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  • Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

    - by phq
    I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

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  • Java: does the EDT restart or not when an exception is thrown?

    - by NoozNooz42
    (the example code below is self-contained and runnable, you can try it, it won't crash your system :) Tom Hawtin commented on the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3018165 that: It's unlikely that the EDT would crash. Unchecked exceptions thrown in EDT dispatch are caught, dumped and the thread goes on. Can someone explain me what is going on here (every time you click on the "throw an unchecked exception" button, a divide by zero is performed, on purpose): import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.WindowAdapter; import java.awt.event.WindowEvent; public class CrashEDT extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { final CrashEDT frame = new CrashEDT(); frame.addWindowListener(new WindowAdapter() { public void windowClosing( WindowEvent e) { System.exit(0); } }); final JButton jb = new JButton( "throw an unchecked exception" ); jb.addActionListener( new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ) { System.out.println( "Thread ID:" + Thread.currentThread().getId() ); System.out.println( 0 / Math.abs(0) ); } } ); frame.add( jb ); frame.setSize(300, 150); frame.setVisible(true); } } I get the following message (which is what I'd expect): Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArithmeticException: / by zero and to me this is an unchecked exception right? You can see that the thread ID is getting incremented every time you trigger the crash. So is the EDT automatically restarted every time an unchecked exception is thrown or are unchecked exceptions "caught, dumped and the thread goes on" like Tom Hawtin commented? What is going on here?

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  • [ASP.NET] Change CulturalInfo after button click

    - by Bart
    Hello, i have multilingual asp.net site. there is masterpage and default.aspx in masterpage i put two buttons one to click when i want to change the language to english, second for polish. I want to change the language after click on these buttons (and all changes should appear automatically on the page) here is a code for both: protected void EnglishButton_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { string selectedLanguage = "en-US"; //Sets the cookie that is to be used by InitializeCulture() in content page HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("CultureInfo"); cookie.Value = selectedLanguage; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Server.Transfer(Request.Path); } protected void PolishButton_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { string selectedLanguage = "pl-PL"; //Sets the cookie that is to be used by InitializeCulture() in content page HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("CultureInfo"); cookie.Value = selectedLanguage; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Server.Transfer(Request.Path); } in default.aspx.cs i have InitializeCulture(): protected override void InitializeCulture() { HttpCookie cookie = Request.Cookies["CultureInfo"]; // if there is some value in cookie if (cookie != null && cookie.Value != null) { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(cookie.Value); Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(cookie.Value); } else // if none value has been sent by cookie, set default language { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture("pl-PL"); Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo("pl-PL"); } base.InitializeCulture(); } i added resource files and in one label i show actual culture: Welcome.Text = "Culture: " + System.Globalization.CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.ToString(); the problem is that when i run this app and click e.g. english button (default language is polish), there is no effect. if i click it second time or press F5, the changes are applies and in the label is Culture: en-US. the same happens if i want to change language back to polish (it works after second click (or one click and refresh)). What am i doing wrong? Regards, Bart

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  • Change CulturalInfo after button click

    - by Bart
    i have multilingual asp.net site. there is masterpage and default.aspx in masterpage i put two buttons one to click when i want to change the language to english, second for polish. I want to change the language after click on these buttons (and all changes should appear automatically on the page) here is a code for both: protected void EnglishButton_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { string selectedLanguage = "en-US"; //Sets the cookie that is to be used by InitializeCulture() in content page HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("CultureInfo"); cookie.Value = selectedLanguage; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Server.Transfer(Request.Path); } protected void PolishButton_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { string selectedLanguage = "pl-PL"; //Sets the cookie that is to be used by InitializeCulture() in content page HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("CultureInfo"); cookie.Value = selectedLanguage; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Server.Transfer(Request.Path); } in default.aspx.cs i have InitializeCulture(): protected override void InitializeCulture() { HttpCookie cookie = Request.Cookies["CultureInfo"]; // if there is some value in cookie if (cookie != null && cookie.Value != null) { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(cookie.Value); Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(cookie.Value); } else // if none value has been sent by cookie, set default language { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture("pl-PL"); Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo("pl-PL"); } base.InitializeCulture(); } i added resource files and in one label i show actual culture: Welcome.Text = "Culture: " + System.Globalization.CultureInfo.CurrentCulture.ToString(); the problem is that when i run this app and click e.g. english button (default language is polish), there is no effect. if i click it second time or press F5, the changes are applies and in the label is Culture: en-US. the same happens if i want to change language back to polish (it works after second click (or one click and refresh)). What am i doing wrong?

