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  • What is the "Entity" reffering to in fluent Nhibernate Mapping Configuration?

    - by percent20
    I am trying to learn fluent nhibernate better so am doing a basic sample application from scratch, instead of using someone elses framework. However, I am finding I really don't understand what is going on in assigning mapping files. I have seen a lot of code examples which are all showing the same code, but nothing that spells it out. No description of how it works just that it works. Here is a code example that I see often. return Fluently.Configure() .Database(config) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); So in the code example what is Entity? and how does that piece of code work? Part of me thinks it is the name of the assembly, but seeing as how the namespace I am using is usually the name of the assembly the compiler complains that I am using a namespace as a type. I feel this is important and am rather flustered by the fact I can't figure it out. Thanks

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  • Does Anyone Know Of A Solid Web Example Using ASP.NET MVC1 or MVC2, NHibernate, Fluent NHibernate &

    - by Sara
    I am looking for solid non-console examples of how to use ASP.NET MVC1 or MVC2, NHibernate, Fluent NHibernate & Castle. I looked at Sharp Architecture and its just too much to digest for my newbie mind. I need a clean, clear, concise Step A, Step B, Step C tutorial or a solid example that is a web application and not a console application. I have searched and searched and searched and I have found incomplete examples (examples with just enough information to make me say where does that code go), console applications and no good web application examples. Does anyone know of a COMPLETE web example? If I see another console example, I'm going to scream....

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  • .NET IsValidXml Extension Method Performance

    - by tyndall
    I have a legacy application that I inherited that passes a lot of XML around as Strings. I often need the ability to check if a String will be valid XML. What is the fastest and least expensive way to check if a string is valid XML in .NET? I'm working in .NET 3.5 and would most likely use this as an extension method (off of string) in this one project within the solution.

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  • Can Fluent NHibernate be configured to use an arbitrary prefix on a property backing field?

    - by dommer
    I'm currently using a convention to (auto)map collection properties to backing fields in Fluent NHibernate. So, I map a property "Orders" to a field "_orders". The convention I'm using to do this is: public class HasManyAccessConvention : IHasManyConvention { public void Apply(IOneToManyCollectionInstance instance) { instance.Access.CamelCaseField(CamelCasePrefix.Underscore); } } Can I write a convention that maps a (collection) property to a field with a non-standard prefix (ignoring whether this is good coding practice for the present)? So, the property "Orders" would be mapped to "xyz_orders", for example. If so, how would I go about this?

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  • Fluent nHibernate - How to map a non-key column on a junction table?

    - by The Matt
    Taking an example that is provided on the Fluent nHibernate website, I need to extend it slightly: I need to add a 'Quantity' column to the StoreProduct table. How would I map this using nHibernate? An example mapping is provided for the given scenario above, but I'm not sure how I would get the Quantity column to map to a property on the Product class: public class StoreMap : ClassMap<Store> { public StoreMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.Employee) .Inverse() .Cascade.All(); HasManyToMany(x => x.Products) .Cascade.All() .Table("StoreProduct"); } }

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  • Credit Card checksums and validations that do not require connection to the financial institution

    - by cjavapro
    The validations I know of are: Checksum the whole card number should add up to zero. (range is 0-9) Check the first digit(s) against the card type Check the length against the card type Check the CCV length against the card type (I think all the major types are 3 anyway) Of course make sure it is accepted card type as well as non expired. Are there any other validations :) (I expect many folks did not know about all of these) The reason I ask is because I overheard there was one to checksum number against expiration or CCV.. I just wanted to check.

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  • Problem with $.get while submitting form

    - by bradenkeith
    I'm trying to verify that an Account Name is not already in use once a user fills out a form. The code looks like: $("#add_account").submit( function () { $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: "t"}, function(data){ alert( data ); }); }); I get a $.get response if the statement sits like this: $(document).ready( function () { $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: "t"}, function(data){ alert( data ); }); }); Which leads me to believe that my $.get statement is correct. Is there some jQuery rule I'm not familiar with that would cause this to fail in on submit scenario? In code block 1, I get values returned like they should. Block 2 gives me a blank response. Any ideas? Thanks for your time, I know you have better things to be doing.

