Search Results

Search found 11396 results on 456 pages for 'simply denis'.

Page 331/456 | < Previous Page | 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338  | Next Page >

  • jQuery change CSS background position and mouseover/mouseout

    - by steelfrog
    I have a menu composed of a single image (e.g., sprites). In order to display the hover image, I simply move the background image down. I'd like this effect to be controlled by jQuery and animated. This is a sample menu item. <ul> <li id="home"><a href="#"></a></li> </ul> This is what I'm toying with. I'm very new to jQuery and am having problems getting the proper selector going. $(document).ready(function(){ $('#home a'); // Set the 'normal' state background position .css( {backgroundPosition: "0 0"} ) // On mouse over, move the background .mouseover(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(0 -54px)"}, {duration:500}) }) // On mouse out, move the background back .mouseout(function(){ $(this).stop().animate({backgroundPosition:"(0 0)"}, {duration:500}) }) }); Could you point out what I'm doing wrong? I know the selector is probably incorrect but I'm having a hard time figuring out how to manipulate the anchor.

    Read the article

  • Efficient cron job utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

    - by fireeyedboy
    I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • What version control system is best designed to *prevent* concurrent editing?

    - by Fred Hamilton
    We've been using CVS (with TortoiseCVS interface) for years for both source control and wide-ranging document control (including binaries such as Word, Excel, Framemaker, test data, simulation results, etc.). Unlike typical version control systems, 99% of the time we want to prevent concurrent editing - when a user starts editing a file, the pre-edit version of the file becomes read only to everyone else. Many of the people who will be using this are not programmers or even that computer savvy, so we're also looking for a system that let's people simply add documents to the repository, check out and edit a document (unless someone else is currently editing it), and check it back in with a minimum of fuss. We've gotten this to work reasonably well with CVS + TortoiseCVS, but we're now considering Subversion and Mercurial (and open to others if they're a better fit) for their better version tracking, so I was wondering which one supported locking files most transparently. For example, we'd like exclusive locking enabled as the default, and we want to make it as difficult as possible for someone to accidentally start editing a file that someone else has checked out. For example when someone checks out a file for editing, it checks with the master database first even if they have not recently updated their sandbox. Maybe it even won't let a user check out a document if it's off the network and can't check in with the mothership.

    Read the article

  • I cannot grok MVC, what it is, and what it is not?

    - by Hao
    I cannot grok what MVC is, what mindset or programming model should I acquire so MVC stuff can instantly "lightbulb" on my head? If not instantly, what simple programs/projects should I try to do first so I can apply the neat things MVC brings to programming. OOP is intuitive and easier, object is all around us, and the benefits of code reuse using OOP-paradigm instantly click to anyone. You can probably talk to anybody about OOP in a few minutes and lecture some examples and they would get it. While OOP somehow raise the intuitiveness aspect of programming, MVC seems to do the opposite. I'm getting negative thoughts that some future employers(or even clients) would look down upon me for not using MVC technology. Though I probably get the skinnable aspect of MVC, but when I try to apply it to my own project, I don't know where to start. And also some programmers even have diverging views on how to accomplish MVC properly. Take this for instance from Jeff's post about MVC: The view is simply how you lay the data out, how it is displayed. If you want a subset of some data, for example, my opinion is that is a responsibility of the model. So maybe some programmers use MVC, but they somehow inadvertently use the View or the Controller to extract a subset of data. Why we can't have a definitive definition of what and how to accomplish MVC properly? And also, when I search for MVC .NET programs, most of it applies to web programs, not desktop apps, this intrigue me further. My guess is, this is most advantageous to web apps, there's not much problem about intermixed view(html) and controller(program code) in desktop apps.

