply some accelerator in this config? I heard something about using shm for php bytecode cache. Also, you cannot configure PHP via .htaccess files in this mode. You will need to install PECL htscanner for this if you need to set various per-script options via .htaccess (php_value / php_flag directives) ---------------- PHP as CGI via suexec ---------------- This configuration looks the same as with suphp, but I heard, that it's slower and less safe. Almost same pros and cons apply. ---------------- PHP as FastCGI ---------------- Pros: FastCGI standard allows single php process to handle several scripts before php process is killed. This way you gain performance since no need to spin up new php process for each script. You can also use PHP accelerators in this configuration (see cons section for comment). Also, FCGI almost like suphp also allows php processes to be executed on behalf of some user. mod_fcgid seems to have the most complete fcgi support and flexibility for apache. Cons: The use of php accelerator in fastcgi mode will lead to high memory consumption because each PHP process will have his own bytecode cache (unless there is some accelerator that can use shared memory for bytecode cache. Is there such?). FastCGI is also a little bit complex to configure. You need to create various configuration files and make some configuration modifications. It seems, that fastcgi is the most stable, secure, fast and flexible PHP configuration, however, a bit difficult to be configured. But, may be, I missed something? Comments are welcome!

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