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  • Jmock mock DAO object

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hi all, I wrote a method that retrieves certain list of strings, given a correct string key. Now when I create a list(the one to be retrieved by method descibed in previous sentence) and create test I can easily get results and test passes successfully. Now on the other hand if I save the content of this list to database in 2 columns, key and value I wrote a class which retrieves this items with method inside it. And when I print it out to console the expected results are correct, now I initialize my DAO from application context where inside its bean it gets session and because of DAO works. Now I'm trying to write a test which will mock the DAO, because I'm running test localy not on the server .. so I told jmock to mock it : private MyDAO myDAO; in the setup() myDAO = context.mock(MyDAO.class); I think I'm mocking it correctly or not, how can I mock this data from database? what is the best way? Is there somewhere good Jmock documentation? on their official site its not very good and clear, you have to know what you seek in order to find it, can't discover something cool in the mean time.

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  • WPF Dispatcher.UnhandledException within a ShowDialog call.

    - by Eric
    It appears that ShowDialog() invokes the Dispatcher message handling loop within. Thus, you have a stack that looks something like: Outer-most Dispatcher message loop ... x.ShowDialog() Inner Dispatcher message loop ... I am using the Dispatcher.UnhandledException to catch exceptions not handled by my code. However, it appears that the Inner Dispatcher message loop, above, is undesirably catching exceptions that my code would catch. Example: Outer-most Dispatcher message loop try/catch FooException ... x.ShowDialog() Inner Dispatcher message loop ... throw FooException What I would like is for the thrown FooException to get caught by the try/catch. However. It gets caught first by the (inner) Dispatcher.UnhandledException. I see there are ways to filter the exception. However, those filters will apply to both the inner and outer most handlers. What I am looking for is to have my Dispatcher.UnhandledException code run only on the outer-most dispatcher message loop. Does that make sense? I could, of course, reflect the call stack from within my handler to see if this is the outer-most dispatcher, but that seems a bit fragile. Other ideas? Thanks! Eric

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  • Silverlight - use a ScrollViewer in a TextBox template

    - by vladhorby
    I'm trying to make a TextBox template and I need to include a ScrollViewer in the template - basically I want to add some content (like line numbers) that needs to scroll along with the normal text. The default template for the TextBox is like this: <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" IsTabStop="False" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}"/> </Border> </Grid> </Border> If I change the ContentElement from ScrollViewer to Border, for example, the TextBox behaves normally - i just lose the scrolling ability. Now, if I wrap the ContentElement with a ScrollViewer, it no longer displays the caret and selection - if you type, it still gets updated though. <Border x:Name="Border" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="1" Opacity="1"> <Grid> <Border x:Name="ReadOnlyVisualElement" Background="#5EC9C9C9" Opacity="0"/> <Border x:Name="MouseOverBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="1"> <ScrollViewer ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <Border x:Name="ContentElement" BorderThickness="0" Padding="{TemplateBinding Padding}" /> </ScrollViewer> </Border> </Grid> </Border> Any idea why this happens and how can I fix it?

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  • Jeditable Datepicker onblur problem

    - by Shobha Deepthi
    Hi, I am using inline editing using Jeditable and datepicker. I have a column in my table which displays Date as a hyperlink. When I click on this it shows me the datepicker. And when a particular date is selected its updated in the backend and the cell now is updated with the changed value. However, am having problem with onblur event while changing month or years. This event gets triggered when I click on "Prev" or "Next" buttons on the datepicker control. This causes an exception when the date is selected. This works fine as long as the date selected is in the current month. I tried all possible solutions listed here: stackoverflow.com/questions/2007205/jeditable-datepicker-causing-blur-when-changing-month If settimeout the control does not change back to a normal hyperlink on closing the datepicker or on a true onblur event. Here's my code, $.editable.addInputType('datepicker', { element : function(settings, original) { var input = $(''); if (settings.width != 'none') { input.width(settings.width); } if (settings.height != 'none') { input.height(settings.height); } input.attr('autocomplete','off'); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin : function(settings, original) { var form = this; settings.onblur = function(e) { t = setTimeout(function() { original.reset.apply(form, [settings, self]); }, 100); }; $(this).find('input').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'dd-M-y', closeAtTop: true, onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger('submit'); } }); }, submit : function(settings, original) { } }); $(function() { $('.edit_eta').editable('update_must_fix_eta.php', { id: 'bugid', name: 'eta', type: 'datepicker', event: 'click', select : true, width: '50px', onblur:'cancel', cssclass : 'editable', indicator : 'Updating ETA, please wait.', style : 'inherit', submitdata:{version:'4.2(4)',tag:'REL_4_2_4',qstr:1} }); }); I tried hacking jeditable.js as mentioned on this link: http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/265340ea692a2f47 Even this does not help. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Comet and Simultaneous Ajax request