    Read the article

  • Why would some $_POST variables go missing for a form with PHP?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Sometimes, multiple times a day in fact, users of my web application are submitting a certain form which has about a dozen form fields, half of which are hidden fields, and half of the $_POST data is simply not present in the processing script. Note that the fields that are not present are at the very bottom of the form. I know this because this raises a fatal error, and an email is dispatched to me which includes the post data. And of course, neither I nor any of the developers on my team can reproduce the problem. Flash is involved in the process, as I'm using a library called Uploadify to display a progress meter. Here is the flow...does anyone have ANY ideas at all why some of the post data would be getting wiped out? User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. This happens on multiple browsers (Firefox 3.5, 3.6, Safari, Internet Explorer 7, 8) and multiple platforms (Mac OS 10.5, 10.6 and Windows XP, 7).

    Read the article

  • NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse does not refresh project files in package explorer view

    - by EugeneP
    Today I see a strange behaviour of Eclipse 3.5.2 for the first time in 3 months. First, when I run a main function, it runs a previously compiled version. Let's say I press Ctrl+F11 in the window with an open java class and existing main function. Usually it rebuilds the class and runs a new version. Today even if there was a compile mistake, it would run fine. So I guess it does not recompile the class. Next, more strangely, if I intentionally make a mistake in the code and Eclipse underlines those lines in red, still the project Explorer does not mark them as containing errors. They remain of grey color if there were not any errors. First I did not know how to solve this problem. I tried to reopen the project, restart Eclipse and finally reboot the OS. After the tenth attempt, after rebooting, Eclipse said that all project's files are "OUT OF SYNC with the file system". When I pressed "Refresh" - F5 on a project's header name in Project Explorer it finally marked all the files with errors as containing errors and running the main function gave the desired result. An hour of my work passed and this happened again , with the other project. All the same. No marking of files as red, running no matter what old version of class with no compile errors. And since Eclipse does not tell that files are out of sync, simply pressing F5 on a project cannot help. What can you suggest?

    Read the article

  • Why does std::cout convert volatile pointers to bool?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    If you try to cout a volatile pointer, even a volatile char pointer where you would normally expect cout to print the string, you will instead simply get '1' (assuming the pointer is not null I think). I assume output stream operator<< is template specialized for volatile pointers, but my question is, why? What use case motivates this behavior? Example code: #include <iostream> #include <cstring> int main() { char x[500]; std::strcpy(x, "Hello world"); int y; int *z = &y; std::cout << x << std::endl; std::cout << (char volatile*)x << std::endl; std::cout << z << std::endl; std::cout << (int volatile*)z << std::endl; return 0; } Output: Hello world 1 0x8046b6c 1

    Read the article

  • BroadcastReceiver not triggered by Alarm

    - by Ezekiel Buchheit
    I am trying to set up an alarm that will run in the background and trigger (eventually) a save event. At the moment I simply have this code attached to a button. Press the button and the alarm should start leaving Toast messages behind as an indication that it is functioning. At the moment everything runs except the onReceive in the BroadcastReceiver is never triggered. Here is my code: The class setting up the alarm: //FIXME - rename (ie BackgroundSave; more descriptive) public class AlarmReceiver extends Service{ //FIXME - make sure you kill the service public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); Toast.makeText(getApplication().getApplicationContext(), "Service onCreate called", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startId) { Toast.makeText(getApplication().getApplicationContext(), "Service started", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); setAlarm(AlarmReceiver.this); // We want this service to continue running until it is explicitly // stopped, so return sticky. return START_STICKY; } public void setAlarm(Context c) { AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager)c.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); Intent i = new Intent(c, Alarm.class); PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(c, 0, i, 0); alarmManager.setRepeating(AlarmManager.ELAPSED_REALTIME_WAKEUP, System.currentTimeMillis() + 1000, 1000, pi); Toast.makeText(c.getApplicationContext(), "setAlarm called", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } public void cancelAlarm(Context context) { Intent intent = new Intent(context, Alarm.class); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) context.getSystemService(Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.cancel(sender); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } } Here is the BroadcastReceiver: public class Alarm extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(context, "Alarm", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } And here is my manifest: <!-- Alarm --> <service android:name="com.xxxx.android.tools.AlarmReceiver" android:enabled="true" /> <receiver android:name="com.xxxx.android.tools.Alarm" ></receiver> The alarm onReceive is never triggered.

