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• How to Deserialize Missing Fields To Nulls

  - by Nathan

  I am working on a .NET project where several versions of the same type of object have been created over the life of the project - most new versions add a field or two. However, now I am looking to mitigate problems for users with an old version. My goal is that when a user tries to open an old version of the serialized object with the new program, the program will automatically assign default values to the fields that are missing from the depreciated version of the file. For example, say I had a class with two boolean fields - RepeatSound and RepeatForever. The first version of the program doesn't know how to repeat forever, so it only saved RepeatSound: <anyType xsi:type="Sound"> <RepeatSound>true</RepeatSound> </anyType> but the new files look like this: <anyType xsi:type="Sound"> <RepeatSound>true</RepeatSound> <RepeatForever>true</RepeatForever> </anyType> My goal is that when I deserialize the first file in the new program that it will create the Sound object but simply default the value of RepeatForever to false. Right now trying to deserialize the first object would throw an exception. Thank you in advance for any responses

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• Submit WordPress form password programmatically

  - by songdogtech

  How can I let a user access a WordPress protected page with a URL that will submit the password in the form below? I want to be able to let a user get to a password protected WordPress page without needing to type the password, so when they go to the page, the password is submitted by a POST URL on page load. This not intended to be secure in any respect; I'll need to hardcode the password in the URL and the PHP. It's just for simplicity for the user, and once they're in, the cookie will let them in for 10 more days. I will select the particular user with separate PHP function that determines their IP or WordPress login status. I used Wireshark to find the POST string: post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit but using this URL mydomain.com/wp-pass.php?post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit gives me a blank page. This is the form: <form action="http://mydomain.com/wp-pass.php" method="post"> Password: <input name="post_password" type="password" size="20" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /></form> This is wp-pass.php: <?php require( dirname(__FILE__) . '/wp-load.php'); if ( get_magic_quotes_gpc() ) $_POST['post_password'] = stripslashes($_POST['post_password']); setcookie('wp-postpass_' . COOKIEHASH, $_POST['post_password'], time() + 864000, COOKIEPATH); wp_safe_redirect(wp_get_referer()); ?> What am I doing wrong? Or is there a better way to let a user into a password protected page automatically?

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• Why do the overloads of String.Format exist?

  - by GiddyUpHorsey

  I was using Reflector to look at the implementation of String.Format and had always been under the impression that the overloads of String.Format that took 1, 2 & 3 arguments were optimized versions of the method that takes an object array. However, what I found was that internally they create an object array and then call a method that takes an object array. 1 arg public static string Format(string format, object arg0) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0 }); } 2 args public static string Format(string format, object arg0, object arg1) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0, arg1 }); } 3 args public static string Format(string format, object arg0, object arg1, object arg2) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0, arg1, arg2 }); } Object array public static string Format(string format, params object[] args) { if ((format == null) || (args == null)) { throw new ArgumentNullException((format == null) ? "format" : "args"); } return Format(null, format, args); } Internally they all end up using the same code and so using the 1, 2 & 3 argument versions are no faster than the object array version. So my question is - why do they exist? When you use the object array version with a comma separated list of values, the compiler automatically converts the arguments into an object array because of the params/ParamArray keyword which is essentially what the 1, 2 & 3 versions do, so they seem redundant. Why did the BCL designers add these overloads?

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• How can I put double quotes inside a string within an ajax JSON response from php?

  - by karlthorwald

  I receive a JSON response in an Ajax request from the server. This way it works: { "a" = "1", "b" = "hello 'kitty'" } But I did not succeed in putting double quotes around kitty. When I convert " to \x22 in the Ajax response, it is still interpreted as " by JavaScript and I cannot parse the JSON. Should I also escape the \ and unescape later (which would be possible)? How to do this? Edit: I am not sure if i expressed it well: I want this string inside of "b" after the parse: hello "kitty" If necessary I could also add an additional step after the parse to convert "b", but I guess it is not necessary, there is a more elegant way so this happens automatically? Edit2: The ajax page is generated by php. I tried several things now to create the value of b, all result in JSON parse error on the page: $b = 'hello "kitty"'; // no 1: //$b = str_replace('"',"\x22",$b); // or no 2: // $b = addslashes($b); // or no 3: //$b = str_replace('"','\"',$b); // or no 4: $b = str_replace('"','\\"',$b); echo '"b" : "' . $b . '"';