    - by Amitd
    Hi , I am trying to use a COMET solution using ASP.NET . Trouble is i want to implement sending and notification part in the same page. On IE7, whenever i try to send a request ,it just gets queued up. After reading on internet and stackoverflow pages i found that i can only do 2 simultaneous asyn ajax requests per page. So until i close my comet Ajax request,my 2nd request doesnt get completed ,doesnt even go out from the browser. And when i checked with Firefox i just one Ajax comet request running all time..so doesnt that leave me one more ajax request? Also the solution uses IRequiressessionstate for Asynchronous HTTP Handler which i had removed.but still it creates problems on multiple instances of IE7. I had one work around which is stated here http://support.microsoft.com/kb/282402 it means we can increase the request limit from registry by default is 2. By changing "MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server" key in hive "HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings" we can increase the number of requests. Basically i want to broadcast information to multiple clients connected to a server using Comet and the clients can also send messages to the Server. Broadcasting works but the send request back to server doesnt work. Im using IIS 6 and ASP.NET . Are there any more workarounds or ways to send more requests? References : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/561046/how-many-concurrent-ajax-xmlhttprequest-requests-are-allowed-in-popular-browser http://stackoverflow.com/questions/349381/ajax-php-sessions-and-simultaneous-requests http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2412807/jquery-ajax-request-blocked-by-long-running-ajax-request http://stackoverflow.com/questions/898190/jquery-making-simultaneous-ajax-requests-is-it-possible

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  • Problem with Json Date format when calling cross-domain proxy

    - by Christo Fur
    I am using a proxy service to allow my client side javascript to talk to a service on another domain The proxy is a simple ashx file with simply gets the request and forwards it onto the service on the other domain : using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(context.Request.InputStream)) { requestData = sr.ReadToEnd(); } string data = HttpUtility.UrlDecode(requestData); using (var client = new WebClient()) { client.BaseAddress = serviceUrl; client.Headers.Add("Content-Type", "application/json"); response = client.UploadString(new Uri(webserviceUrl), data); } The client javascript calling this proxy looks like this function TestMethod() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/custommodules/configuratorproxyservice.ashx?m=TestMethod", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: JSON.parse('{"testObj":{"Name":"jo","Ref":"jones","LastModified":"\/Date(-62135596800000+0000)\/"}}'), dataType: "json", success: AjaxSucceeded, error: AjaxFailed }); function AjaxSucceeded(result) { alert(result); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert(result.status + ' - ' + result.statusText); } } This works fine until I have to pass a date. At which point I get a Bad Request error when the proxy tries to call the service I did have this working at one point but have now lost it. Have tried using JSON.Parse on the object before sending. and JSON.Stringify, but no joy anyone got any ideas what I am missing

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  • Force a UIView to redraw immediately, instead of during next run loop

    - by Justin Kent
    I've created a UIImagePicker / camera view, with a toolbar and custom button for taking a snapshot. I can't really change to using the default way because of the custom button, and I'm drawing on top of the view. When you hit the button, I want to take a screenshot using UIGetScreenImage(); however, the toolbar is showing up in the image, even if I hide it first: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I'm pretty sure this is because even though the toolbar is hidden, it gets redrawn once the function returns and we enter the next run loop - after UIGetScreenImage is called. I tried making the following addition, but it didn't help: //hide the toolbar self.toolbar.hidden = YES; [self.toolbar drawRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 52)]; // capture the screen pixels CGImageRef screenCap = UIGetScreenImage(); I also tried using setNeedsDisplay, but that doesn't work either because once again the draw happens after the current function returns. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • ASP MVC C#: LINQ Foreign Key Constraint conflicts