    Read the article

  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

    Read the article

  • Navigation Controller Views in Landscape

    - by Mahadevan S
    Hi, I have set up a navigation controller ( navController ) in Portrait mode to which I push all the viewcontrollers I have. Now when a user switches to Landscape mode, I need to display all the views as a coverflow. For this I use [navController viewControllers] to get all the view controllers in the stack. In the Landscape view controller NSArray * arr = [navController viewControllers]; self.view = [arr objectAtIndex:0]; [arr objectAtIndex:0]; returns the correct view ( the bottombost viewcontroller's view in the nav stack ). My problem is these views never get displayed ie the views extracted from the navController never gets displayed. If i try to create a new view and insert all the subviews of a view, it gets displayed. eg : UIView * newView = [[UIView alloc] init]; for (UIView *subView in [arr objectAtIndex:0]) [newView addSubView:subView]; self.view = newView; The above piece of code works. But simply adding the view doesnt seem to work.. Can anyone explain the solution? Many thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I do batch image processing with ImageJ in Java or clojure?

    - by Robert McIntyre
    I want to use ImageJ to do some processing of several thousand images. Is there a way to take any general imageJ plugin and apply it to hundreds of images automatically? For example, say I want to take my thousand images and apply a polar transformation to each--- A polar transformation plugin for ImageJ can be found here: http://rsbweb.nih.gov/ij/plugins/polar-transformer.html Great! Let's use it. From: [http://albert.rierol.net/imagej_programming_tutorials.html#How%20to%20automate%20an%20ImageJ%20dialog] I find that I can apply a plugin using the following: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" ""))) This is good because it suppresses the dialog which would otherwise pop up for every image. But running this always brings up a window containing the transformed image, when what I want is to simply return the transformed image. The stupidest way to do what I want is to just close the window that comes up and return the image which it was displaying. Does what I want but is absolutely retarded: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" "") (let [return-image (IJ/getImage)] (.hide return-image) return-image))) I'm obviously missing something about how to use imageJ plugins in a programming context. Does anyone know the right way to do this? Thanks, --Robert McIntyre

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint OLE DB - cannot insert records? "Field not updateable" error

    - by Pandincus
    I need to write a simple C# .NET application to retrieve, update, and insert some data in a Sharepoint list. I am NOT a Sharepoint developer, and I don't have control over our Sharepoint server. I would prefer not to have to develop this in a proper sharepoint development environment simply because I don't want to have to deploy my application on the Sharepoint server -- I'd rather just access data externally. Anyway, I found out that you can access Sharepoint data using OLE DB, and I tried it successfully using some ADO.NET: var db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("SELECT * FROM List")) { db.LoadDataSet(command, ds, "List"); } The above works. However, when I try to insert: using (var command = db.GetSqlStringCommand("INSERT INTO List ([HeaderName], [Description], [Number]) VALUES ('Blah', 'Blah', 100)")) { db.ExecuteNonQuery(command); } I get this error: Cannot update 'HeaderName'; field not updateable. I did some Googling and apparently you cannot insert data through OLE DB! Does anyone know if there are some possible workarounds? I could try using Sharepoint Web Services, but I tried that initially and was having a heck of a time authenticating. Is that my only option?

    Read the article

  • A simple WCF Service (POX) without complex serialization

    - by jammer59
    I'm a complete WCF novice. I'm trying to build a deploy a very, very simple IIS 7.0 hosted web service. For reasons outside of my control it must be WCF and not ASMX. It's a wrapper service for a pre-existing web application that simply does the following: 1) Receives a POST request with the request body XML-encapsulated form elements. Something like valuevalue. This is untyped XML and the XML is atomic (a form) and not a list of records/objects. 2) Add a couple of tags to the request XML and the invoke another HTTP-based service with a simple POST + bare XML -- this will actually be added by some internal SQL ops but that isn't the issue. 3) Receive the XML response from the 3rd party service and relay it as the response to the original calling client in Step 1. The clients (step 1) will be some sort of web-based scripting but could be anything .aspx, python, php, etc. I can't have SOAP and the usual WCF-based REST examples with their contracts and serialization have me confused. This seems like a very common and very simple problem conceptually. It would be easy to implement in code but IIS-hosted WCF is a requirement. Any pointers?