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• OpenPeak Flash app XMLSocket Security Problem

  - by Kira

  We're trying to create an app for OpenPeak. The Flash app will act as a client to a Java server on another computer on another domain. The Flash app client connects via XMLSocket. The Java Server uses ServerSocket to receive a request and send back a message. In order to trust the server, the Flash client needs a socket master policy file to tell it that the server comes from a trustworthy domain. According to an article on Adobe, when a connection has succeeded, the Flash client automatically requests the cross-domain policy or socket master policy file on port 843. Still, even when we implement it according to the tutorials and recommendations we have read, the Flash client continues to throw the following security error: SecurityErrorEvent type="securityError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2048" We've tried logging the policy file request during testing to see if there was any call made to port 843. There was not. Interestingly, even without a policy file, the Flash client still manages to send the first data message to the server successfully. It's just when the server tries to send back a reply that the entire thing hangs for about 10 seconds before the security error above is displayed. Any ideas / suggestions?

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• rapid application developement tools for very basic GUI apps

  - by Jurij

  I know there are many RAD platforms out there. Infact there are so many that I'm having a hard time finding out which one fits me best. What I want is a RAD tool that would allow me to define a database data model (make DB tables) and then create (view and edit) forms for the various tables. Data input, updating and various queries should be easy and GUI should generate automatically. I'd like to add some additional functionality by coding (such as various complex calculations on the data). I'm a programmer so I'm willing to learn to use a more complete, full-blown RAD solution if you can point me to it (NetBeans and RubyOnRails being the two such frameworks that I'd would probably be high on the list). I'm currently doing Windows Forms logistics apps in .NET. I've actually developed a very crude and basic version of what I need, but I just know that there are solutions out there that are much better and I'd benefit by knowing how to use them. So in short, the basic requirements: * database based data storage (SQLite if possible) * very automated GUI creation * desktop based (as in: not a web app) * extendable by coding * used for creating simple data entry, view & query apps. So basically something like Oracle Forms or DotNetMushroom Rapid Application Developer. But for .NET and SQLite if possible.

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• should std::auto_ptr<>::operator = reset / deallocate its existing pointee ?

  - by afriza

  I read here about std::auto_ptr<::operator= Notice however that the left-hand side object is not automatically deallocated when it already points to some object. You can explicitly do this by calling member function reset before assigning it a new value. However, when I read the source code for header file C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\ce\include\memory template<class _Other> auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Other>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Ty>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr_ref<_Ty> _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right._Ref (assume pointer) _Ty **_Pptr = (_Ty **)_Right._Ref; _Ty *_Ptr = *_Pptr; *_Pptr = 0; // release old reset(_Ptr); // set new return (*this); } What is the correct/standard behavior? How do other STL implementations behave?

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• Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

  - by Xiong Chiamiov

  I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

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• Actionscript image download open custom viewer

  - by Vish

  Hi Gurus, i am downloading tiff images from WAMP server using our Flex AIR client. Using the following code for that. public static function requestDownload(id:int, defaultName:String):void { //POST params var urlVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); urlVars.action = "download"; urlVars.fid = id; var urlReq:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); urlReq.url = Config.getServerURL(); urlReq.data = urlVars; Config.fileReference.addEventListener(Event.,FileDownload.requestDownloadResultV); try { Config.fileReference.download(urlReq, defaultName); } catch (e:Error) { Alert.show("Error in downloading the file"); } } public static function requestDownloadResultV(e:Event):void { Alert.show("File downloaded"); } No issues with the download. It automatically prompts for a Save dialog. Works well. But i want to open the image being downloaded in a viewer(flash viewer or any) instead of the save dialog. Please help me. Thanks Vish.