    - by wh0emPah
    I'm having a problem with LINQ. I have 2 tables (Parent-child relation) Table1: Events (EventID, Description) Table2: Groups (GroupID, EventID(FK), Description) Now i want to create an Event an and a child. Event e = new Event(); e.Description = "test"; Datacontext.Events.InsertOnSubmit(event) Group g = new Group(); g.Description = "test2"; g.EventID = e.EventID; Datacontext.Groups.InsertOnSubmit(g); Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); When i debug, i can see that after inserting the event. the EventID has gotten a new value (auto increment). But when Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); gets called. I get the following exception "The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint ... I know this can be solved by creating a relation in the LINQ diagram between Events and groups. And then setting the entity itself. But i don't want to load the events everytime i ask a list of groups. All i need is some way that when inserting the group fails, the event insert won't be comitted in the database. Sorry if this is a bit unclear, My english isn't really good. Thanks in advance!

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  • How do you write Valid XHTML 1.0 Strict code when you are using javascript to fill an element that r

    - by Tim Visher
    I'm running my site through the W3C's validator trying to get it to validate as XHTML 1.0 Strict and I've gotten down to a particularly sticky (at least in my experience) validation error. I'm including certain badges from various services in the site that provide their own API and code for inclusion on an external site. These badges use javascript (for the most part) to fill an element that you insert in the markup which requires a child. This means that in the end, perfectly valid markup is generated, but to the validator, all it sees is an incomplete parent-child tag which it then throws an error on. As a caveat, I understand that I could complain to the services that their badges don't validate. Sans this, I assume that someone has validated their code while including badges like this, and that's what I'm interested in. Answers such as, 'Complain to Flickr about their badge' aren't going to help me much. An additional caveat: I would prefer that as much as possible the markup remains semantic. I.E. Adding an empty li tag or tr-td pair to make it validate would be an undesirable solution, even though it may be necessary. If that's the only way it can be made to validate, oh well, but please lean answers towards semantic markup. As an example: <div id="twitter_div"> <h2><a href="http://twitter.com/stopsineman">@Twitter</a></h2> <ul id="twitter_update_list"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/stopsineman.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> </ul> </div> Notice the ul tags wrapping the javascript. This eventually gets filled in with lis via the script, but to the validator it only sees the unpopulated ul. Thanks in advance!

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  • flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

    - by JPro
    We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Milliseconds in DateTime.Now on .NET Compact Framework always zero? [SOLVED]

    - by Marcel
    Hi all, i want to have a time stamp for logs on a Windows Mobile project. The accuracy must be in the range a hundred milliseconds at least. However my call to DateTime.Now returns a DateTime object with the Millisecond property set to zero. Also the Ticks property is rounded accordingly. How to get better time accuracy? Remember, that my code runs on on the Compact Framework, version 3.5. I use a HTC touch Pro 2 device. Based on the answer from MusiGenesis i have created the following class which solved this problem: /// <summary> /// A more precisely implementation of some DateTime properties on mobile devices. /// </summary> /// <devdoc>Tested on a HTC Touch Pro2.</devdoc> public static class DateTimePrecisely { /// <summary> /// Remembers the start time when this model was created. /// </summary> private static DateTime _start = DateTime.Now; /// <summary> /// Remembers the system uptime ticks when this model was created. This /// serves as a more precise time provider as DateTime.Now can do. /// </summary> private static int _startTick = Environment.TickCount; /// <summary> /// Gets a DateTime object that is set exactly to the current date and time on this computer, expressed as the local time. /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public static DateTime Now { get { return _start.AddMilliseconds(Environment.TickCount - _startTick); } } }

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  • Setting httponly in JSESSIONID cookie (Java EE 5)

    - by mythandros
    I'm trying to set the httponly flag on the JSESSIONID cookie. I'm working in Java EE 5, however, and can't use setHttpOnly(). First I tried to create my own JSESSIONID cookie from within the servlet's doPost() by using response.setHeader(). When that didn't work, I tried response.addHeader(). That didn't work either. Then, I learned that the servlet handled converting the session into a JSESSIONID cookie and inserting it into the http header so if I want to play with that cookie, I'll have to write a filter. I wrote a filter and played with setHeader()/addHeader() there, again to no avail. Then, I learned that there's some flush/close action going on in the response object before it gets to the filter so if I want to manipulate the data, I need to extend HttpServletResponseWrapper and pass that to filterChain.doFilter(). This is done but I'm still not getting results. Clearly I'm doing something wrong but I don't know what. I'm not sure if this is at all relevant to the question at hand but no html document is being returned by the servlet to the browser. All that's really happening is that some objects are being populated and returned to a JSP document. I've sort of assumed that The Session object is turned into a JSESSIONID cookie and wrapped -- along with the objects added to the request -- in an http header before being sent to the browser. I'd be happy to post some code but I want to rule out the possibility that my difficulties stem from a misunderstanding of the theory first.