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  • In which order is model binding and validation done in ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Simon Bartlett
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 2, and am using a view-model per view approach. I am also using Automapper to map properties from my domain-model to the view-model. Take this example view-model (with Required data annotation attributes for validation purposes): public class BlogPost_ViewModel { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public string Text { get; set; } } In the post editor view I am using a rich text editor (CKeditor). Because CKeditor is a HTML editor, I ideally need CKeditor to HTMLencode the user's input when the form is submitted, so that ASP.NET's input validation does not complain. This is not a problem as CKeditor has this functionality built in, however I need CKeditor's output decoded before mapping back to the domain object (via Automapper). I am wanting to add a new property (to the view-model above) to solve this, as follows: public string HTMLEncodedText { get { return HTMLEncode(Text); } set { Text = HTMLDecode(value); } } I can then bind this property to CKeditor in the view, but still use Automapper to map the 'Text' property in the controller - all without having to turn input-validation off. My question is: do you know how the model binding and validation process in ASP.NET MVC 2 works? Are all model properties binded before validation is carried out? Or is each individual property get validated when it is being set. I think ideally for my idea to work, all properties need to be set before the model is validated.

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  • How do I remove jQuery validation from a form?

    - by Ben
    I'm using the jQuery validation plugin to validate a form, and I'd like to remove the validation and submit the form if a certain link is clicked. I am submitting form with javascript like jQuery('form#listing').submit(), so I must remove the validation rules/function with javascript. The problem is that I can't figure out how to do this. I've tried things like jQuery('form#listing').validate({}); and jQuery('form#listing').validate = null, but with no luck.

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  • Who makes software validation? What are the steps of its?

    - by uzay95
    Fill in the X,Y,Z please. Software validation has X,Y,Z steps. Client have to provide X,Y,Z to the developer before starting to write software. When software finished, validation completes with doing X,Y,Z (sign, approval, test pictures, logs etc.). If we buy a general software like invoice management tool or SAP module which can modify/change for every customer, who should make the software validation?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 client side validation not working for Html.ValidationMessage()?

    - by JuniorDeveloper
    I'm trying to get a very simple client side validation example to work in ASP.NET MVC 2. I'm using data annotations to set a required property "Surname". When I use the Html.ValidationMessageFor(x = x.Surname) the correct client side validation script is written to the page. But when I use Html.ValidationMessage("Surname") the client side validation is not rendered out until after the page has been posted. Client side validation only starts working after a form post! I can see that the script is updated in the page after a form post. There appears to be a bug in Html.ValidationMessage()?

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  • Why does the data binding in this validation example work?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm wondering how exactly the XAML sample (MSDN sample) works: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> Questions: (Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent - Is this code somehow checked by WPF? Because Validation.Errors may be an empty collection and in ordinary C# code this code may throw an exception. If this data-binding returns null for valid input - the null value is then casted to empty string (in a text control for example)? The index 0 corresponds to the first error message. How can I return more error messages from Validate method? Thank you for responses!

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  • Why are my Fluent NHibernate SubClass Mappings generating redundant columns?

    - by Brook
    I'm using Fluent NHibernate 1.x build 694, built against NH 3.0 I have the following entities public abstract class Card { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Product Product { get; set; } public virtual Sprint Sprint { get; set; } } public class Story:Card { public virtual double Points { get; set; } public virtual int Priority { get; set; } public virtual IList<Task> Tasks { get; set; } } And the following mappings public class CardMap:ClassMap<Card> { public CardMap() { Id(c => c.Id) .Index("Card_Id"); Map(c => c.Name) .Length(50) .Not.Nullable(); Map(c => c.Description) .Length(1024) .Not.Nullable(); References(c=>c.Product) .Not.Nullable(); References(c=>c.Sprint) .Nullable(); } } public class StoryMap : SubclassMap<Story> { public StoryMap() { Map(s => s.Points); Map(s => s.Priority); HasMany(s => s.Tasks); } } When I generate my Schema, the tables are created as follows Card --------- Id Name Description Product_id Sprint_id Story ------------ Card_id Points Priority Product_id Sprint_id What I would have expected would have been to see the columns Product_id and Sprint_id ONLY in the Card table, not the Story table. What am I doing wrong or misunderstanding?

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  • Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

    - by Eugene
    The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

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  • In Fluent NHibernate, how would I map the following domain models?