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• Perl Script in background

  - by himz

  I have a perl script i made to automatically telnet into different servers . but its interface is only command line. To make it more user friendly for general windows users , i need to make GUI for it . My idea is to make GUI in a language like VB,java ,etc and let that call perl script . my script will run in background in a command prompt and whatever the result it displays back in GUI. Got some success. GUI in vb ,I run an instance of CMD in background ,run perl script in that .But that is wer program fails .As perl script runs in a thread for perl , i only get the output when script completes(rather say when it timeout). i need a mechanism where i can interact with the perl script , take output of script and show to user , then take input from user and so on . Please can you all suggest me some way to actually make this happen. PS: No limitation on using any language for GUI (as core work is done by perl script,GUI only there to give appropriate commands to script) Thanks in advance

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• Wordpress Rewrite Redirect Failure

  - by Rory Hart

  I'm helping a friend recover from the mess outsourcing a wordpress website caused him (mistake #1) and I have this weird error. The hosting he is using appears to be redirecting www.domain.com to domain.com (NFI why) automatically which works fine in every browser except IE (i know right!). So adding the first redirect fixed that, until I added the permalink redirect. Now when IE goes to an old wordpress link like http://www.domain.com/?p=520 the redirect fails. RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / # Rewrite rule for wierd redirect issue RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*)$ "http\:\/\/doman\.com\/$1" [R=301,L] # Rewrite Rule for Wordress Permalinks RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] I tested this out with wget and it complains: ERROR: Redirection (301) without location. So it seems likely that IE is suffering from the same error (without the helpful error message). But I haven't a clue how to fix it. I am hoping that he will switch hosting companies but we will see. In the meantime any ideas?

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• Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

  - by GIbboK

  Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

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• Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

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• simple Java "service provider frameworks"?

  - by Jason S

  I refer to "service provider framework" as discussed in Chapter 2 of Effective Java, which seems like exactly the right way to handle a problem I am having, where I need to instantiate one of several classes at runtime, based on a String to select which service, and an Configuration object (essentially an XML snippet): But how do I get the individual service providers (e.g. a bunch of default providers + some custom providers) to register themselves? interface FooAlgorithm { /* methods particular to this class of algorithms */ } interface FooAlgorithmProvider { public FooAlgorithm getAlgorithm(Configuration c); } class FooAlgorithmRegistry { private FooAlgorithmRegistry() {} static private final Map<String, FooAlgorithmProvider> directory = new HashMap<String, FooAlgorithmProvider>(); static public FooAlgorithmProvider getProvider(String name) { return directory.get(serviceName); } static public boolean registerProvider(String name, FooAlgorithmProvider provider) { if (directory.containsKey(name)) return false; directory.put(name, provider); return true; } } e.g. if I write custom classes MyFooAlgorithm and MyFooAlgorithmProvider to implement FooAlgorithm, and I distribute them in a jar, is there any way to get registerProvider to be called automatically, or will my client programs that use the algorithm have to explicitly call FooAlgorithmRegistry.registerProvider() for each class they want to use?

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• auto m3u creation

  - by newbie69

  Hi, I am looking for a solution to automatically create .m3u playlists for each music folder in my sdcard so that the music player can play music by folders. I had written a simple VB.Net app in the past that does exactly the above but apparently, it has to be run from Windows. Since I have no Java nor Android developing experience I found it quite hard to try to write a similar app that can be run directly from the phone. In a few words, the app does the following: 1) Searches the SD and lists all folders that contain 2 or more .mp3 files (just for user verification) 2) Creates in every listed folder above, a .m3u file that simply lists line-by-line all the mp3 files that exist in the specific folder. Is there such an app or could someone spare some time and give me some rough instructions on how to create it in Eclipse 3.5.2 environment? (device used: Motorola Droid/Milestone, Android 2.1) I don't care about any graphics or complex UI, just a script to execute the above procedure that would give every "playlist-supporting" music player in Android, the precious ability to play music by folders. I know it is too much to ask but just in case! Thanx in advance.

