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  • Stack and queue operations on the same array.

    - by Passonate Learner
    Hi. I've been thinking about a program logic, but I cannot draw a conclusion to my problem. Here, I've implemented stack and queue operations to a fixed array. int A[1000]; int size=1000; int top; int front; int rear; bool StackIsEmpty() { return (top==0); } bool StackPush( int x ) { if ( top >= size ) return false; A[top++] = x; return true; } int StackTop( ) { return A[top-1]; } bool StackPop() { if ( top <= 0 ) return false; A[--top] = 0; return true; } bool QueueIsEmpty() { return (front==rear); } bool QueuePush( int x ) { if ( rear >= size ) return false; A[rear++] = x; return true; } int QueueFront( ) { return A[front]; } bool QueuePop() { if ( front >= rear ) return false; A[front++] = 0; return true; } It is presumed(or obvious) that the bottom of the stack and the front of the queue is pointing at the same location, and vice versa(top of the stack points the same location as rear of the queue). For example, integer 1 and 2 is inside an array in order of writing. And if I call StackPop(), the integer 2 will be popped out, and if I call QueuePop(), the integer 1 will be popped out. My problem is that I don't know what happens if I do both stack and queue operations on the same array. The example above is easy to work out, because there are only two values involved. But what if there are more than 2 values involved? For example, if I call StackPush(1); QueuePush(2); QueuePush(4); StackPop(); StackPush(5); QueuePop(); what values will be returned in the order of bottom(front) from the final array? I know that if I code a program, I would receive a quick answer. But the reason I'm asking this is because I want to hear a logical explanations from a human being, not a computer.

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  • Javascript form validation - what's lacking?

    - by box9
    I've tried out two javascript form validation frameworks - jQuery validation, and jQuery Tools validator - and I've found both of them lacking. jQuery validation lacks the clear separation between the concepts of "validating" and "displaying validation errors", and is highly inflexible when it comes to displaying dynamic error messages. jQuery Tools on the other hand lacks decent remote validation support (to check if a username exists for example). Even though jQuery validation supports remote validation, the built-in method requires the server to respond in a particular format. In both cases, any sort of asynchronous validation is a pain, as is defining rules for dependencies between multiple inputs. I'm thinking of rolling my own framework to address these shortcomings, but first I want to ask... have others experienced similar annoyances with javascript validation? What did you end up doing? What are some common validation requirements you've had which really should be catered for? And are there other, much better frameworks out there which I've missed? I'm looking primarily at jQuery-based frameworks, though well-implemented frameworks built on other libraries can still provide some useful ideas.

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  • How to create a function with vectors and vertical asymptote using MATLAB

    - by Pedro J Trinidad
    Plot the function f(x) = 1.5x / x-4 for -10 equal or less than X equal or less than 10. Notice that the function have a vertical asymptote at x = 4. Plot the function by creating two vectors for the domain of x. The first vector (call it x1) with elements from -10 to 3.7, and the second vector (calle it x2) with elements from 4.3 to 10. For each of the X vector create a Y vector (call them y1 and y2) with the corresponding values of Y according to the function. To plot the function make two curves in the same plot (y1 vs. x1 and y2 vs. x2).

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  • Winforms: calling entry form function from a different class