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  • Flush kernel's TCP buffer with `MSG_MORE`-flagged packets

    - by timn
    send()'s man page reveals the MSG_MORE flag which is asserted to act like TCP_CORK. I have a wrapper function around send(): int SocketConnection_Write(SocketConnection *this, void *buf, int len) { errno = 0; int sent = send(this->fd, buf, len, MSG_NOSIGNAL); if (errno == EPIPE || errno == ENOTCONN) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_NotConnectedException); } else if (errno == ECONNRESET) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_ConnectionResetException); } else if (sent != len) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_LengthMismatchException); } return sent; } Assuming I want to use the kernel buffer, I could go with TCP_CORK, enable whenever it is necessary and then disable it to flush the buffer. But on the other hand, thereby the need for an additional system call arises. Thus, the usage of MSG_MORE seems more appropriate to me. I'd simply change the above send() line to: int sent = send(this->fd, buf, len, MSG_NOSIGNAL | MSG_MORE); According to lwm.net, packets will be flushed automatically if they are large enough: If an application sets that option on a socket, the kernel will not send out short packets. Instead, it will wait until enough data has shown up to fill a maximum-size packet, then send it. When TCP_CORK is turned off, any remaining data will go out on the wire. But this section only refers to TCP_CORK. Now, what is the proper way to flush MSG_MORE packets? I can only think of two possibilities: Call send() with an empty buffer and without MSG_MORE being set Re-apply the TCP_CORK option as described on this page Unfortunately the whole topic is very poorly documented and I couldn't find much on the Internet. I am also wondering how to check that everything works as expected? Obviously running the server through strace' is not an option. So the only simplest way would be to usenetcat' and then look at its `strace' output? Or will the kernel handle traffic differently transmitted over a loopback interface?

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  • Launchd agent not starting

    - by Thomi
    I'm attempting to write a launchd agent that runs a simple application for every user that logs in to the Mac OS X system. I have created a file named com.mycompany.myapp.plist and placed it in /Library/LaunchAgents. The contents of that file are: { LimitLoadToSessionType = "Aqua"; StartInterval = 10; OnDemand = NO; KeepAlive = YES; RunAtLoad = YES; Label = "com.mycompany.myapp"; Program = "/Users/thomi/myapp"; ProgramArguments = ( "/Users/thomi/myapp", "-l", "-d", ); } Initially I didn't have the StartInterval key set, since I thought the agent would start automatically. The problem is that the agent does not start unless I manually issue the following two commands: launchctl load -S Aqua -D all launchctl start com.mycompany.myapp Firther, when I run launchctl list com.mycompany.myapp I get the following output: { "Label" = "com.mycompany.myapp"; "LimitLoadToSessionType" = "System"; "OnDemand" = true; "LastExitStatus" = 0; "TimeOut" = 30; "Program" = "/Users/thomi/myapp"; ProgramArguments = ( "/Users/thomi/myapp", "-l", "-d", ); }; Notice that the LimitLoadToSessionType parameter has changed. Am I missing something here? Is there a different mechanism to start agents like this? Why has the LimitLoadToSessionType property changed?

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  • JSON: Jackson stream parser - is it really worth it?

    - by synic
    I'm making pretty heavy use of JSON parsing in an app I'm writing. Most of what I have done is already implemented using Android's built in JSONObject library (is it json-lib?). JSONObject appears to create instances of absolutely everything in the JSON string... even if I don't end up using all of them. My app currently runs pretty well, even on a G1. My question is this: are the speed and memory benefits from using a stream parser like Jackson worth all the trouble? By trouble, I mean this: As far as I can tell, there are three downsides to using Jackson instead of the built in library: Dependency on an external library. This makes your .apk bigger in the end. Not a huge deal. Your app is more fragile. Since the parsing is not done automatically, it is more vulnerable to changes in the JSON text that it's parsing. I'm extremely worried that malformed JSON will result in infinite loops (as pull parsing requires a lot of while loops). Writing code to parse JSON via a stream parser is ugly and tedious.

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  • JSP or .ascx equivalent for Scala?