    - by Brandon
    I have a user class that looks something like this public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual long ValueA { get; set; } public virtual int? ValueB { get; set; } } ValueA is automatically assigned by the system. It is used in a lookup that would map to UserClass. However, if a value for ValueB exists, then it would do the lookup for UserClass in a different way. Right now the way I handle it is to get the User and then perform a separate lookup each time. return user.ValueB.HasValue ? Find(user.ValueB.Value) : Find(user.ValueA); Is there any way to make Fluent NHibernate do this for me so I can have UserClass as a property on the User class instead of having to do the lookup separately? I was thinking of the ComponentMap but I'm not sure how to make it account for the two possible lookup values.

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  • Fluent NHibernate: Example of a one-to-many relationship on an abstract class of a table-per-subclas

    - by BigTommy79
    Hi All, I've been trying for ages to find an example (because I can't get it to work myself) of the correct mapping for a one-to-many relationship on an abstract class of a table-per-subclass implementation, in fluent nHibernate. An example below: I'm looking to map the list of Fines on the Debt abstract base class to the Fine class. if anyone knows of any tutorial or example they've come across before please let me know. Thanks, Tim public abstract class Entity { public int Id { get; set; } } public abstract class Debt : Entity { public decimal Balance { get; set; } public IList<Fine> Fines { get; set; } public Debt() { Fines = new List<Fine>(); } } public class CarLoan : Debt { } public class CreditCard : Debt { } public class LoanApplication : Entity { public IList<Debt> ExistingDebts { get; set; } public LoanApplication() { ExistingDebts = new List<Debt>(); } } public class Fine { public Int64 Cash { get; set; } }

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  • Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

    - by John
    I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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  • Why the data binding in this validation example works in WPF?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm wondering how exactly the XAML sample (MSDN sample) works: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> Questions: (Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent - Is this code somehow checked by WPF? Because Validation.Errors may be an empty collection and in ordinary C# code this code may throw an exception. If this data-binding returns null for valid input - the null value is then casted to empty string (in a text control for example)? The index 0 corresponds to the first error message. How can I return more error messages from Validate method? Thank you for responses!

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  • Is verification and validation part of testing process?

    - by user970696
    Based on many sources I do not believe the simple definition that aim of testing is to find as many bugs as possible - we test to ensure that it works or that it does not. E.g. followint are goals of testing form ISTQB: Determine that (software products) satisfy specified requirements ( I think its verificication) Demonstrate that (software products) are fit for purpose (I think that is validation) Detect defects I would agree that testing is verification, validation and defect detection. Is that correct?

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  • How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to automap UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 200

    - by dommer
    I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. I'm trying to have NHibernate generate the schema (via ExposeConfiguration). I'm happy to have NHibernate map it to anything sensible (e.g. bigint). Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. Most of it is based on this post. The error reported is: System.ArgumentException : Dialect does not support DbType.UInt32 I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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  • How do I create/use a Fluent NHibernate convention to map UInt32 properties to an SQL Server 2008 da

    - by dommer
    I'm trying to use a convention to map UInt32 properties to a SQL Server 2008 database. I don't seem to be able to create a solution based on existing web sources, due to updates in the way Fluent NHibernate works - i.e. examples are out of date. Here's my code as it currently stands (which, when I try to expose the schema, fails due to SQL Server not supporting UInt32). Apologies for the code being a little long, but I'm not 100% sure what is relevant to the problem, so I'm erring on the side of caution. I think I'll need a relatively comprehensive example, as I don't seem to be able to pull the pieces together into a working solution, at present. FluentConfiguration configuration = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(connectionString)) .Mappings(mapping => mapping.AutoMappings.Add( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Product>() .Conventions.Add<UInt32UserTypeConvention>())); configuration.ExposeConfiguration(x => new SchemaExport(x).Create(false, true)); namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserTypeConvention : UserTypeConvention<UInt32UserType> { // Empty. } } namespace NHibernateTest { public class UInt32UserType : IUserType { // Public properties. public bool IsMutable { get { return false; } } public Type ReturnedType { get { return typeof(UInt32); } } public SqlType[] SqlTypes { get { return new SqlType[] { SqlTypeFactory.Int32 }; } } // Public methods. public object Assemble(object cached, object owner) { return cached; } public object DeepCopy(object value) { return value; } public object Disassemble(object value) { return value; } public new bool Equals(object x, object y) { return (x != null && x.Equals(y)); } public int GetHashCode(object x) { return x.GetHashCode(); } public object NullSafeGet(IDataReader rs, string[] names, object owner) { int? i = (int?)NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeGet(rs, names[0]); return (UInt32?)i; } public void NullSafeSet(IDbCommand cmd, object value, int index) { UInt32? u = (UInt32?)value; int? i = (Int32?)u; NHibernateUtil.Int32.NullSafeSet(cmd, i, index); } public object Replace(object original, object target, object owner) { return original; } } }