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  • Zend headScript() and appendFile not working as expected

    - by Ryan
    I'm having an issue trying to append a javascript file using headScript()->appendFile('file name') with Zend. I have my layout setup like this: <?= $this->headScript() ->prependScript( 'BASE_URL = "' . $this->baseUrl() . '";' ) ->appendFile( $this->baseUrl('js/lib/jquery/jquery-1.4.2.min.js') ) ->appendFile( $this->baseUrl('js/admin.js') ); ?> Then, in my controller I am trying to append an additional js file only for this page, like: $this->view->headScript()->appendFile( 'another/js/file.js' ); This file needs to be appended to what is already setup in the layout. However, this file gets added before the other 'appendFile' files. I've also tried $this->headScript()->offsetSetFile(999, '/js/myfuncs.js'); But this still adds the file before the other files. This is not how I would expect this to work, especially when using the offsetSetFile method. How can I add this file after the other files? Thanks.

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  • jQuery AutoComplete Plugin not working for JSON Response (sValue.substring is not a function)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm trying to use the autocomplete plugin for jQuery (this one http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete). My server is returning JSON string, which I'm trying to process on the client via AutoComplete plugin's 'parse' and 'formatItem' parameters, like so: $(document).ready(function() { $('.searchBox input.textbox').autocomplete('/DoSearch.aspx', { mustMatch: false, autoFill: true, minChars: 1, dataType: 'json', parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { array[array.length] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].ID, result: data[i].ID }; } return array; }, formatItem: function(row, i, n) { return row.ID + ': ' + row.Title; } }); }); When I run this I get a 'sValue.substring is not a function' error thrown in Firebug. However, if I stick breakpoints on formatItem and parse function, they are hit as expected and contain valid data it seems. Here is an exact copy 'n' paste of the JSON text that gets returned from the server: [{"ID":140177,"Title":"Food Handling","Code":"J01.576.423.200"},{"ID":140178,"Title":"Food Handling","Code":"J01.576.423.200"},{"ID":140179,"Title":"Brain Infarction","Code":"C10.228.140.300.301.200"},{"ID":140180,"Title":"Cerebral Hemorrhage","Code":"C10.228.140.300.535.200"},{"ID":140182,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140183,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140184,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140186,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140188,"Title":"Insulin","Code":"D06.472.610.575"},{"ID":140189,"Title":"Sulfonylurea Compounds","Code":"D02.886.590.795"}] Please help, I've already searched Google and StackOverflow for help, but can't find anyone having else this error, cheers!

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  • FileDialog DoubleClick Behavior

    - by Shaun Hamman
    While developing a WinForms application, I came across what I believe is a bug in the OpenFileDialog and SaveFileDialog controls. A Google search turned up a single other person who noticed the same issue, but neither a solution nor a workaround was provided. You can view this thread at: http://bytes.com/topic/visual-basic-net/answers/389470-open-file-dialog-picturebox-click-event. I have a custom control on my form that handles the MouseDown event. If I doubleclick a file in a FileDialog control while the mouse is over this control (with the dialog between them, obviously), the MouseDown event gets triggered. I don't think this is an issue with my control, because the person I mentioned before noticed this happening with a PictureBox control. It would seem that even though the mouse button was pressed down (for the second click to open the file) while on the dialog box, the event passed through to the form and my control when the dialog closed. I have tried disabling my control while the dialog box is active, but that didn't stop it from capturing the event. I assume this is because the event is passed down after the dialog closes, so my control would be re-enabled. Does anyone know of a way to prevent that click from reaching the form and, in turn, my control? Also, can anyone confirm if this really is a bug in the FileDialog controls, or if I just have some setting configured incorrectly?