    - by samy
    I'm kinda new to programming and got a question on what is a good practice. I created a class that represents a ball and it has a function Jump() that use 2 timers and get the ball up and down. I know that in Winforms you got to call Invalidate() every time you want to repaint the screen, or part of it. I didn't find a good way to do that, so I reference the form in my class, and called Invalidate() inside my ball class every time I need to repaint to ball movement. (this works but I got a feeling that this is not a good practice) Here is the class I created: public class Ball { public Form1 parent;//----> here is the reference to the form public Rectangle ball; Size size; public Point p; Timer timerBallGoUp = new Timer(); Timer timerBallGDown = new Timer(); public int ballY; public Ball(Size _size, Point _p) { size = _size; p = _p; ball = new Rectangle(p, size); } public void Jump() { ballY = p.Y; timerBallGDown.Elapsed += ballGoDown; timerBallGDown.Interval = 50; timerBallGoUp.Elapsed += ballGoUp; timerBallGoUp.Interval = 50; timerBallGoUp.Start(); } private void ballGoUp(object obj,ElapsedEventArgs e) { p.Y++; ball.Location = new Point(ball.Location.X, p.Y); if (p.Y >= ballY + 50) { timerBallGoUp.Stop(); timerBallGDown.Start(); } parent.Invalidate(); // here i call parent.Invalidate() 1 } private void ballGoDown(object obj, ElapsedEventArgs e) { p.Y--; ball.Location = new Point(ball.Location.X, p.Y); if (p.Y <= ballY) { timerBallGDown.Stop(); timerBallGoUp.Start(); } parent.Invalidate(); // here i call parent.Invalidate() 2 } } I'm wondring if there is a better way to do that? (sorry for my english)

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  • When binding a client TCP socket to a specific local port with Winsock, SO_REUSEADDR does not have a

    - by Checkers
    I'm binding a client TCP socket to a specific local port. To handle the situation where the socket remains in TIME_WAIT state for some time, I use setsockopt() with SO_REUSEADDR on a socket. It works on Linux, but does not work on Windows, I get WSAEADDRINUSE on connect() call when the previous connection is still in TIME_WAIT. MSDN is not exactly clear what should happen with client sockets: [...] For server applications that need to bind multiple sockets to the same port number, consider using setsockopt (SO_REUSEADDR). Client applications usually need not call bind at all—connect chooses an unused port automatically. [...] How do I avoid this?

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  • Insert an ajaxified Webpart into an existing MOSS site

    - by mamoo
    Hi everybody, I need to code a webpart which purpose is to asynchronously fetch some documents and display them into an existing page. Unfortunately I have to face a lot of rescritcions and my struggle to find a solution seems useleess so far. 1) I cannot use Microsoft asp.net ajax 2) I must use Jsonp because the called service (page, whatever...) is outside the site's domain. That's not a big problem. 3) I have no possibility to alter the existing page code, so I cannot reference an external library such as JQuery. 4) For the same reason I have no possibility to call my methods on the window.onLoad event, so here the question is: how can I be sure that everything is correctly loaded before triggering my ajax call? 5) Since several instances of the same webpart can be placed into the same page, can there be some possible conflicts among the various js functions?

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  • Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 3: Anonymous partial-trust consumer

