Search Results

Search found 11586 results on 464 pages for 'cyclic reference'.

Page 33/464 | < Previous Page | 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40  | Next Page >

  • SQL Server - Error when trying to reference a .mdf file

    - by Amokrane
    Hi, For a NUnit test I need to reference a .mdf file from a .config file. Unfortunately, I get the following error message: The FOR ATTACH option requires that at least the primary file be specified. An attempt to attach an auto-named database for file C:\....\*.mdf A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. I looked for this error on google but didn't find anything that helped me solve my problem. Any idea? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Third-party dll's in a website layout

    - by eych
    I have a solution with several projects and one website. The website uses some third-party dll's. I have to place the dll's in the bin folder under the website. This is the same bin where the dll's from the other projects get auto-loaded. Is there a way I can place the third-party dll's in a separate folder? If I 'Add Reference' to the dll when it is in a separate folder, VS always adds it to the GAC. If the separate folder is outside of the website layout, 'Add Reference' never works. My goal is have the bin folder only for auto-updated dll's, and a separate folder for third-party dll's. [This method works fine for the projects; just the website has issues]

    Read the article

  • Reference the oncomplete event by an external java script function

    - by user339637
    Hi , I want to do some logic at the oncomplete attribute of the a4j:commandButton ,but my logic is too complicated , can I reference the code using a java script functions located in a external java-script file to have a better maintenance ? I found it has error because the JavaScript file cannot understand the EL expression . For example , originally I have , <a4j:commandButton id="btn1" action="#{MBena1.action1}" oncomplete="if( {MBena1.variable1}){Richfaces.showModalPanel('modelPanel1');};if (......) then "> I want to do something like this: <a4j:commandButton action="#{MBena1.action1}" oncomplete="Btn1OnComplete();"> the code is put inside the java script function Btn1OnComplete() which is located in a external java-script file. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Java generics: Illegal forward reference

    - by Arian
    Given a generic interface interface Foo<A, B> { } I want to write an implementation that requires A to be a subclass of B. So I want to do class Bar<A, B super A> implements Foo<A, B> { } // --> Syntax error or class Bar<A extends B, B> implements Foo<A, B> { } // --> illegal forward reference But the only solution that seems to work is this: class Bar<B, A extends B> implements Foo<A, B> { } which is kind of ugly, because it reverses the order of the generic parameters. Are there any solutions or workarounds to this problem?

    Read the article

  • C++0x rvalue references - lvalues-rvalue binding

    - by Doug
    This is a follow-on question to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2748866/c0x-rvalue-references-and-temporaries In the previous question, I asked how this code should work: void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } It seems that the move overload should probably be called because of the implicit temporary, and this happens in GCC but not MSVC (or the EDG front-end used in MSVC's Intellisense). What about this code? void f(std::string &&); //NB: No const string & overload supplied void g1(const char * arg) { f(arg); } void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(arg); } It seems that, based on the answers to my previous question that function g1 is legal (and is accepted by GCC 4.3-4.5, but not by MSVC). However, GCC and MSVC both reject g2 because of clause 13.3.3.1.4/3, which prohibits lvalues from binding to rvalue ref arguments. I understand the rationale behind this - it is explained in N2831 "Fixing a safety problem with rvalue references". I also think that GCC is probably implementing this clause as intended by the authors of that paper, because the original patch to GCC was written by one of the authors (Doug Gregor). However, I don't this is quite intuitive. To me, (a) a const string & is conceptually closer to a string && than a const char *, and (b) the compiler could create a temporary string in g2, as if it were written like this: void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(std::string(arg)); } Indeed, sometimes the copy constructor is considered to be an implicit conversion operator. Syntactically, this is suggested by the form of a copy constructor, and the standard even mentions this specifically in clause 13.3.3.1.2/4, where the copy constructor for derived-base conversions is given a higher conversion rank than other implicit conversions: A conversion of an expression of class type to the same class type is given Exact Match rank, and a conversion of an expression of class type to a base class of that type is given Conversion rank, in spite of the fact that a copy/move constructor (i.e., a user-defined conversion function) is called for those cases. (I assume this is used when passing a derived class to a function like void h(Base), which takes a base class by value.) Motivation My motivation for asking this is something like the question asked in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2696156/how-to-reduce-redundant-code-when-adding-new-c0x-rvalue-reference-operator-over ("How to reduce redundant code when adding new c++0x rvalue reference operator overloads"). If you have a function that accepts a number of potentially-moveable arguments, and would move them if it can (e.g. a factory function/constructor: Object create_object(string, vector<string>, string) or the like), and want to move or copy each argument as appropriate, you quickly start writing a lot of code. If the argument types are movable, then one could just write one version that accepts the arguments by value, as above. But if the arguments are (legacy) non-movable-but-swappable classes a la C++03, and you can't change them, then writing rvalue reference overloads is more efficient. So if lvalues did bind to rvalues via an implicit copy, then you could write just one overload like create_object(legacy_string &&, legacy_vector<legacy_string> &&, legacy_string &&) and it would more or less work like providing all the combinations of rvalue/lvalue reference overloads - actual arguments that were lvalues would get copied and then bound to the arguments, actual arguments that were rvalues would get directly bound. Questions My questions are then: Is this a valid interpretation of the standard? It seems that it's not the conventional or intended one, at any rate. Does it make intuitive sense? Is there a problem with this idea that I"m not seeing? It seems like you could get copies being quietly created when that's not exactly expected, but that's the status quo in places in C++03 anyway. Also, it would make some overloads viable when they're currently not, but I don't see it being a problem in practice. Is this a significant enough improvement that it would be worth making e.g. an experimental patch for GCC?

