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  • How Can I Generate Equivalent Output Using the CryptoAPI and the .NET Encryption (TripleDESCryptoSer

    - by S. Butts
    I have some C#/.NET code that encrypts and decrypts data using TripleDES encryption. It sticks to the sample code provided at MSDN pretty closely. The encryption piece looks like the following: TripleDESCryptoServiceProvider _desProvider = new TripleDESCryptoServiceProvider(); //bytes for key and initialization vector //keyBytes is 24 bytes of stuff, vectorBytes is 8 bytes of stuff byte[] keyBytes; byte[] vectorBytes; FileStream fStream = File.Open(locationOfFile, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); CryptoStream cStream = new CryptoStream(fStream, _desProvider.CreateEncryptor(keyBytes, vectorBytes), CryptoStreamMode.Write); BinaryWriter bWriter = new BinaryWriter(cStream); //write out encrypted data //raw data is a few bytes of binary information byte[] rawData; bWriter.Write(rawData); With encrypting and decrypting in C#, this all works like a charm. The problem is I need to write a small Win32 utility that will duplicate the encryption above. I have tried several methods using the CryptoAPI, and I simply do not get output that the .NET piece can decrypt, no matter what I do. Can someone please tell me what the equivalent C++ code is that will produce the same output? I am not certain just what methods of the CryptoAPI the .NET functions use to encrypt the data. What options are used, and what method of generating the key is used? Before someone suggests that I just write it in C# anyway, or create some common library bridge for them, those options are unfortunately off the table. It really has to work in Win32 with .NET and without using a DLL. I have some leeway in changing the C# code. I apologize in advance if this is bone-headed, as I am new to encryption.

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  • Why won't my program terminate?

    - by Qwertie
    I have a .NET Compact Framework app that can runs on three windows machines (Desktop windows and two WinCE machines) and on the WinCE devices, the process never terminates on exit, even if I call Application.Exit(). Besides .NET, it uses one COM component (which does everything on the UI thread). If I break into the debugger after exitting, Visual Studio shows only one thread and a completely blank call stack. What could possibly cause this? Update: My process is terminating on the desktop but not the WinCE machines. I tried to force the process to terminate with the following code, but it doesn't work: [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int TerminateProcess(IntPtr hProcess, uint uExitCode); static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); } There are also supposed to be ExitProcess() and GetCurrentProcess() APIs like the following, but if I try to call them, I get EntryPointNotFoundException. Therefore I am using TerminateProcess(-1, 0) because the documentation for the desktop version of GetCurrentProcess claims that it simply returns -1. [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int ExitProcess(IntPtr hProcess); [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetCurrentProcess(); Even if I do this: static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); throw new Exception("Trying to force quit."); } A fatal error dialog appears with a helpful "Quit" button, but pushing the button still does not cause the process to terminate on either machine!

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  • jeditable not updating browser display - leaves "click to edit..." after succesful edit

    - by Enoch
    I am using jeditable fairly simply and it all works fine, updates the database, etc. The only problem I have is after the user types the new value data and hits enter it doesn't update the field in the browser to show the new value - instead it puts "Click to edit..." in place of it. Am I missing something like a return value from my php file? the php fucntion just takes the args and updates the database - and it works fine. Enoch the jquery\jeditable code $('.edit').editable('update.php',{ id: 'field', name: 'val', indicator: 'Saving...', tooltip: 'Click to edit...', select : true, submitdata : { db : "pers", kn : "key", rec : "?php echo $rec; ?" } }); the div <div class="edit" id="svc_ad1"><?php echo $row-svc_ad1; ?>< /div> i also have a css class for pEdit edit{ float:left; width:200px; height:15px; margin-bottom:5px; border-bottom:1px solid #aaaaaa; }

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  • Help understanding the Single Responsibility Principle

    - by user204588
    I'm trying to understand what a responsibility actually is so I want to use an example of something I'm currently working on. I have a app that imports product information from one system to another system. The user of the apps gets to choose various settings for which product fields in one system that want to use in the other system. So I have a class, say ProductImporter and it's responsibility is to import products. This class is large, probably too large. The methods in this class are complex and would be for example, getDescription. This method doesn't simply grab a description from the other system but sets a product description based on various settings set by the user. If I were to add a setting and a new way to get a description, this class could change. So, is that two responsibilities? Is there one that imports products and one that gets a description. It would seem this way, almost every method I have would be in it's own class and that seems like overkill. I really need a good description of this principle because it's hard for me to completely understand. I don't want needless complexity.