    - by Daniel Worthington
    I'm working on a small MVC "framework" (it's really very small) in Scala. I'd like to be able to write my view files as Scala code so I can get lots of help from the compiler. Pre-compiling is great, but what I really want is a way to have the servlet container automatically compile certain files (my view files) on request so I don't have to shut down Jetty and compile all my source files at once, then start it up again just to see small changes to my HTML. I do this a lot with .ascx files in .NET (the file will contain just one scriptlet tag with a bunch of C# code inside which writes out markup using an XmlWriter) and I love this workflow. You just make changes and then refresh your browser, but it's still getting compiled! I don't have a lot of experience with Java, but it seems possible to do this with JSP as well. I'm wondering if this sort of thing is possible in Scala. I have looked into building this myself (see more info here: http://www.nabble.com/Compiler-API-td12050645.html) but I would rather use something else if it's out there.

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  • Specifying ASP.NET MVC attributes for auto-generated data models

    - by Lyubomyr Shaydariv
    Hello to everyone. I'm very new to ASP.NET MVC (as well as ASP.NET in general), and going to gain some knowledge for this technology, so I'm sorry I can ask some trivial questions. I have installed ASP.NET MVC 3 RC1 and I'm trying to do the following. Let's consider that I have a model that's completely auto-generated from a table using the "LINQ to SQL Classes" template in VS2010. The template generates 3 files (two .cs files and one .layout file respectively), and the generated partial class is expected to be used as an MVC model. Let's also consider, a single DB column, that's mapped into the model, may look like this: [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_Name", DbType = "VarChar(128)")] public string Name { get { return this._Name; } set { if ( (this._Name != value) ) { // ... generated stuff goes here } } } The ASP.NET MVC engine also provides a beautiful declarative way to specify some additional stuff, like RequiredAttribute, DisplayNameAttribute and other nice attributes. But since the mapped model is a purely auto-genereated model, I've realized that I should not change the model manually, and specify the fields like: [Required] [DisplayName("Project name")] [StringLength(128)] [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_Name", DbType = "VarChar(128)")] public string Name { ... though this approach works perfectly... until I change the model in the DBML-designer removing the ASP.NET MVC attributes automatically. So, how do I specify ASP.NET MVC attributes for the DBML models and their fields safely? Thanks in advance, and Merry Christmas.

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  • Can I include a NSUserDefault password test in AppDelegate to load a loginView?

    - by Michael Robinson
    I have a name and password in NSUserDefaults for login. I want to place a test in my AppDelegate.m class to test for presence and load a login/signup loginView.xib modally if there is no password or name stored in the app. Here is the pulling of the defaults: -(void)refreshFields { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; usernameLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kUsernameKey]; passwordLabel.text = [defaults objectForKey:kPasswordKey]; Here is the tabcontroller loading part: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { firstTab = [[FirstTab alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; UINavigationController *firstNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:firstTab]; [firstTab release]; secondTab = // EDITED FOR SPACE thirdTab = // EDITED FOR SPACE tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstNavigationController, secondNavigationController, thirdNavigationController, nil]; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [firstNavigationController release]; [secondNavigationController release]; [thirdNavigationController release]; [self logout]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; Here is where the loginView.xib loads automatically: - (void)logout { loginViewController = [[LoginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginView" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *loginNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:loginViewController]; [loginViewController release]; [tabBarController presentModalViewController:loginNavigationController animated:YES]; [loginNavigationController release]; } I want to replace the above autoload with a test similar to below (that works) using IF-ELSE - (void)logout { if ([usernameLabel.text length] == 0 || [passwordLabel.text length] == 0) { loginViewController = [[LoginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoginView" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *loginNavigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:loginViewController]; [loginViewController release]; [tabBarController presentModalViewController:loginNavigationController animated:YES]; [loginNavigationController release]; }else { [window addSubview:tabBarController.view];} Thanks in advance, I'm totally lost on this.