    - by Elton Stoneman
    This is the third in the IPASBR series, see also: Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 1: Exposing the on-premise service Integration Patterns with Azure Service Bus Relay, Part 2: Anonymous full-trust .NET consumer As the patterns get further from the simple .NET full-trust consumer, all that changes is the communication protocol and the authentication mechanism. In Part 3 the scenario is that we still have a secure .NET environment consuming our service, so we can store shared keys securely, but the runtime environment is locked down so we can't use Microsoft.ServiceBus to get the nice WCF relay bindings. To support this we will expose a RESTful endpoint through the Azure Service Bus, and require the consumer to send a security token with each HTTP service request. Pattern applicability This is a good fit for scenarios where: the runtime environment is secure enough to keep shared secrets the consumer can execute custom code, including building HTTP requests with custom headers the consumer cannot use the Azure SDK assemblies the service may need to know who is consuming it the service does not need to know who the end-user is Note there isn't actually a .NET requirement here. By exposing the service in a REST endpoint, anything that can talk HTTP can be a consumer. We'll authenticate through ACS which also gives us REST endpoints, so the service is still accessed securely. Our real-world example would be a hosted cloud app, where we we have enough room in the app's customisation to keep the shared secret somewhere safe and to hook in some HTTP calls. We will be flowing an identity through to the on-premise service now, but it will be the service identity given to the consuming app - the end user's identity isn't flown through yet. In this post, we’ll consume the service from Part 1 in ASP.NET using the WebHttpRelayBinding. The code for Part 3 (+ Part 1) is on GitHub here: IPASBR Part 3. Authenticating and authorizing with ACS We'll follow the previous examples and add a new service identity for the namespace in ACS, so we can separate permissions for different consumers (see walkthrough in Part 1). I've named the identity partialTrustConsumer. We’ll be authenticating against ACS with an explicit HTTP call, so we need a password credential rather than a symmetric key – for a nice secure option, generate a symmetric key, copy to the clipboard, then change type to password and paste in the key: We then need to do the same as in Part 2 , add a rule to map the incoming identity claim to an outgoing authorization claim that allows the identity to send messages to Service Bus: Issuer: Access Control Service Input claim type: http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims/nameidentifier Input claim value: partialTrustConsumer Output claim type: net.windows.servicebus.action Output claim value: Send As with Part 2, this sets up a service identity which can send messages into Service Bus, but cannot register itself as a listener, or manage the namespace. RESTfully exposing the on-premise service through Azure Service Bus Relay The part 3 sample code is ready to go, just put your Azure details into Solution Items\AzureConnectionDetails.xml and “Run Custom Tool” on the .tt files.  But to do it yourself is very simple. We already have a WebGet attribute in the service for locally making REST calls, so we are just going to add a new endpoint which uses the WebHttpRelayBinding to relay that service through Azure. It's as easy as adding this endpoint to Web.config for the service:         <endpoint address="https://sixeyed-ipasbr.servicebus.windows.net/rest"                   binding="webHttpRelayBinding"                    contract="Sixeyed.Ipasbr.Services.IFormatService"                   behaviorConfiguration="SharedSecret">         </endpoint> - and adding the webHttp attribute in your endpoint behavior:           <behavior name="SharedSecret">             <webHttp/>             <transportClientEndpointBehavior credentialType="SharedSecret">               <clientCredentials>                 <sharedSecret issuerName="serviceProvider"                               issuerSecret="gl0xaVmlebKKJUAnpripKhr8YnLf9Neaf6LR53N8uGs="/>               </clientCredentials>             </transportClientEndpointBehavior>           </behavior> Where's my WSDL? The metadata story for REST is a bit less automated. In our local webHttp endpoint we've enabled WCF's built-in help, so if you navigate to: http://localhost/Sixeyed.Ipasbr.Services/FormatService.svc/rest/help - you'll see the uri format for making a GET request to the service. The format is the same over Azure, so this is where you'll be connecting: https://[your-namespace].servicebus.windows.net/rest/reverse?string=abc123 Build the service with the new endpoint, open that in a browser and you'll get an XML version of an HTTP status code - a 401 with an error message stating that you haven’t provided an authorization header: <?xml version="1.0"?><Error><Code>401</Code><Detail>MissingToken: The request contains no authorization header..TrackingId:4cb53408-646b-4163-87b9-bc2b20cdfb75_5,TimeStamp:10/3/2012 8:34:07 PM</Detail></Error> By default, the setup of your Service Bus endpoint as a relying party in ACS expects a Simple Web Token to be presented with each service request, and in the browser we're not passing one, so we can't access the service. Note that this request doesn't get anywhere near your on-premise service, Service Bus only relays requests once they've got the necessary approval from ACS. Why didn't the consumer need to get ACS authorization in Part 2? It did, but it was all done behind the scenes in the NetTcpRelayBinding. By specifying our Shared Secret credentials in the consumer, the service call is preceded by a check on ACS to see that the identity provided is a) valid, and b) allowed access to our Service Bus endpoint. By making manual HTTP requests, we need to take care of that ACS check ourselves now. We do that with a simple WebClient call to the ACS endpoint of our service; passing the shared secret credentials, we will get back an SWT: var values = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection(); values.Add("wrap_name", "partialTrustConsumer"); //service identity name values.Add("wrap_password", "suCei7AzdXY9toVH+S47C4TVyXO/UUFzu0zZiSCp64Y="); //service identity password values.Add("wrap_scope", "http://sixeyed-ipasbr.servicebus.windows.net/"); //this is the realm of the RP in ACS var acsClient = new WebClient(); var responseBytes = acsClient.UploadValues("https://sixeyed-ipasbr-sb.accesscontrol.windows.net/WRAPv0.9/", "POST", values); rawToken = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(responseBytes); With a little manipulation, we then attach the SWT to subsequent REST calls in the authorization header; the token contains the Send claim returned from ACS, so we will be authorized to send messages into Service Bus. Running the sample Navigate to http://localhost:2028/Sixeyed.Ipasbr.WebHttpClient/Default.cshtml, enter a string and hit Go! - your string will be reversed by your on-premise service, routed through Azure: Using shared secret client credentials in this way means ACS is the identity provider for your service, and the claim which allows Send access to Service Bus is consumed by Service Bus. None of the authentication details make it through to your service, so your service is not aware who the consumer is (MSDN calls this "anonymous authentication").