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• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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• Location of the object after scrolling in UIScrollView

  - by ludo

  Hi, I have a scrollView (width:320px height:100px) on my UIView, inside it I add 10 images with width:106.5px each. After that I use this function to have 3 different parts inside my scrollView, so everytime I scroll, an image will automatically be center. -(void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)returnToPosition:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { CGFloat itemWidth = 106.5f; CGFloat position = [self.scrollView contentOffset].x; CGFloat newPosition = 0.0f; CGFloat offSet = position / itemWidth; NSUInteger target = (NSUInteger)(offSet + 0.5f); newPosition = target * itemWidth; [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(newPosition, 0.0f) animated:YES]; } Here is my question, I want to be able to know which image will be in the middle position after the user scroll the View, because I want to display on my UIView a text, specific to that image. But I don't know how to do that. Some Ideas?

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• Integer Surrogate Key?

  - by CitadelCSAlum

  I need something real simple, that for some reason I am unable to accomplish to this point. I have also been unable to Google the answer surprisingly. I need to number the entries in different tables uniquely. I am aware of AUTO INCREMENT in MySQL and that it will be involved. My situation would be as follows If I had a table like Table EXAMPLE ID - INTEGER FIRST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) LAST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) PHONE - VARCHAR(45) CITY - VARCHAR(45) STATE - VARCHAR(45) ZIP - VARCHAR(45) This would be the setup for the table where ID is an integer that is auto-incremented every time an entry is inserted into the table. The thing I need is that I do not want to have to account for this field when inserting data into the database. From my understanding this would be a surrogate key, that I can tell the database to automatically increment and I do not have to include it in the INSERT STATEMENT so instead of INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES (2,'JOHN','SMITH',333-333-3333,'NORTH POLE'.... I can leave out the first ID column and just write something like INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES ('JOHN','SMITH'.....etc) Notice I Wouldnt have to define the ID column... I know this is a very common task to do, but for some reason I cant get to the bottom of it. I am using MySQL, just to clarify. Thanks alot

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• Loading the target of a link in a <DIV> via jQuery's .live event into the same <DIV>??

  - by Martin Pescador

  Hello together I call a certain div from another page with jquery to be loaded into a div on my main page like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $("#scotland").load("http://www.example.com/scotland .gallery"); </script> <div id="scotland"></div> The div I call is a piece of code which is automatically generated by a CMS made simple module, by the way. Now it comes to my problem: The .gallery div I call, looks, a little simplified, like this: <div class="gallery"> <span><img src="http://www.example.com/scotlandimage1.jpg"></span> <span class="imgnavi"><a href="link_to_next_page_with_one_image">Next image</href></span> </div> I want the "next image"-link to load the next page into the .gallery div (it is always a page with one image on it). But what it does, is, it opens the new page http://www.example.com/scotland only. I tried to use jquerys .live event to load the linked page (that would be "scotlandimage2" and the navigation, as you can see in the upper part - not only the image!), but I must have done something wrong. I tried different ways, but never got it to work. This was my last try: $(".imgnavi a").click(function() { var myUrl = $(this).attr("href"); $(".gallery").load(myUrl); return false; }); I have to admit that I am very new to jquery... But does someone know what I did wrong (do I even follow the right handlers?)? Thanks very much in advance! Martin

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• jQuery: Using autocomplete to add values to two fields instead of one

  - by rayne

  I want to use the autocomplete plugin for jQuery to populate not one, but two fields when selecting one of the autocomplete values - the name of a band is entered in the #band input field, but the band url (if exists) should also automatically be added to the #url input field when selecting the band name. Right now I simply have an un-pretty list in an external php file from which the autocompleter takes it's values: $bands_sql = "SELECT bands.name, bands.url FROM bands ORDER BY name"; $bands_result = mysql_query($bands_sql) or print (mysql_error()); while ($bands_row = mysql_fetch_array($bands_result)) { $band_name = $bands_row['name']; $band_url = $bands_row['url']; echo $band_name."\n"; #needs to be replaced with an array that holds name and url } My autocomplete function looks very basic atm, but as I'm an absolute beginner when it comes to jQuery (and also clueless when it comes to PHP arrays), I have no idea how to tell it to populate two fields and not one. $(document).ready(function() { $("#band").autocomplete('/autocomplete-bands.php'); }); Is that even possible?!