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  • Make an image transparent in IE to show non-transparent background

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to get this thing to work in IE (any version - works in FF, Opera, Safari, Chrome ...): I have a DIV with a background-image. The DIV also contains an image that should be transparent onMouseOver. The expected behaviour now is that the DIV-background would shine through the transparent image (which it does in all browsers but IE). Instead it looks like the image is getting transparent but on a white background, I can't see the DIV's background through the image. Here's some code: <div><a href="#" class"dragItem"><img /></a></div> And some CSS: .dojoDndItemOver { cursor : pointer; filter : alpha(opacity = 50); opacity : 0.5; -moz-opacity : 0.5; -khtml-opacity : 0.5; } .dragItem:hover { filter : alpha(opacity = 30); opacity : 0.3; -moz-opacity : 0.3; -khtml-opacity : 0.3; background : none; } All of this is embedded in a Dojo Drag-n-Drop-system, so dojoDndItemOver will automatically be set to the DIV on MouseOver, dragItem is set to the href around the image (using the same class on the image directly doesn't work at all as IE doesn't support "hover" on other items that href). Any ideas? Or is it an IE-speciality to just "simulate" transparency on images by somehow just greying them out instead of providing real transparency and showing whatever is beneath?

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  • Question about SQL Server HierarchyID depth-first performance

    - by AndalusianCat
    I am trying to implement hierarchyID in a table (dbo.[Message]) containing roughly 50,000 rows (will grow substantially in the future). However it takes 30-40 seconds to retrieve about 25 results. The root node is a filler in order to provide uniqueness, therefor every subsequent row is a child of that dummy row. I need to be able to traverse the table depth-first and have made the hierarchyID column (dbo.[Message].MessageID) the clustering primary key, have also added a computed smallint (dbo.[Message].Hierarchy) which stores the level of the node. Usage: A .Net application passes through a hierarchyID value into the database and I want to be able to retrieve all (if any) children AND parents of that node (besides the root, as it is filler). A simplified version of the query I am using: @MessageID hierarchyID /* passed in from application */ SELECT m.MessageID, m.MessageComment FROM dbo.[Message] as m WHERE m.Messageid.IsDescendantOf(@MessageID.GetAncestor((@MessageID.GetLevel()-1))) = 1 ORDER BY m.MessageID From what I understand, the index should be detected automatically without a hint. From searching forums I have seen people utilizing index hints, at least in the case of breadth-first indexes, as apparently CLR calls may be opaque to the query optimizer. I have spent the past few days trying to find a solution for this issue, but to no avail. I would greatly appreciate any assistance, and as this is my first post, I apologize in advance if this would be considered a 'noobish' question, I have read the MS documentation and searched countless forums, but have not came across a succinct description of the specific issue.

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  • IRC Server configuration possibilities

    - by Katai
    I need to know a couple of things, concerning IRC servers that I couldnt directly find out over google (or werent clear enough for me to be sure if it actually works) I'm working at a larger community site, and wanted to deliver an in-page chat. Since it would be a nice feature to let people access it from outside too, over their own clients, I tought implementing an IRC Server would be the best solution (probably dedicated, I'll have to teach myself a couple of things for that) I plan to include a Web-based IRC client over an APE Client / Server. The problem is, I want to strip down the user rights, to disallow many functionalities that IRC would offer: Change of nicknames: The user logs in over the Page login, and I'll automatically create an IRC auth for this user with that password. So basically, he would connect to the IRC client over a button. And after connecting, he shouldnt be able to change his nickname at all Creating channels: I want the possibility to create channels, but not from 'normal' users. Basically, I would prefer to set up basic channels that are public, and if a user really creates an own channel, that one should be private and via invitation (is that possible?) Private conversations: private conversations should be filtered out from the allaround IRC client, into separate 'in-browser-windows' that I create over JS. I guess I just have to filter the stuff coming from IRC - or is there a better solution to that? Only 'registered' users have access: Like I said, if someone registers on the page, I would like to create an IRC 'account' for him. Users that arent registered on the page, cant access the IRC server at all (or get thrown out). Mainly to avoid spammers or bots from outside. Is this stuff solvable over IRC? I've read some FAQ's and Instructions for IRC OP's and servers, but I couldnt find a clear answer - it seems that everyone can do pretty much everything - I would like to configure it in a way that user possibilities are more cut down. Basically, giving users the possibility to chat, but not more. So the Question basically is, how possible / solvable this issues are allaround, or if I have to find other solutions for this.