    Read the article

  • MVVM View reference to ViewModel

    - by BrettRobi
    I'm using MVVM in a WPF app. I'm very new to both. Let me state that I am not a purest in the MVVM pattern, I am trying to use as many best practices as I can but am trying to make what I think are reasonable compromises to make it work in our environment. For example, I am not trying to achieve 0% code in my View codebehind. I have a couple of questions about best practices. 1) I understand I don't want my VM to know about the attached View, but is it reasonable for the View to have a reference to its VM? 2) If a control in a View opens another View (such as a dialog) should I handle this in the View? It seems wrong to handle it in the VM since then the VM has some knowledge of a specific View.

    Read the article

  • How can I create a collection of references in C#

    - by Jonathan Kaufman
    Ok I am having a cross language hiccup. In C# with it's great collections like List and I have: a Map class with properties of: List<byte[]> Images; List<Tile> Tiles; a Tile Class of: byte[] ImageData; int X; int Y; Now I want to add an image to the Map class and have the ImageData property of the Tile Classes to "reference" it. I have discovered I can't just assign it Images[0]. You can't have a reference to an object of a List. My fix was to create a Dictionary. Is this the best way or can I somehow have a "pointer" to a collection of objects?

    Read the article

  • How can I reference a drawable class in Android XML

    - by James Veenstra
    I've created a class that extends drawable that I'd like to reference inside a resource xml. I happen to need it in a selector, like so: <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_window_focused="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="com.sample.android.contacts.TopBarCollapsed" /> <item android:state_window_focused="true" android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/top_switcher_collapsed_selected" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/top_switcher_collapsed_focused" /> com.sample.android.contacts.TopBarCollapsed is the class that extends drawable.

    Read the article

  • Autofac: Reference from a SingleInstance'd type to a HttpRequestScoped

    - by Michael Wagner
    I've got an application where a shared object needs a reference to a per-request object. Shared: Engine | Per Req: IExtensions() | Request If i try to inject the IExtensions directly into the constructor of Engine, even as Lazy(Of IExtension), I get a "No scope matching [Request] is visible from the scope in which the instance was requested." exception when it tries to instantiate each IExtension. How can I create a HttpRequestScoped instance and then inject it into a shared instance? Would it be considered good practice to set it in the Request's factory (and therefore inject Engine into RequestFactory)?

    Read the article

  • Storing DOM reference elements in Javascript array

    - by webzide
    Dear experts, I was trying to dynamically generate DOM elements using JS. I read from Douglas Crockford's book that DOM is very very poorly structured. Anyways, I would like to create a number of DIVISION elements and store the reference into an array so it could be accessed later. Here's the code for(i=0;i<3;i++){ var div=document.body.appendChild(document.createElement("div")); var arr=new Array(); arr.push(div); } Somehow this would not work..... There is only 1 div element created. When I use the arr.length to test the code there is only 1 element in the array. Is there another way to accomplish this. THanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Can I destroy a class instance even if there are still references?

    - by DR
    For debugging reasons I want to destroy a class instance which still as references. Is that possible? It doesn't have to be elegant or stable, because this'll never end up in production code. To clarify: Public Sub Main Dim o as MyClass Set o = New MyClass //o is created, one reference DestroyObject o //Class_Terminate is called and the object destroyed //Further code, not using o End Sub //Possible runtime error here (don't care) Is that possible? One way would be to call IUnknown::Release to manually decrease the reference count, but how do I now how often I must call it?