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  • MVC DateTime binding with incorrect date format

    - by Sam Wessel
    Asp.net-MVC now allows for implicit binding of DateTime objects. I have an action along the lines of public ActionResult DoSomething(DateTime startDate) { ... } This successfully converts a string from an ajax call into a DateTime. However, we use the date format dd/MM/yyyy; MVC is converting to MM/dd/yyyy. For example, submitting a call to the action with a string '09/02/2009' results in a DateTime of '02/09/2009 00:00:00', or September 2nd in our local settings. I don't want to roll my own model binder for the sake of a date format. But it seems needless to have to change the action to accept a string and then use DateTime.Parse if MVC is capable of doing this for me. Is there any way to alter the date format used in the default model binder for DateTime? Shouldn't the default model binder use your localisation settings anyway?

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  • Oracle EXECUTE IMMEDIATE changes explain plan of query.

    - by Gunny
    I have a stored procedure that I am calling using EXECUTE IMMEDIATE. The issue that I am facing is that the explain plan is different when I call the procedure directly vs when I use EXECUTE IMMEDIATE to call the procedure. This is causing the execution time to increase 5x. The main difference between the plans is that when I use execute immediate the optimizer isn't unnesting the subquery (I'm using a NOT EXISTS condition). We are using Rule Based Optimizer here at work. Example: Fast: begin package.procedure; end; / Slow: begin execute immediate 'begin package.' || proc_name || '; end;'; end; /

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  • OpenSSL "Seal" in C (or via shell)

    - by chpwn
    I'm working on porting some PHP code to C, that contacts a web API. The issue I've come across is that the PHP code uses the function openssl_seal(), but I can't seem to find any way to do the same thing in C or even via openssl in a call to system(). From the PHP manual on openssl_seal(): int openssl_seal ( string $data , string &$sealed_data , array &$env_keys , array $pub_key_ids ) openssl_seal() seals (encrypts) data by using RC4 with a randomly generated secret key. The key is encrypted with each of the public keys associated with the identifiers in pub_key_ids and each encrypted key is returned in env_keys . This means that one can send sealed data to multiple recipients (provided one has obtained their public keys). Each recipient must receive both the sealed data and the envelope key that was encrypted with the recipient's public key. What would be the best way to implement this? I'd really prefer not to call out to a PHP script every time, for obvious reasons.

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  • Is it possible to do AJAX calls in a liquid template?