    Read the article

  • OAuth secrets in mobile apps

    - by Felixyz
    When using the OAuth protocol, you need a secret string obtained from the service you want to delegate to. If you are doing this in a web app, you can simply store the secret in your data base or on the file system, but what is the best way to handle it in a mobile app (or a desktop app for that matter)? Storing the string in the app is obviously not good, as someone could easily find it and abuse it. Another approach would be to store it on you server, and have the app fetch it on every run, never storing it on the phone. This is almost as bad, because you have to include the URL in the app. I don't believe using https is any help. The only workable solution I can come up with is to first obtain the Access Token as normal (preferably using a web view inside the app), and then route all further communication through our server, where a script would append the secret to the request data and communicates with the provider. Then again, I'm a security noob, so I'd really like to hear some knowledgeable peoples' opinions on this. It doesn't seem to me that most apps are going to these lengths to guarantee security (for example, Facebook Connect seems to assume that you put the secret into a string right in your app). Another thing: I don't believe the secret is involved in initially requesting the Access Token, so that could be done without involving our own server. Am I correct?

    Read the article

  • IE: Undocumented "cache" attribute defined for input elements?

    - by aefxx
    Hi everybody. I've stumpled upon a strange behavior in IE(6/7/8) that drives me nuts. Given the following markup: <input type="text" value="foo" class="bar" cache="yes" send="no" /> Please note that the cache attribute is set to yes. However IE somehow manages to change the attributes value to cache="cache" when rendering the DOM. So, I wonder, is there an undocumented feature that I'm not aware of? I've googled about an hour now but couldn't find any info on this (not even on MSDN). NOTE I'm aware that adding custom attributes is non-standard compliant and that boolean attributes should be noted as attribute="attribute. Nevertheless I have to cope with these as they were introduced long before I joined the team. These custom attributes are used in conjunction with javascript to provide a more user friendly approach to form handling (and it works out quite well with Firefox/Safari/Opera/Chrome). I know that I could simply convert these custom attributes to x-data attributes that will be introduced with HTML5 but that would take me several hours of extra work - sigh. Hope, I made myself clear. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

    - by Kenneth
    I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

    Read the article

  • Why is my logic not working correctly for SPOJ TOPOSORT?

    - by Kavish Dwivedi
    The given problem is http://www.spoj.com/problems/TOPOSORT/ The output format is particularly important as : Print "Sandro fails." if Sandro cannot complete all his duties on the list. If there is a solution print the correct ordering, the jobs to be done separated by a whitespace. If there are multiple solutions print the one, whose first number is smallest, if there are still multiple solutions, print the one whose second number is smallest, and so on. What I am doing is simply doing dfs by reversing the edges i.e if job A finishes before job B, there is a directed edge from B to A . I am maintaining the order by sorting the adjacency list I created and storing the nodes which don't have any constraints separately so as to print them later in correct order . There are two flag arrays used , one for marking discovered node and one for marking the node whose all neighbors have been explored. Now my solution is http://www.ideone.com/QCUmKY (the important function is the visit funtion ) and its giving WA after running correct for 10 cases so its really hard to figure out where am I doing it wrong since it runs for all of the test cases which I have done by hand.

    Read the article

  • Specific complex array sorting

    - by TheDeadMedic
    Okay, a before; Array ( 'home' => array('order' => 1), 'about' => array(), 'folio' => array('order' => 2), 'folio/web' => array('order' => 2), 'folio/print' => array('order' => 1) 'contact' => array('order' => 2) ) And a desired after; Array ( 'home' => array('order' => 1), 'contact' => array('order' => 2), 'folio' => array('order' => 2), 'folio/print' => array('order' => 1), 'folio/web' => array('order' => 2), 'about' => array() ) I know, horrific (don't ask!) See how the slash in the key indicates children, and how the order is nested accordingly? And items without orders are simply shifted to the bottom. But also how multiple 'same level' items with the same order are merely sorted by key?