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  • Type error while trying to implement the (>>=) function in order to create a custom monad transforme

    - by CharlieP
    Hello, I'm trying to create a monad transformer for a future project, but unfortunately, my implementation of the Monad typeclasse's (=) function doesn't work. First of all, here is the underlying monad's implementation : newtype Runtime a = R { unR :: State EInfo a } deriving (Monad) Here, the implementation of the Monad typeclasse is done automatically by GHC (using the GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving language pragma). The monad transformer is defined as so : newtype RuntimeT m a = RuntimeT { runRuntimeT :: m (Runtime a) } The problem comes from the way I instanciate the (=) function of the Monad typeclasse : instance (Monad m) => Monad (RuntimeT m) where return a = RuntimeT $ (return . return) a x >>= f = runRuntimeT x >>= id >>= f The way I see it, the first >>= runs in the underlying m monad. Thus, runRuntimeT x >>= returns a value of type Runtime a (right ?). Then, the following code, id >>=, should return a value of type a. This value is the passed on to the function f of type f :: (Monad m) => a -> RuntimeT m b. And here comes the type problem : the f function's type doesn't match the type required by the (=) function. Jow can I make this coherent ? I can see why this doesn't work, but I can't manage to turn it into something functionnal. Thank you for you help, and do not hesitate to correct any flaws in my message, Charlie P.

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  • Archive log transfer from Oracle 9i to Oracle 10g

    - by Jamie Love
    Hi all, I have a situation where I need to transfer Oracle 9i archive logs to an Oracle 10g database, from where they are to be mined by a log-miner and then used by an Oracle streams capture/apply processes. (Oracle 9 archive logs can be read by the Oracle 10 logminer - I can manually copy the archive logs across, manually register them and have them mined, captured then applied). The difficulty is that the way Oracle does archive log transfer changed quite a bit between 9i and 10g and setting up the 9i database to transfer to the remote machine like so: log_archive_dest_state_2 = enable log_archive_dest_2 = "service=OTHERMACHINE arch optional" no longer works. I get this in the 9i logs: *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.149 RFS network connection lost at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching RFS server to standby instance at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching to destination LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 standby host 'OTHERMACHINE' Heartbeat failed to connect to standby 'OTHERMACHINE'. Error is 3113. *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.150 kcrrfail: dest:2 err:3113 force:0 ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel And in the 10g log I get: Fri May 22 04:07:42 2009 WARNING: inbound connection timed out (ORA-3136) My question is: Does anyone know how I could configure my 9i or 10g server such that the 10g server will accept the 9i connection in such a way that I can transfer the 9i archive logs to the 10g server. It would be a bonus if the archive logs would be automatically registered in the 10g server. Note I have not set up a full DataGuard configuration here and the 10g database is not a secondary server. Thanks for any suggestions. Edit Note that I can log on to the 10g server from the 9i server via sqlplus, so connectivity is not the problem Edit 2 After a large amount of time searching for a solution, I've finally decided that such a mechanism doesn't work, and that a non-Oracle method of transferring archive logs from 9i to 10g will need to be used (e.g. rsync).

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  • Wysiwyg with image copy/paste

    - by jW
    First, I understand that an image cannot be "copied" from a local machine into a website. I understand that it must be uploaded. I am a web programmer, and am familiar with common web wysiwyg tools such as TinyMCE and FCKEditor. My question is if there exists a program or web module or something of the sort that works will perform an automatic upload of images for a wysiwyg. I have a client that is constantly complaining about not being able to copy/paste documents with images from MS Word into a wysiwyg to create content on their website. I have looked into TX Text Control (http://labs.textcontrol.com/) and was looking into a possibly flash wysiwyg that could upload the file automatically behind the scenes. I don't know if this exists, and google did not much help me in my search, so I thought I would ask other coders. I am open to any sort of server technology, or browser requirements. I am looking for some browser based tool instead of an application tool such as Dreamweaver or otherwise. If no good solution to the problem exists, I am willing to accept that at this point. Note: This was a request from a client, and to me it seemed rather unreasonable. I decided to gather community advice instead of just tell the client 'No' and the options here have been extremely helpful and informative in presenting possible solutions.