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  • WPF: Textbox not firing onTextInput event

    - by Kay Ell
    So basically, I have a bunch of TextBoxes that the user gets to fill out. I've got a button that I want to keep disabled until all the TextBoxes have had text entered in them. Here is a sample XAML TextBox that I'm using: <TextBox Name="DelayedRecallScore" TextInput="CheckTextBoxFilled" Width="24" /> And here is the function that I'm trying to trigger: //Disables the OK button until all score textboxes have content private void CheckTextBoxFilled(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /* foreach (TextBox scorebox in TextBoxList) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(scorebox.Text)) { Ok_Button.IsEnabled = false; return; } } Ok_Button.IsEnabled = true; */ MessageBox.Show("THIS MAKES NO SENSE"); } The MessageBox is not showing up when TextInput should be getting triggered. As an experiment I tried triggering CheckTextBoxFilled() on PreviewTextInput, and it worked fine then, meaning that for whatever reason, the function just isn't getting called. I also have a validation function that is triggered by PreviewTextInput, which works as it should. At first I thought PreviewTextInput might somehow be interfering with TextInput, so I took PreviewTextInput off the TextBox, but that hasn't managed to fix anything. I'm completely befuddled by why this might happen, so any help would be appreciated.

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  • Gmail IMAP OAuth for desktop clients

    - by Sabya
    Recently Google announced that they are supporting OAUth for Gmail IMAP/SMTP. I browsed through their multiple documentations, but still I am confused about if they support OAuth for installed applications. 1. In this documentation they say: Note: Though the OAuth protocol supports the desktop/installed application use case, Google only supports OAuth for web applications. But they also have a document for OAuth for installed applications. 2. When I read the OAuth specification pointed by them, it says (in section 11.7): In many applications, the Consumer application will be under the control of potentially untrusted parties. For example, if the Consumer is a freely available desktop application, an attacker may be able to download a copy for analysis. In such cases, attackers will be able to recover the Consumer Secret used to authenticate the Consumer to the Service Provider. Also I think the disclaimer in point 1 above is about Google Data APIs, and surely IMAP/SMTP is not a part of them. I understand that for installed applications I can have a setup like: Have a small web-app at say example.com for my application. This web-app talks to Google gets the access token. The installed application talks to example.com only to get the access token. Installed application then talks to Google with the access token. I am now confused. Is this the only way?

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  • "Unrecognized configuration section connectionStrings" in app.exe.config

    - by Richard Bysouth
    Hi On a Terminal Server install of my WinForms app, one of my clients gets the following exception on startup: "Unrecognized configuration section connectionStrings" This is occurring in myapp.exe.config but I can't figure out why. Runs perfectly everywhere else, only difference between this install and any other is the connection string. I've searched around, but can only find this issue relating to ASP.NET apps and issues in web.config. Any ideas what could be broken in the config of this WinForms app though? Is it indicating a problem further up in machine.config? FYI the top part of myapp.exe.config is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="applicationSettings" type="System.Configuration.ApplicationSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjjj"> <section name="MyApp.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjj" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjj"> <section name="MyApp.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=jjjjjjjjjj" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyApp.DataAccessLayer.Settings.MyConnectionString" connectionString="$$$$$$" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> ... thanks Richard

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  • Ruby on rails generates tests for you. Do those give a false sense of a safety net?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Disclaimer: I have not used RoR, and I have not generated tests. But, I will still dare to post this question. Quality Assurance is theoretically impossible to get 100% right in general (Undecidable problem ;), and it is hard in practice. So many developers do not understand that writing good automated tests is an art, and it is hard. When I hear that RoR generates the tests for you, I get very skeptical. It cannot be that easy. Testing is a general concept; it applies across languages. So does the concept of code contracts, it is similar for languages that support it. Code contracts do not generate themselves. The programmer must add the requirements and the promises manually, after doing some thinking about the algorithm / function. If a human gets it wrong, then the tools will propagate the error. Similarly with testing - it takes human judgement about what should happen. Tests do not write themselves, and we are far from the day when a business analyst can just have a conversation with a computer and tell it informally what the requirements are and have the computer do all the work. There is no magic ... how can RoR generate good tests for you? Please shed some light on this. Opinions are ok, for this is a community wiki. Thanks!