    Read the article

  • Generic Lists copying references rather than creating a copiedList

    - by Dean
    I was developing a small function when trying to run an enumerator across a list and then carry out some action. (Below is an idea of what I was trying to do. When trying to remove I got a "Collection cannot be modified" which after I had actually woken up I realised that tempList must have just been assigned myLists reference rather than a copy of myLists. After that I tried to find a way to say tempList = myList.copy However nothing seems to exist?? I ended up writing a small for loop that then just added each item from myLsit into tempList but I would have thought there would have been another mechanism (like clone??) So my question(s): is my assumption about tempList receiving a reference to myList correct How should a list be copied to another list? private myList as List (Of something) sub new() myList.add(new Something) end sub sub myCalledFunction() dim tempList as new List (Of Something) tempList = myList Using i as IEnumerator = myList.getEnumarator while i.moveNext 'if some critria is met then tempList.remove(i.current) end end using end sub

    Read the article

  • Basic class returns onject reference instead of Array

    - by php-b-grader
    I have very basic class: class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); return $this->customer; } } $customer = new Customer($order->customer->id); print_r($customer); This is not doing what I want it to but I understand why... $customer returns a reference to the Customer Object... But what I want is the MySQL row array from the mysql_fetch_row() call... What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Updating only .dll of a reference in my ASP.NET Application

    - by Mike C.
    Hello, I have a deployed web application project that references my Utility.dll class library. I want to make a change to the Utlity.dll and roll only that .dll out. The problem is that when I do that, I get the following error when I try to launch my site: Could not load file or assembly 'Utility, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=3766481cef20a9d1' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) Is there a setting I can change so I don't have to roll out the entire web application project - only the Utlity.dll? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Linux c++ error: undefined reference to 'dlopen'

    - by lerax
    Hi all! I work in Linux with c++ (eclipse) and want to use a library. Eclipse shows me an error: undefined reference to 'dlopen' Do you know a solution? Here is my code. #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <dlfcn.h> int main(int argc, char **argv) { void *handle; double (*desk)(char*); char *error; handle = dlopen ("/lib/CEDD_LIB.so.6", RTLD_LAZY); if (!handle) { fputs (dlerror(), stderr); exit(1); } desk= dlsym(handle, "Apply"); if ((error = dlerror()) != NULL) { fputs(error, stderr); exit(1); } dlclose(handle); }

    Read the article

  • C++ IDE for Linux with smart reference searching

    - by Dmitry Yudakov
    Is there an IDE supporting C++ with REALLY smart searching of references? By 'reference' I mean usage of a class (or its member), variable, function in the whole Project or Workspace. There's lots of IDE providing it. Some of them seem just to search for the text with same name giving lots of stuff, others are smarter and check the context (like class boundaries, namespace) but aren't accurate enough. The best I've tried so far was Visual SlickEdit, but still there's more to wish. class C1 { int foo; }; class C2 { int foo; }; For example in this situation when searching for C1::foo references I don't want C2::foo to be shown too. So, is there an IDE that would be so smart?

    Read the article

  • C++ memory management of reference types

    - by Russel
    Hello, I'm still a fairly novice programmer and I have a question about c++ memory management with refence types. First of all, my understanding of reference types: A pointer is put on the stack and the actual data that the pointer points to is created and placed on the heap. Standard arrays and user defined classes are refence types. Is this correct? Second, my main question is do c and c++'s memory management mechanisms (malloc, free and new, delete) always handle this properly and free the memory that a class or array is pointing to? Does everything still work if those pointers get reassigned somehow to other objects of the same size/type on the heap? What if a class has a pointer member that points to another object? I am assuming that delete/freeing the class object doesn't free what it's member pointer points to, is that correct? Thanks all! -R

    Read the article

  • Is there any Android XML documentation?

    - by Eddified
    Is there any sort of xml reference? I found this which turned out to be invaluable for me http://groups.google.com/group/android-developers/msg/d334017d72909c79 but I can't figure out how I was supposed to know how to do that, had I not found that post. I know that the api reference has xml attributes listed for many of the classes... but what about xml tags? Where is it documented that I could build a shape using , , tags? I'd really like to know where I can find such documentation.