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  • asp .net MVC 2.0 Validation

    - by ANDyW
    Hi I’m trying to do some validation in asp .net MVC 2.0 for my application. I want to have some nice client side validation. Validation should be done most time on model side with DataAnnotations with custom attributes( like CompareTo, StringLenght, MinPasswordLenght (from Membership.MinimumumpassworkdLenght value). For that purpose I tried to use xval with jquery.validation. Some specific thing is that most of forms will be working with ajax and most problems are when I want to validate form with ajax. Here is link for sample project http://www.sendspace.com/file/m9gl54 . I got two forms as controls ValidFormControl1.ascx, ValidFormControl2.ascx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("CreateValidForm", "Test", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "Post" })) {%> <div id="validationSummary1"> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> </div> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Name)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name)%> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Password)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Password)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Password)%> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.ConfirmPassword)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ConfirmPassword)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ConfirmPassword)%> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<ValidModel>() .UseValidationSummary("validationSummary1", "Please fix the following problems:") %> Both look same the difference is only validation summaryID (validationSummary1, validationSummary2). Both controls are rendered on one page : Form2 <%Html.RenderPartial("~/Views/Test/ValidFormControl2.ascx", null); %> Form1 <%Html.RenderPartial("~/Views/Test/ValidFormControl.ascx", null); %> Validation property First problem, when we have two controls with same type to validate it don’t work becosue html elements are rendered by field name ( so we have two element with same name “Password” ). Only first form will be validated by client side. The worst thing is that even if we have different types and their fields name is same validation won’t work too ( this thing is what I need to repair it will be stupid to name some unique properites for validation ). Is there any solution for this ? Custom attributes validation Next thing custom attributes validation ( All those error are when I use Ajax for on normal form validation is working without problem. ): CompareTo - Simple compare to that is done in mvc template for account model ( class attribute saying with two property will be compared ) , and it wasn’t show on page. To do it I created own CachingRulesProvider with compareRule and my Attribute. Maybe there is more easy way to do it? StringLenght with minimum and maximum value, I won’t describe how I done it but is there any easy whey to do it? Validation summary When I have two two control on page all summary validation information goes to first control validation summary element, even xval generated script say that elementID are different for summary. Any one know how to repair it? Validation Information Is there any option to turn on messages on place where is Html.ValidationMessageFor(model = model.ConfirmPassword). Becsoue for me it isn’t show up. I would like to have summary and near field information too not only red border. Any one know how to do it? Ajax submit Anyone know how to do easy without massive code in javascript to do submit via javascript. This will be used to change input submit to href element (a). Both look same the difference is only validation summaryID

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  • How do you automap List<float> or float[] with Fluent NHibernate?