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  • How to avoid game rendering component circular references?

    - by CodexArcanum
    I'm working on a simple game design, and I wanted to break up my game objects into more reusable components. But I'm getting stuck on how exactly to implement the design I have in mind. Here's an example: I have a Logger object, whose job is simply to store a list of messages and render them to screen. You know, logging. Originally the Logger just held the list, and the game loop rendered it's contents. Then I moved the rendering logic into the Logger.Draw() method, and now I want to move it further into a LoggerRenderer object. In effect, I want to have the game loop call RenderAll, which will then call Logger.Render, which will in turn call the LoggerRenderer.Render and finally output the text. So the Logger needs to contain a Renderer object, but the Renderer needs access to the Logger's state (the message queue) in order to render. How do I resolve that? Should I be passing in the message queue and other state information explicitly to the Render method? Or should the game loop be calling the Renderer directly and it links back to the logger, but the RenderAll method never actually sees the logger object itself? This feels kind of like Command pattern, but I'm botching it up terribly.

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

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  • Why is an Add method required for { } initialization?

    - by Dan Tao
    To use initialization syntax like this: var contacts = new ContactList { { "Dan", "[email protected]" }, { "Eric", "[email protected]" } }; ...my understanding is that my ContactList type would need to define an Add method that takes two string parameters: public void Add(string name, string email); What's a bit confusing to me about this is that the { } initializer syntax seems most useful when creating read-only or fixed-size collections. After all it is meant to mimic the initialization syntax for an array, right? (OK, so arrays are not read-only; but they are fixed size.) And naturally it can only be used when the collection's contents are known (at least the number of elements) at compile-time. So it would almost seem that the main requirement for using this collection initializer syntax (having an Add method and therefore a mutable collection) is at odds with the typical case in which it would be most useful. I'm sure I haven't put as much thought into this matter as the C# design team; it just seems that there could have been different rules for this syntax that would have meshed better with its typical usage scenarios. Am I way off base here? Is the desire to use the { } syntax to initialize fixed-size collections not as common as I think? What other factors might have influenced the formulation of the requirements for this syntax that I'm simply not thinking of?

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  • Possible bug in ASP.net UpdatePanel control?

    - by Ben Robinson
    I have come across what seems to be an annoying bug with asp.net UpdatePanels in 2 seperate projects. If you have some kind of autopostback enabled control that can cause all of the controls in the update panel to have visible=false set, resulting in an empty update panel. When you change the autopostback control back to the postion that would re enable all of the controls in the update panel, it simply does not make a call back to the server and the update panel does not update. If you do anything else that makes a call back on the same page, then the update panel contents magically appear. It is as if asp.net has decided the update panel is empty so there is no point maikng a callback, even though making the call back would fill the updatepanel with content. The only way round this is to add a style of display:none to the controls instead of setting visible=false property. Then it works fine. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is it a bug as i suspect or is it likely i am doing soemthing wrong? I haven't got time to post example code at the moment as the code i am using is too wrapped up in other unrealted things, if people think it would help i will create a simple example and post it when I get time.