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  • jQuery.width() & DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

    - by Otaku
    I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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  • GXT LayoutContainer with scrollbar reports a client height value which includes the area below the s

    - by Pieter Breed
    I have this code which sets up a "main" container into which other modules of the application will go. LayoutContainer c = new LayoutContainer(); c.setScrollMode(Scroll.ALWAYS); parentContainer.add(c, <...>); Then later on, I have the following as an event handler pContainer = c; // pContainer is actually a parameter, but it has c's value pContainer.removeAll(); pContainer.setLayout(new FitLayout()); LayoutContainer wrapperContainer = new LayoutContainer(); wrapperContainer.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); wrapperContainer.setBorders(false); pContainer.add(wrapperContainer); LayoutContainer west = pWestContentContainer; BorderLayoutData westLayoutData = new BorderLayoutData(LayoutRegion.WEST); westLayoutData.setSize(pWidth); westLayoutData.setSplit(true); wrapperContainer.add(west, westLayoutData); LayoutContainer center = new LayoutContainer(); wrapperContainer.add(center, new BorderLayoutData(LayoutRegion.CENTER)); pCallback.withSplitContainer(center); pContainer.layout(); So in effect, the container called 'west' here will be where the module's UI gets displayed. That module UI then does a simple rowlayout with two children. The botton child has RowData(1, 1) so it fills up all the available space. My problem is that the c (parent) container reports a height and width value which includes the value underneath the scrollbars. What I would like is that the scrollbars show all the space excluding their own space. This is a screenshot showing what I mean:

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  • How to keep relative position of WPF elements on background image

    - by Masterfu
    Hi folks, I am new to WPF, so the answer to the following question might be obvious, however it isn't to me. I need to display an image where users can set markers on (As an example: You might want to mark a person's face on a photograph with a rectangle), however the markers need to keep their relative position when scaling the image. Currently I am doing this by using a Canvas and setting an ImageBrush as Background. This displays the image and I can add elements like a Label (as replacement for a rectangle) on top of the image. But when I set a label like this, it's position is absolute and so when the underlying picture is scaled (because the user drags the window larger) the Label stays at it's absolute position (say, 100,100) instead of moving to the new position that keeps it "in sync" with the underlying image. To cut the matter short: When I set a marker on a person's eye, it shouldn't be on the person's ear after scaling the window. Any suggestions on how to do that in WPF? Maybe Canvas is the wrong approach in the first place? I could keep a collection of markers in code and recalculate their position every time the window gets resized, but I hope there is a way to let WPF do that work for me :-) I am interested in hearing your opinions on this. Thanks

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  • handling refrence to pointers/double pointers using SWIG [C++ to Java]

    - by Siddu
    My code has an interface like class IExample { ~IExample(); //pure virtual methods ...}; a class inheriting the interface like class CExample : public IExample { protected: CExample(); //implementation of pure virtual methods ... }; and a global function to create object of this class - createExample( IExample *& obj ) { obj = new CExample(); } ; Now, I am trying to get Java API wrapper using SWIG, the SWIG generated interface has a construcotr like - IExample(long cPtr, boolean cMemoryOwn) and global function becomes createExample(IExample obj ) The problem is when i do, IExample exObject = new IExample(LogFileLibraryJNI.new_plong(), true /*or false*/ ); createExample( exObject ); The createExample(...) API at C++ layer succesfully gets called, however, when call returns to Java layer, the cPtr (long) variable does not get updated. Ideally, this variable should contain address of CExample object. I read in documentation that typemaps can be used to handle output parameters and pointer references as well; however, I am not able to figure out the suitable way to use typemaps to resolve this problem, or any other workaround. Please suggest if i am doing something wrong, or how to use typemap in such situation?

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  • Please help with my JSP Internationalization problem

    - by wokena
    I have problem with I18N in JSP, specifically, with forms. When I enter some Czech characters (e.g., "ešcržýá...") into my page one form, into the field "fieldOne", and then show text from that field on page two, instead of Czech characters I see this as "čč". (Note, the second page gets the Czech characters with "request.getProperty("fieldOne")") Here is the source code: Page one: <%@page contentType="text/html"%> <%@page pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-bean" prefix="bean" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-html" prefix="html" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-logic" prefix="logic" %> <html> <head></head> <body> <form action="druha.jsp" method="post"> <input type="textarea" name="fieldOne"> <input type="submit"> </form> </body> </html> Page two: <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-bean" prefix="bean" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-html" prefix="html" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-logic" prefix="logic" %> <html> <head></head> <body> <h1>The text: </h1> <%=request.getProperty("fieldOne")%> </body> </html> Thanks for help...

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