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm looking at the liquid templating language for Rails apps: http://wiki.github.com/tobi/liquid/ I'd like my users to also be able to make AJAX calls (just like the ones in rails for periodically_call_remote, observe_field, etc). Is this possible? Assuming the rails helpers can be added as filters, how will the user be able to modify what gets returned by the AJAX call? They cannot modify an rjs file on the server or anything like that. I suppose the AJAX call could return JSON (instead of rendered html) and then the javascript could use that to render something. But I'm having a little trouble envisioning how it would work exactly. If anyone can point me to an example of this or clarify it'd be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

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  • ResolveURL not resolving in a user control

    - by WebJunk
    I'm trying to use ResolveUrl() to set some paths in the code behind of a custom ASP.NET user control. The user control contains a navigation menu. I'm loading it on a page that's loading a master page. When I call ResolveUrl("~") in my user control it returns "~" instead of the root of the site. When I call it in a page I get the root path as expected. I've stepped through with the debugger and confirmed, ResolveUrl("~") returns "~" in my user control code behind. Is there some other way I should be calling the function in my user control code behind to get the root path of the site?

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  • Address Book callback not called

    - by Oliver
    I have an iPhone app that makes use of the AddressBook.framework and uses Core Data to store these contacts. In order to make sure I update my own database when the Address Book is updated (whether via MobileMe or editing within my own app), I am subscribing to the notification as to when the Address Book is updating. I call this on startup: ABAddressBookRef book = ABAddressBookCreate(); ABAddressBookRegisterExternalChangeCallback(book, addressBookChanged, self); Which (supposedly) calls this on any editing. I have an ABPersonViewController which allows editing, and addressBookChanged never seems to get called. void addressBookChanged(ABAddressBookRef reference, CFDictionaryRef dictionary, void *context) { // The contacts controller we need to call ContactsController *contacts = (ContactsController *)context; // Sync with the Address Book [contacts synchronizeWithAddressBook:reference]; } Is there any reason for it to not be called?

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • How to fetch output when calling R using Qprocess or system

    - by SYK
    Hi Experts, I would like to execute a R script simply as R --file=x.R It runs well on the command line. However when I try the system call in C++ by QProcess::execute("R --file=x.R"); or system("R --file=x.R"); the program R runs and quits but I can't see the output the program is supposed to generate. If a program uses no stdout (such as R), how do I fetch the output after a system call either as a output file or in the program's own console? Thanks for your time.

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  • Calling a method in a view controller from a view

    - by Lakshmie
    I have to invoke a method present in a view controller who's reference is available in the view. When I try to call the method like any other method, for some reason, iPhone just ignores the call. Can somebody explain as to why this happens and also how can I go about invoking this method? In the view I have this method: -(void) touchesBegan :(NSSet *) touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ NSArray* mySubViews = [self subviews]; for (UITouch *touch in touches) { int i = 0; for(; i<[mySubViews count]; i++){ if(CGRectContainsPoint([[mySubViews objectAtIndex:i] frame], [touch locationInView:self])){ break; } } if(i<[mySubViews count]){ // viewController is the reference to the View Controller. [viewController pointToSummary:[touch locationInView:self].y]; NSLog(@"Helloooooo"); break; } } } Whenever the touches event is triggered, Hellooooo gets printed in the console but the method before that is simply ignored

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  • How can I pass checkbox onclick event to parent onclick ?

    - by Kim
    I a with an onclick event and , and inside it. When I click on the checkbox then the div-onclick event doesnt fire - I would like it to fire without having to dublicate the onclick onto the checkbox. <div id="id-tag" onclick="do()"> <span>text</span> <img src="pic.jpg" /> <input type="checkbox" name="mycheck" /> </div> I know the div-idtag but ideally would like to avoid specifying it inside the checkbox. Using another function call on the checkbox onclick to call the parent is NOT what I am looking for, like onclick="run_parent_onclick()" but this is okay (untested) onclick="this.parent.click()"

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  • How should I rewrite my code to make it amenable to unittesting?