    Read the article

  • Js Variable Reference Quickie

    - by Nikki
    Hoping someone can clear this up for me. Let's say I have 2 globals: var myarray=[1,3,5,7,9],hold; and then I do this: function setup() { alert (myarray[0]);//shows 1 hold=myarray; alert (hold);//appears to show 'hold' containing all the values of myarray. first number shown is 1 myarray[0]=2; alert (hold);//shows the values of myarray with the updated first entry. first numbe shown is 2 } Am I to take it that 'hold' is simply keeping a reference to myarray, rather than actually taking all the values of?

    Read the article

  • SSIS web service task producing "object reference" error

    - by gfrizzle
    Our care management system uses a web service to import data. I've successfully executed one of its methods using soapUI, and now I want to replicate this with an SSIS 2008 web service task, but I'm running into a problem. I've created the "HTTP Connection Manager" successfully, and specified the location of the "WSDLFile", but when I go to the Input tab and select the Service from the dropdown (there is only one), I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error, and and the Method dropdown is empty. Any idea what this is trying to tell me?

    Read the article

  • How to reference an object in a lower fragment in android

    - by Silas Greenback
    I am trying to build a help screen that is going to go on a mediaplayer. The idea is to put a fragment with a transparent theme on top of the current view. (See How do I create a help overlay like you see in a few Android apps and ICS? for the basic idea). Now, I understand the steps in the mentioned link, but how do I connect the circles and arrows and paragraphs next to each one (explaining what each one was) to the lower object? Example, I have an object: R.id.music_button and I want there to be and arrow that points to music button. Trying to support as many devices as we do it will be very difficult to just draw a few pictures as part of the top layout and expect them to line up. Again, how do I reference an object on a fragment below the top level? Thanks

    Read the article

  • MYSQL, Subquery Reference in Union

    - by christian
    Is there any way to reference a subquery in a union? I am trying to do something like the following, and would like to avoid a temporary table, but the subquery will be drawn from a much larger dataset so it makes sense to only do it once.. SELECT * FROM (SELECT * FROM ads WHERE state='FL' AND city='Maitland' AND page='home' ORDER BY RAND()) AS sq WHERE spot = 'full-banner' LIMIT 1 UNION SELECT * FROM sq WHERE spot = 'leaderboard' LIMIT 1 UNION SELECT * FROM sq WHERE spot = 'rectangle1' LIMIT 1 UNION SELECT * FROM sq WHERE spot = 'rectangle2' LIMIT 1 .... etc,, It's a shame that DISTINCT can't be specified for a single column of a result set.

    Read the article

  • Drupal node reference

    - by Nikunj Kotecha
    I am using two content types - test_parent & test_child In test_child there are two fields, both of type datetime And in test_parent there are two fields, week_no & 7 node references I am using node_save to save a new node. After saving a node of parent type, and then saving the node of child type, i want to update the node it into the parent type. I have completed creation of both nodes from code, and also i am able to update nid in parent type from code. The problem is, the change in db is getting reflected in db but not on drupal node view. Even if i edit the node from drupal, it's showing -none- selected in node reference. Please help.

    Read the article

  • undefined reference to static member variable

    - by Max
    Hi. I have this class that has a static member. it is also a base class for several other classes in my program. Here's its header file: #ifndef YARL_OBJECT_HPP #define YARL_OBJECT_HPP namespace yarlObject { class YarlObject { // Member Variables private: static int nextID; // keeps track of the next ID number to be used int ID; // the identifier for a specific object // Member Functions public: YarlObject(): ID(++nextID) {} virtual ~YarlObject() {} int getID() const {return ID;} }; } #endif and here's its implementation file. #include "YarlObject.hpp" namespace yarlObject { int YarlObject::nextID = 0; } I'm using g++, and it returns three undefined reference to 'yarlObject::YarlObject::nextID linker errors. If I change the ++nextID phrase in the constructor to just nextID, then I only get one error, and if I change it to 1, then it links correctly. I imagine it's something simple, but what's going on?

    Read the article

  • How to I reference a pointer from a different class

    - by Justagruvn
    Hey team of awesomeness!, (Iphone Objective-C question) First off, I despise singletons with a passion. Though I should probably be trying to use one, I just dont want to. I want to create a data class (that is instantiated only once by a view controller on loading), and then using a different class, message the crap out of that data instance until it is brimming with so much data, it smiles. So, how do i do that? I made a pointer to the instance of the data class when I instantiated it. I'm now over in a separate view controller, action occurs, and I want to update the initial data object. I think I need to reference that object by way of pointer, but I have no idea how to do that. yes I've set properties and getters and setters, which seem to work, but only in the initial view controller class. Peace Love applesauce.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40  | Next Page >