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  • How to improve Java performance on Informix for Windows

    - by Michal Niklas
    I have problem with performance of Java UDR functions on Informix on Windows. On this server I already have some functions in C and SPL. I chose one function to write it in those 3 languages and I measured performance of this function on test table. Function calculates some kind of checksum so it does not use any db libraries etc. only string and math operations. I observed performance on 30k records with SQL like: select function(txt) from _tmp_perf_test and I changed function to 'function_c, function_spl or function_java. My performance tests showed that C function is the fastest, SPL function is about 5 times slower, where Java is 100 (one hundred!) times slower than C. I checked it few times and 1:100 ratio didn't improve. I changed Java function to simply return length of the string but even this do not help so it looks, that there is general problem with Java function invocation, because there was no difference in time between Java function that calculate checksum and Java function that returns length of the string. I increased JVM_MAX_HEAP_SIZE to 128 and it not helped too. I use IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 11.50.TC6DE. The same test on Linux server: IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 11.50.FC6 show more "normal" results, i.e. Java is slower from C and SPL but only 2 to 5 times. What can I do to improve Java performance on Informix server on Windows? More info about Java on servers: c:\Informix\extend\krakatoa\jre\bin>java -version java version "1.5.0" Java(TM) 2 Runtime Environment, Standard Edition (build pwi32dev-20081129a (SR9-0 )) IBM J9 VM (build 2.3, J2RE 1.5.0 IBM J9 2.3 Windows Server 2003 x86-32 j9vmwi3223-20081129 (JIT enabled) J9VM - 20081126_26240_lHdSMr JIT - 20081112_1511ifx1_r8 GC - 200811_07) JCL - 20081129 [root@informix11 bin]# ./java -version java version "1.5.0" Java(TM) 2 Runtime Environment, Standard Edition (build pxa64devifx-20071025 (SR6b)) IBM J9 VM (build 2.3, J2RE 1.5.0 IBM J9 2.3 Linux amd64-64 j9vmxa6423-20071005 (JIT enabled) J9VM - 20071004_14218_LHdSMr JIT - 20070820_1846ifx1_r8 GC - 200708_10) JCL - 20071025

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  • Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

    - by eliel.lobo
    I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Which Java Framework is best suited for a web application with reusable content/behavior

    - by Jacob
    I come from a .NET background and need to do a web project in Java. I have read a bit on all the different Java web frameworks out there: JSF, Stripes, Wicket, Tapestry etc. But I would like to hear from people with real-life expertise with these frameworks. Of course I want a framework that is up to date, supports AJAX, is cool and so on, but one of my main criteria is the ability to somehow create reusable components / tags. The customer needs to be able to move tags/components around without too much problem in order to customize it for their specific needs. In ASP.NET Webforms I would use custom controls and user controls for this, and in ASP.NET MVC I would use user controls as well as home made custom controls. So what Java frameworks excel in this? My own superficial research seems to conclude that JSF supports some kind of custom controls (Bear in mind i am not only talking about layout reuse, but also behavior reuse, so if for example the customer / client wants a customer list on page x and not only on page Y, he would simply put in a <jr:CustomerList runat="server" .... /> (fictional example with ASP.NET Webforms syntax)).

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  • SyntaxHighlighter and Line Break Tags

    - by azamsharp
    I am using the following syntax highligher: http://alexgorbatchev.com/wiki/SyntaxHighlighter For some reason when it encounter <br> it simply prints out <br> tags. I cannot replace the whole thing with System.Environment.NewLine since it will mess up the complete description. Here is my code: public static string GetDescription(string description) { string codeStartPattern = "&lt;code&gt;"; string codeEndPattern = "&lt;/code&gt;"; Regex reg = new Regex(codeStartPattern); description = reg.Replace(description, ReplaceWithStartDiv); reg = new Regex(codeEndPattern); description = reg.Replace(description, ReplaceWithEndDiv); return description; } private static string ReplaceWithStartDiv(Match m) { return "<script type='syntaxhighlighter' class='brush: csharp'><![CDATA["; } private static string ReplaceWithEndDiv(Match m) { return "]]></script>"; } I guess I only need to replace <br> with System.Environment.Newline with the code that is between the <code> snippet here </code> Thanks!

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  • Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

    - by Michael Tiller
    Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

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  • My Website was hacked using Statcounter! Does Statcounter keep a record of cookies?