    Read the article

  • 3 Servers, is this is a cluster?

    - by Andy Barlow
    Hello, At the moment I have one Ubuntu server, 9.10, running with a simple Samba share, a mail server, DNS server and DHCP server. Mostly its just there for file sharing and email server. I also have 2 other servers that are exactly the same hardware and spec as the first, which have an rsync set up to retrieve the shared folders and backs them up. However, if the first server goes down, all of our shares disappear along with our mail and the system must be rebuilt. Also I tend to find if people are downloading a large amount from the file server, no-one can access there emails - especially in the morning when everyone is signing in at once. Would it be more beneficial for me to have all 3 servers, all running the same services, doing the same thing with some sort of cluster with load balancing? I'm not really sure where to begin looking, or how to go about such a setup where 3 servers are all identical, but perhaps one acts as the main load balancer?? If someone can point me in the right direction, or if this simply sounds like one of those Enterprise Cloud's that is now a default setup in Ubuntu Server 9.10+, then I'll go down that route. Cheers in advance. Andy

    Read the article

  • Using NHibernate to select entities based on activity of children entities

    - by mannish
    I'm having a case of the Mondays... I need to select blog posts based on recent activity in the post's comments collection (a Post has a List<Comment> property and likewise, a Comment has a Post property, establishing the relationship. I don't want to show the same post twice, and I only need a subset of the entities, not all of the posts. First thought was to grab all posts that have comments, then order those based on the most recent comment. For this to work, I'm pretty sure I'd have to limit the comments for each Post to the first/newest Comment. Last I'd simply take the top 5 (or whatever max results number I want to pass into the method). Second thought would be to grab all of the comments, ordered by CreatedOn, and filter so there's only one Comment per Post. Then return those top (whatever) posts. This seems like the same as the first option, just going through the back door. I've got an ugly, two query option I've got working with some LINQ on the side for filtering, but I know there's a more elegant way to do it in using the NHibernate API. Hoping to see some good ideas here.

    Read the article

  • Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

    - by eliel.lobo
    I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Help understanding the Single Responsibility Principle

    - by user204588
    I'm trying to understand what a responsibility actually is so I want to use an example of something I'm currently working on. I have a app that imports product information from one system to another system. The user of the apps gets to choose various settings for which product fields in one system that want to use in the other system. So I have a class, say ProductImporter and it's responsibility is to import products. This class is large, probably too large. The methods in this class are complex and would be for example, getDescription. This method doesn't simply grab a description from the other system but sets a product description based on various settings set by the user. If I were to add a setting and a new way to get a description, this class could change. So, is that two responsibilities? Is there one that imports products and one that gets a description. It would seem this way, almost every method I have would be in it's own class and that seems like overkill. I really need a good description of this principle because it's hard for me to completely understand. I don't want needless complexity.

    Read the article

  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

    Read the article

  • image analysis and 64bit OS

    - by picciopiccio
    I developed a C# application that makes use of Congex vision library (VPro). My application is developed with Visual Studio 2008 Pro on a 32bit Windows PC with 3GB of RAM. During the startup of application I see that a large amount of memory is allocated. So far so good, but when I add many and many vision elaboration the memory allocation increases and a part of application (only Cognex OCX) stops working well. The rest of application stills to work (working threads, com on socket....) I did whatever I could to save memory, but when the memory allocated is about 700MB I begin to have the problems. A note on the documentation of Cognex library tells that /LARGEADDRESSWARE is not supported. Anyway I'm thinking to try the migration of my app on win64 but what do I have to do? Can I simply use a processor with 64bit and windows 64bit without recompiling my application that would remain a 32bit application to take advantage of 64bit ? Or I should recompile my application ? If I don't need to recompile my application, can I link it with 64bit Congnex library? If I have to recompile my application, is it possible to cross compile the application so that my develop suite is on a 32bit PC? Every help will be very appreciated!! Thank in advance

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338  | Next Page >