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  • ASP.NET Emails blocked by Spam filter on Exchange

    - by Amadiere
    I'm trying to send an email via some C# ASP.NET code. This is being sent to our internal mailrelay server, with our standard "from" address (e.g. [email protected]). In some instances, this is getting through OK, in others, it's getting blocked by the Spam Filter. An example of our Web.config <mailSettings> <smtp from="[email protected]"> <network host="mailrelay.domain.com" defaultCredentials="true" /> </smtp> </mailSettings> I've spoken with our Exchange Server team and they inform me that on occasions, our mail looks sufficiently like spam and is automatically blocked. The algorithm appears to be points based and blocks on a score of 45. 20 points are instantly added because our system is not sending the hostname with the domain name suffixed. e.g. the server is hoping for myServerName.domain.com, but despite being part of that domain, the server is sending from myServerName. I've been asked to look at altering the EHLO string that is sent and/or influencing the host so that it is its fully qualified name. However, this makes little sense to me, and although I understand the concept of what I need to change - I don't know where to begin looking for the fix.

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  • Use Google Calendar UI but showing only filtered events

    - by Edwin
    I have just started using Google Calendar API (using Python client). I'm basically developing a web app for a school with Django. What I'd like to achieve is something like this: To make things simple for now, I have 1 Google account and all events will be created in the calendar under that account (this is the school calendar). The calendar will be made public. When a class is created by a teacher, the class schedule will be automatically added as an event in the Google Calendar. When a student logs in, he can see the school calendar, showing only schedules from the classes that he's registered in. I think I can filter the calendar feeds to show only class schedules that a student is registered in using Google Data API. The problem is, how can I display Google Calendar on my web app using Google Calendar UI to show only those filtered events? I can use Google Calendar UI with the provided embeddable HTML snippet, but I can't control/filter events with that (i.e. all events in the school calendar will be displayed). Or perhaps I'm missing something? I read the Data API guide and the Publishing tool doc but I can't seem to find this information. THanks in advance!

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  • Build System with Recursive Dependency Aggregation

    - by radman
    Hi, I recently began setting up my own library and projects using a cross platform build system (generates make files, visual studio solutions/projects etc on demand) and I have run into a problem that has likely been solved already. The issue that I have run into is this: When an application has a dependency that also has dependencies then the application being linked must link the dependency and also all of its sub-dependencies. This proceeds in a recursive fashion e.g. (For arguments sake lets assume that we are dealing exclusively with static libraries.) TopLevelApp.exe dependency_A dependency_A-1 dependency_A-2 dependency_B dependency_B-1 dependency_B-2 So in this example TopLevelApp will need to link dependency_A, dependency_A-1, dependency_A-2 etc and the same for B. I think the responsibility of remembering all of these manually in the target application is pretty sub optimal. There is also the issue of ensuring the same version of the dependency is used across all targets (assuming that some targets depend on the same things, e.g. boost). Now linking all of the libraries is required and there is no way of getting around it. What I am looking for is a build system that manages this for you. So all you have to do is specify that you depend on something and the appropriate dependencies of that library will be pulled in automatically. The build system I have been looking at is premake premake4 which doesn't handle this (as far as I can determine). Does anyone know of a build system that does handle this? and if there isn't then why not?

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  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

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  • javascript addEventListener onStateChange not working in IE

    - by user347456
    Hi, I have two colorbox popup boxes which show a youtube video in each. When they're finished playing, I'm trying to have them automatically close the colorbox window. This code below works perfect in firefox, but in IE I can't get addEventListener to work. I've tried attachEvent with no success. Can anybody offer any suggestions as to how to solve this? It seems simple but I'm exhausted trying to find a solution. By the way, this is my first time as stackoverflow and it's very impressive. var params = { allowScriptAccess: "always" }; var atts = { id: "ytplayer1" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://www.youtube.com/v/VIDEO1&rel=0&hl=en_US&fs=0&autoplay=1&enablejsapi=1&playerapiid=ytvideo1", "popupVideoContainer1", "640", "385", "8", null, null, params, atts); var params2 = { allowScriptAccess: "always" }; var atts2 = { id: "ytplayer2" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://www.youtube.com/v/VIDEO2&rel=0&hl=en_US&fs=0&autoplay=1&enablejsapi=1&playerapiid=ytvideo2", "popupVideoContainer2", "640", "385", "8", null, null, params2, atts2); function onYouTubePlayerReady(playerId) { if(playerId == 'ytvideo1'){ var ytplayer = document.getElementById('ytplayer1'); ytplayer.addEventListener("onStateChange", "onytplayerStateChange", false); } else if(playerId == 'ytvideo2'){ var ytplayer = document.getElementById("ytplayer2"); //ytplayer.addEventListener("onStateChange", "onytplayerStateChange", false); if (ytplayer.addEventListener) { ytplayer.addEventListener("onStateChange", "onytplayerStateChange", false); } else if (ytplayer.attachEvent) { ytplayer.attachEvent("onStateChange", onytplayerStateChange); } } } function onytplayerStateChange(newState) { if(newState == 0){ $.fn.colorbox.close(); } }