    - by Cyril Gupta
    I had a rather interesting case of hacking on my ASP.Net MVC website. For this website I had implemented a rather uncomplicated authentication system for my admin area -- an encrypted cookie which had an identifying signature for the member. Whenever the admin visits the website the cookie would be decrypted and signature verified. If matching he wouldn't have to sign in. Couple of days ago a visitor on my site told me that he was able to sign into my website simply by clicking no a referral link on his Statcounter console which pointed to my admin area (I had visited his site from a link inside my admin view). He just clicked on a link in statcounter and he was signed in as the admin! The only way this could have happened was if statcounter somehow recorded my cookies and used those when he clicked on the link pointing to my admin! Is that logical or fathomable? I don't understand what's going on. Do you have any suggestions as to how I can protect my website against things like this?

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  • How to Deserialize Missing Fields To Nulls

    - by Nathan
    I am working on a .NET project where several versions of the same type of object have been created over the life of the project - most new versions add a field or two. However, now I am looking to mitigate problems for users with an old version. My goal is that when a user tries to open an old version of the serialized object with the new program, the program will automatically assign default values to the fields that are missing from the depreciated version of the file. For example, say I had a class with two boolean fields - RepeatSound and RepeatForever. The first version of the program doesn't know how to repeat forever, so it only saved RepeatSound: <anyType xsi:type="Sound"> <RepeatSound>true</RepeatSound> </anyType> but the new files look like this: <anyType xsi:type="Sound"> <RepeatSound>true</RepeatSound> <RepeatForever>true</RepeatForever> </anyType> My goal is that when I deserialize the first file in the new program that it will create the Sound object but simply default the value of RepeatForever to false. Right now trying to deserialize the first object would throw an exception. Thank you in advance for any responses

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  • session regeneration in tomcat ?

    - by shrini1000
    Hi, I am using Spring security to secure my Java web application which is deployed in tomcat. I found out that it is vulnerable to session fixation attacks because tomcat does not create a new session upon successful log in. On debugging some more, here's what I found. For the following code (which is supposed to create a new session - pl. note, it's just a snippet and not full code): HttpSession session = request.getSession(false); session.invalidate(); session = request.getSession(true); // we now have a new session I thought a new session will be created, but tomcat simply uses the same session that got invalidated and hence the session id does not change. I searched online and found a solution which uses a 'valve' - http://marvinsmutterings.blogspot.com/2010/02/fixing-session-fixation-in-liferay-on.html but could not get it to work because it's looking for a jboss logging class and when I add it to lib, I get a reflection exception and the server doesn't start up. I'm using tomcat 5.5.28. Will be glad to have any pointers. Pl. let me know if you need more details, since I don't want to make this post too long. Sincere thanks!

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  • What makes merging in DVCS easy?

    - by afriza
    I read at Joel on Software: With distributed version control, the distributed part is actually not the most interesting part. The interesting part is that these systems think in terms of changes, not in terms of versions. and at HgInit: When we have to merge, Subversion tries to look at both revisions—my modified code, and your modified code—and it tries to guess how to smash them together in one big unholy mess. It usually fails, producing pages and pages of “merge conflicts” that aren’t really conflicts, simply places where Subversion failed to figure out what we did. By contrast, while we were working separately in Mercurial, Mercurial was busy keeping a series of changesets. And so, when we want to merge our code together, Mercurial actually has a whole lot more information: it knows what each of us changed and can reapply those changes, rather than just looking at the final product and trying to guess how to put it together. By looking at the SVN's repository folder, I have the impression that Subversion is maintaining each revisions as changeset. And from what I know, Hg is using both changeset and snapshot while Git is purely using snapshot to store the data. If my assumption is correct, then there must be other ways that make merging in DVCS easy. What are those?

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  • Custom DataType in DataTemplate breaks WPF designer

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

    - by revive
    Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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  • Status Code from FTPWebRequest GetResponse method