    - by justin
    I've been trying to get started with unit-testing while working on a little cli program. My program basically parses the command line arguments and options, and decides which function to call. Each of the functions performs some operation on a database. So, for instance, I might have a create function: def create(self, opts, args): #I've left out the error handling. strtime = datetime.datetime.now().strftime("%D %H:%M") vals = (strtime, opts.message, opts.keywords, False) self.execute("insert into mytable values (?, ?, ?, ?)", vals) self.commit() Should my test case call this function, then execute the select sql to check that the row was entered? That sounds reasonable, but also makes the tests more difficult to maintain. Would you rewrite the function to return something and check for the return value? Thanks

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  • getSymbols and using lapply, Cl, and merge to extract close prices

    - by algotr8der
    I've been messing around with this for some time. I recently started using the quantmod package to perform analytics on stock prices. I have a ticker vector that looks like the following: > tickers [1] "SPY" "DIA" "IWM" "SMH" "OIH" "XLY" "XLP" "XLE" "XLI" "XLB" "XLK" "XLU" "XLV" [14] "QQQ" > str(tickers) chr [1:14] "SPY" "DIA" "IWM" "SMH" "OIH" "XLY" "XLP" "XLE" ... I wrote a function called myX to use in a lapply call to save prices for every stock in the vector tickers. It has the following code: myX <- function(tickers, start, end) { require(quantmod) getSymbols(tickers, from=start, to=end) } I call lapply by itself library(quantmod) lapply(tickers,myX,start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") > lapply(tickers,myX,start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") [[1]] [1] "SPY" [[2]] [1] "DIA" [[3]] [1] "IWM" [[4]] [1] "SMH" [[5]] [1] "OIH" [[6]] [1] "XLY" [[7]] [1] "XLP" [[8]] [1] "XLE" [[9]] [1] "XLI" [[10]] [1] "XLB" [[11]] [1] "XLK" [[12]] [1] "XLU" [[13]] [1] "XLV" [[14]] [1] "QQQ" That works fine. Now I want to merge the Close prices for every stock into an object that looks like # BCSI.Close WBSN.Close NTAP.Close FFIV.Close SU.Close # 2011-01-03 30.50 20.36 57.41 134.33 38.82 # 2011-01-04 30.24 19.82 57.38 132.07 38.03 # 2011-01-05 31.36 19.90 57.87 137.29 38.40 # 2011-01-06 32.04 19.79 57.49 138.07 37.23 # 2011-01-07 31.95 19.77 57.20 138.35 37.30 # 2011-01-10 31.55 19.76 58.22 142.69 37.04 Someone recommended I try something like the following: ClosePrices <- do.call(merge, lapply(tickers, function(x) Cl(get(x)))) However I tried various combinations of this without any success. First I tried just calling lapply with Cl(x) >lapply(tickers,myX,start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl(myX))) > lapply(tickers,myX,start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl(x))) Error: unexpected symbol in "lapply(tickers,myX,start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl" > > lapply(tickers,myX(x),start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl(x))) Error: unexpected symbol in "lapply(tickers,myX(x),start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl" > > lapply(tickers,myX(start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl(x) Error: unexpected symbol in "lapply(tickers,myX(start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl" > lapply(tickers,myX(start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl(x)) Error: unexpected symbol in "lapply(tickers,myX(start="2001-03-01", end="2011-03-11") Cl" > Any guidance would be kindly appreciated.

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  • Is java HashMap.clear() and remove() memory effective?

    - by Shaman
    Consider the follwing HashMap.clear() code: /** * Removes all of the mappings from this map. * The map will be empty after this call returns. */ public void clear() { modCount++; Entry[] tab = table; for (int i = 0; i < tab.length; i++) tab[i] = null; size = 0; } It seems, that the internal array (table) of Entrys is never shrinked. So, when I add 10000 elements to a map, and after that call map.clear(), it will keep 10000 nulls in it's internal array. So, my question is, how does JVM handle this array of nothing, and thus, is HashMap memory effective?