    - by Tom Bushell
    Having successfully gotten a sample program working, I'm now starting to do Real Work with Fluent NHibernate - trying to use Automapping on my project's class heirarchy. It's a scientific instrumentation application, and the classes I'm mapping have several properties that are arrays of floats e.g. private float[] _rawY; public virtual float[] RawY { get { return _rawY; } set { _rawY = value; } } These arrays can contain a maximum of 500 values. I didn't expect Automapping to work on arrays, but tried it anyway, with some success at first. Each array was auto mapped to a BLOB (using SQLite), which seemed like a viable solution. The first problem came when I tried to call SaveOrUpdate on the objects containing the arrays - I got "No persister for float[]" exceptions. So my next thought was to convert all my arrays into ILists e.g. public virtual IList<float> RawY { get; set; } But now I get: NHibernate.MappingException: Association references unmapped class: System.Single Since Automapping can deal with lists of complex objects, it never occured to me it would not be able to map lists of basic types. But after doing some Googling for a solution, this seems to be the case. Some people seem to have solved the problem, but the sample code I saw requires more knowledge of NHibernate than I have right now - I didn't understand it. Questions: 1. How can I make this work with Automapping? 2. Also, is it better to use arrays or lists for this application? I can modify my app to use either if necessary (though I prefer lists). Edit: I've studied the code in Mapping Collection of Strings, and I see there is test code in the source that sets up an IList of strings, e.g. public virtual IList<string> ListOfSimpleChildren { get; set; } [Test] public void CanSetAsElement() { new MappingTester<OneToManyTarget>() .ForMapping(m => m.HasMany(x => x.ListOfSimpleChildren).Element("columnName")) .Element("class/bag/element").Exists(); } so this must be possible using pure Automapping, but I've had zero luck getting anything to work, probably because I don't have the requisite knowlege of manually mapping with NHibernate. Starting to think I'm going to have to hack this (by encoding the array of floats as a single string, or creating a class that contains a single float which I then aggregate into my lists), unless someone can tell me how to do it properly. End Edit Here's my CreateSessionFactory method, if that helps formulate a reply... private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { ISessionFactory sessionFactory = null; const string autoMapExportDir = "AutoMapExport"; if( !Directory.Exists(autoMapExportDir) ) Directory.CreateDirectory(autoMapExportDir); try { var autoPersistenceModel = AutoMap.AssemblyOf<DlsAppOverlordExportRunData>() .Where(t => t.Namespace == "DlsAppAutomapped") .Conventions.Add( DefaultCascade.All() ) ; sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard .UsingFile(DbFile) .ShowSql() ) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings.Add(autoPersistenceModel) .ExportTo(autoMapExportDir) ) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory() ; } catch (Exception e) { Debug.WriteLine(e); } return sessionFactory; }

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  • What is wrong with the following Fluent NHibernate Mapping ?

    - by ashraf
    Hi, I have 3 tables (Many to Many relationship) Resource {ResourceId, Description} Role {RoleId, Description} Permission {ResourceId, RoleId} I am trying to map above tables in fluent-nHibernate. This is what I am trying to do. var aResource = session.Get<Resource>(1); // 2 Roles associated (Role 1 and 2) var aRole = session.Get<Role>(1); aResource.Remove(aRole); // I try to delete just 1 role from permission. But the sql generated here is (which is wrong) Delete from Permission where ResourceId = 1 Insert into Permission (ResourceId, RoleId) values (1, 2); Instead of (right way) Delete from Permission where ResourceId = 1 and RoleId = 1 Why nHibernate behave like this? What wrong with the mapping? I even tried with Set instead of IList. Here is the full code. Entities public class Resource { public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual int ResourceId { get; set; } public virtual IList<Role> Roles { get; set; } public Resource() { Roles = new List<Role>(); } } public class Role { public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual int RoleId { get; set; } public virtual IList<Resource> Resources { get; set; } public Role() { Resources = new List<Resource>(); } } Mapping Here // Mapping .. public class ResourceMap : ClassMap<Resource> { public ResourceMap() { Id(x => x.ResourceId); Map(x => x.Description); HasManyToMany(x => x.Roles).Table("Permission"); } } public class RoleMap : ClassMap<Role> { public RoleMap() { Id(x => x.RoleId); Map(x => x.Description); HasManyToMany(x => x.Resources).Table("Permission"); } } Program static void Main(string[] args) { var factory = CreateSessionFactory(); using (var session = factory.OpenSession()) { using (var tran = session.BeginTransaction()) { var aResource = session.Get<Resource>(1); var aRole = session.Get<Role>(1); aResource.Remove(aRole); session.Save(a); session.Flush(); tran.Commit(); } } } private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("server=(local);database=Store;Integrated Security=SSPI")) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Program>() .Conventions.Add<CustomForeignKeyConvention>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); } public class CustomForeignKeyConvention : ForeignKeyConvention { protected override string GetKeyName(FluentNHibernate.Member property, Type type) { return property == null ? type.Name + "Id" : property.Name + "Id"; } } Thanks, Ashraf.

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