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  • IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults not behaving as thought

    - by pdiddy
    I have this simple test project just to test the IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults behavior. public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData(int value) { throw new InvalidCastException("test"); return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } } [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData(int value); } In the app.config of the service i have it set to true <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> On the client side: try { using (var proxy = new ServiceReference1.Service1Client()) Console.WriteLine(proxy.GetData(5)); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } This is what I thought the behavior was: Setting to includeExceptionDetailInFaults=true would propagate the exception detail to the client. But I'm always getting the CommunicationObjectFaultException. I did try having the FaultContract(typeof(InvalidCastException)) on the contract but same behavior, only getting the CommunicationObjectFaultException. The only way to make it work was to throw new FaultException(new InvalidCastException("test")); But I thought with IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults=true the above was done automatically. Am I missing something?

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  • Test Results window in VS2008 not showing results

    - by TimK
    I have an existing solution that has been working for a long time, containing around 600 tests in a couple of test projects. I recently moved to a new PC - it's Win7-x64, and I installed a fresh copy of VS2008. When I first opened the solution on the new machine, the Test List Editor was completely empty. Trying to create a new test list caused the editor to refresh, and now it shows my test lists, but they're acting funny. I can select tests in the lists, and run them, but the results window doesn't usually update automatically to show the results of the latest test. It has done this when running a single test a couple of times, but even that is not consistent. The only way I can view the results is by manually going to the Test Runs window and connecting to individual test runs. When I do that, the results show up in the results list, but I can't check them to re-run the failed tests - the check boxes are all disabled. I guess I should describe the way it used to work, in case that was unusual - I used to select some tests from the Test Lists window, tell it to run them, and the results window would clear itself, and then display the results from the current run. I could then check any tests that I wanted to re-run, and use the run/debug button in the results window to do so. Any ideas what's going on here?

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  • Should a Perl constructor return an undef or a "invalid" object?

    - by DVK
    Question: What is considered to be "Best practice" - and why - of handling errors in a constructor?. "Best Practice" can be a quote from Schwartz, or 50% of CPAN modules use it, etc...; but I'm happy with well reasoned opinion from anyone even if it explains why the common best practice is not really the best approach. As far as my own view of the topic (informed by software development in Perl for many years), I have seen three main approaches to error handling in a perl module (listed from best to worst in my opinion): Construct an object, set an invalid flag (usually "is_valid" method). Often coupled with setting error message via your class's error handling. Pros: Allows for standard (compared to other method calls) error handling as it allows to use $obj->errors() type calls after a bad constructor just like after any other method call. Allows for additional info to be passed (e.g. 1 error, warnings, etc...) Allows for lightweight "redo"/"fixme" functionality, In other words, if the object that is constructed is very heavy, with many complex attributes that are 100% always OK, and the only reason it is not valid is because someone entered an incorrect date, you can simply do "$obj->setDate()" instead of the overhead of re-executing entire constructor again. This pattern is not always needed, but can be enormously useful in the right design. Cons: None that I'm aware of. Return "undef". Cons: Can not achieve any of the Pros of the first solution (per-object error messages outside of global variables and lightweight "fixme" capability for heavy objects). Die inside the constructor. Outside of some very narrow edge cases, I personally consider this an awful choice for too many reasons to list on the margins of this question. UPDATE: Just to be clear, I consider the (otherwise very worthy and a great design) solution of having very simple constructor that can't fail at all and a heavy initializer method where all the error checking occurs to be merely a subset of either case #1 (if initializer sets error flags) or case #3 (if initializer dies) for the purposes of this question. Obviously, choosing such a design, you automatically reject option #2.

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  • Auto width on tables

    - by Hulk
    A html table cols and rows are generated dynamically, i.e, for the first instance it could be two rows and there columns. and next time it could be two rows and 10 columns My question is how to adjust the with automatically of the table so that the table always appears 100% in the page adjusting the coulmn size and row size <table> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> </table> <table> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <tr><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> </table> Thanks..

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