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  • Exposing C# COM server events to Delphi client applications

    - by hectorsosajr
    My question is very similar to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1140984/c-component-events http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1638372/c-writing-a-com-server-events-not-firing-on-client However, what worked for them is not working for me. The type library file, does not have any hints of events definitions, so Delphi doesn't see it. The class works fine for other C# applications, as you would expect. COM Server tools: Visual Studio 2010 .NET 4.0 Delphi applications: Delphi 2010 Delphi 7 Here's a simplified version of the code: /// <summary> /// Call has arrived delegate. /// </summary> [ComVisible(false)] public delegate void CallArrived(object sender, string callData); /// <summary> /// Interface to expose SimpleAgent events to COM /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("1FFBFF09-3AF0-4F06-998D-7F4B6CB978DD")] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IAgentEvents { ///<summary> /// Handles incoming calls from the predictive manager. ///</summary> ///<param name="sender">The class that initiated this event</param> ///<param name="callData">The data associated with the incoming call.</param> [DispId(1)] void OnCallArrived(object sender, string callData); } /// <summary> /// Represents the agent side of the system. This is usually related to UI interactions. /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("EF00685F-1C14-4D05-9EFA-538B3137D86C")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [ComSourceInterfaces(typeof(IAgentEvents))] public class SimpleAgent { /// <summary> /// Occurs when a call arrives. /// </summary> public event CallArrived OnCallArrived; public SimpleAgent() {} public string AgentName { get; set; } public string CurrentPhoneNumber { get; set; } public void FireOffCall() { if (OnCallArrived != null) { OnCallArrived(this, "555-123-4567"); } } } The type library file has the definitions for the properties and methods, but no events are visible. I even opened the type library in Delphi's viewer to make sure. The Delphi app can see and use any property, methods, and functions just fine. It just doesn't see the events. I would appreciate any pointers or articles to read. Thanks!

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  • Calling Facebook API without authenticating user/"connecting"

    - by Andy
    Hi, I am working with facebook's API and I want to call the links.prevew method. http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Links.preview Is it possible to call this method without having my user authenticate or "connect"? For example, not all of my users have hooked up their facebook accounts to my website, but I still want to use this API method. I am getting the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught Exception: 453: A session key is required for calling this method thrown in /public_html/libs/facebook.php on line 413 But on the wiki it says that the method does not require a session key? If it is not possible to make API calls without such a key, is there anyway I can make calls on behalf of my account or my applications account (rather then a users account)? Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • py.test import context problems (causes Django unit test failure)

    - by dhill
    I made a following test: # main.py import imported print imported.f.__module__ # imported.py def f(): pass # test_imported.py (py.test test case) import imported def test_imported(): result = imported.f.__module__ assert result == 'imported' Running python main.py, gives me imported, but running py.test gives me error and result value is moduletest.imported (moduletest is the name of the directory I keep the test in. It doesn't contain __init__.py, moduletest is the only directory containing *.py files in ~/tmp). How can I fix result value? The long story: I'm getting strange errors, while testing Django application. A call to reverse() from (django.urlresolvers). with function object foo as argument in tests crashes with NoReverseMatch: Reverse for 'site.app.views.foo'. The same call inside application works. I checked and it is converted to 'app.views.foo' (without site prefix). I first suspected my customised test setup for Django, but then I made above test.

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  • [AS2] Use for variable as parameter and keep it different for each iteration

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, I have a basic for loop to loop through buttons and set some stuff and onPress handlers: for (i=1;i<=20;i++){ //do some stuff _root["button"+i].onPress = function(){ someMC.gotoAndStop(i+1); } } However, as I noticed, all buttonsthen link to one and same frame - all point to last i + 1 - Is there any possibility to call gotoAndStop with "static" Number, so in next iteration, it won't change? Edit: Ex. for last statement: Iteration 5 will call gAS /*gotoAndStop:]*/(6); Iteration 6 -> gAS(7); Iteration 7 -> gAS(8);

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