    - by nick
    This is slightly tricky. I am uploading files to FTP asynchronously. After uploading each file I am checking the status of the upload operation for that file. This can be done with StatusCode property of the FtpWebResponse object for that request. The code snippet is as give below. System.IO.FileStream fs = System.IO.File.Open(fileName, System.IO.FileMode.Open); while ((iWork = fs.Read(buf, 0, buf.Length)) > 0) requestStream.Write(buf, 0, iWork); requestStream.Close(); FtpWebResponse wrRet = ((FtpWebResponse)state.Request.GetResponse()); There are about 37 StatusCode values as per msdn. I am unaware as to which of these status code values will assure that the file is uploaded successfully. Some of them I used in my code to check for success are : wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.CommandOK wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ClosingData wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ClosingControl wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.ConnectionClosed wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.FileActionOK wrRet.StatusCode == FtpStatusCode.FileStatus But I am unaware of the rest. I need to be sure about these codes because based on the failure or success of the upload operation I have other dependant operations to be carried out. A wrong condition can affect the remaining code. Another thought that crossed my mind was to simply put the above code into a try..catch and not depend on these status codes. With this I would not be depending on the status codes and assuming that any failure will always be directed to the catch block. Kindly let me know if this is the right way. Thanks in advance.

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  • Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

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  • are there code signing certificates cheaper than US $99 per year? [closed]

    - by gerryLowry
    ksoftware discounts Commodo code signing certificates to US $99 per year. in the past, I've seen Commodo code signing certificates for US $80. I'm excluding CAcert which AFAIK are FREE but are not covered by browsers like IE AFAIK. QUESTION: What is the best price per year for a code signing certificate? Thank you ~~ gerry (lowry) Edit: **THIS SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN CLOSED** from the FAQ: http://stackoverflow.com/faq ---------------------------- What kind of questions can I ask here? Programming questions, of course! As long as your question is: * detailed and specific <====== YES! * written clearly and simply <====== YES! * of interest to other programmers <====== YES! I've been programming for over 40 years. http://gerrylowryprogrammer.com/ I've taught computer programming at the community college level. I'm a Star level contributer to forums.asp.net. http://forums.asp.net/members/gerrylowry.aspx imo, I've a very good idea what is of interest to other programmers. MORE INFORMATION Ensuring the integrity of code and executables that one distributes is just as much about programming as is knowing how to flip bits in assembler, use delegates in c#, and use the BDD context/specification still of "test first testing".

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  • Iphone CATextLayer doesn't show it's text.

    - by lovecactus
    Here is my new bee issue: I was simply trying to add a CATextlayer in an UIView layer. However, according to the following code, I only get the CATextlayer's background color be displayed in the UIView, without any text. Just wonder what did I missed to display the text. Could anyone ofter a hint/sample how to use CATextlayer? Thanks. (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if ((self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil])) { // Custom initialization CATextLayer *TextLayer = [CATextLayer layer]; TextLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); TextLayer.string = @"Test"; TextLayer.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18].fontName; TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor].CGColor; TextLayer.wrapped = NO; //TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f)]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; [self.view.layer addSublayer:TextLayer]; [self.view.layer layoutSublayers]; } return self; }

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  • Rot13 for numbers.

    - by dreeves
    EDIT: Now a Major Motion Blog Post at http://messymatters.com/sealedbids The idea of rot13 is to obscure text, for example to prevent spoilers. It's not meant to be cryptographically secure but to simply make sure that only people who are sure they want to read it will read it. I'd like to do something similar for numbers, for an application involving sealed bids. Roughly I want to send someone my number and trust them to pick their own number, uninfluenced by mine, but then they should be able to reveal mine (purely client-side) when they're ready. They should not require further input from me or any third party. (Added: Note the assumption that the recipient is being trusted not to cheat.) It's not as simple as rot13 because certain numbers, like 1 and 2, will recur often enough that you might remember that, say, 34.2 is really 1. Here's what I'm looking for specifically: A function seal() that maps a real number to a real number (or a string). It should not be deterministic -- seal(7) should not map to the same thing every time. But the corresponding function unseal() should be deterministic -- unseal(seal(x)) should equal x for all x. I don't want seal or unseal to call any webservices or even get the system time (because I don't want to assume synchronized clocks). (Added: It's fine to assume that all bids will be less than some maximum, known to everyone, say a million.) Sanity check: > seal(7) 482.2382 # some random-seeming number or string. > seal(7) 71.9217 # a completely different random-seeming number or string. > unseal(seal(7)) 7 # we always recover the original number by unsealing.

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