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• Capturing time intervals when somebody was online? How would you impement this feature?

  - by Kirzilla

  Hello, Our aim is to build timelines saying about periods of time when user was online. (It really doesn't matter what user we are talking about and where he was online) To get information about onliners we can call API method, someservice.com/api/?call=whoIsOnline whoIsOnline method will give us a list of users currently online. But there is no API method to get information about who IS NOT online. So, we should build our timelines using information we got from whoIsOnline. Of course there will be a measurement error (we can't track information in realtime). Let's suppose that we will call whoIsOnline method every 2 minutes (yes, we will run our script by cron every 2 minutes). For example, calling whoIsOnline at 08:00 will return Peter_id Michal_id Andy_id calling whoIsOnline at 08:02 will return Michael_id Andy_id George_id As you can see, Peter has gone offline, but we have new onliner - George. Available instruments are Db(MySQL) / text files / key-value storage (Redis/memcache); feel free to choose any of them (or even all of them). So, we have to get information like this George_id was online... 12 May: 08:02-08:30, 12:40-12:46, 20:14-22:36 11 May: 09:10-12:30, 21:45-23:00 10 May: was not online And now question... How would you store information to implement such timelines? How would you query/calculate information about periods of time when user was online? Additional information.. You cannot update information about offline users, only users who are "currently" online. Solution should be flexible: timeline information could be represented relating to any timezone. We should keep information only for last 7 days. Every user seen online is automatically getting his own identifier in our database. Uff.. it was really hard for me to write it because my English is pretty bad, but I hope my question will be clear for you. Thank you.

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• Adding time zone hours difference to time

  - by Hwang

  I know there's a much better and correct way to do it, but i need a temporarily solutions. I need to add in extra hours to the time, and the day will change automatically too. How should I change the code below? package { public class getTime { private var today:Date=new Date(); private var hour:uint=today.getHours(); private var minute:uint=today.getMinutes(); private var month:uint=today.getMonth(); private var monthArray:Array=new Array('January','February','March','April','May','June','July','August','September','October','November','December'); private var time:String = getUSClockTime(today.getHours(), today.getMinutes()); public var dateNtime:String=(time+", " +today.getDate()+" "+monthArray[month]+" "+today.getFullYear());; public function getTime() { } private function getUSClockTime(hrs:uint, mins:uint):String { var modifier:String="PM"; var minLabel:String=doubleDigitFormat(mins); if (hrs>12) { hrs=hrs-12; } else if (hrs == 0) { modifier="AM"; hrs=12; } else if (hrs < 12) { modifier="AM"; } return (doubleDigitFormat(hrs) + ":" + minLabel + " " + modifier); } private function doubleDigitFormat(num):String { if (num<10) { return ("0" + num); } return num; } } }

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• How to Set Customer Table with Multiple Phone Numbers? - Relational Database Design

  - by user311509

  CREATE TABLE Phone ( phoneID - PK . . . ); CREATE TABLE PhoneDetail ( phoneDetailID - PK phoneID - FK points to Phone phoneTypeID ... phoneNumber ... . . . ); CREATE TABLE Customer ( customerID - PK firstName phoneID - Unique FK points to Phone . . . ); A customer can have multiple phone numbers e.g. Cell, Work, etc. phoneID in Customer table is unique and points to PhoneID in Phone table. If customer record is deleted, phoneID in Phone table should also be deleted. Do you have any concerns on my design? Is this designed properly? My problem is phoneID in Customer table is a child and if child record is deleted then i can not delete the parent (Phone) record automatically.

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• Suppress indentation after environment in LaTeX

  - by David

  I'm trying to create a new environment in my LaTeX document where indentation in the next paragraph following the environment is suppressed. I have been told (TeXbook and LaTeX source) that by setting \everypar to {\setbox0\lastbox}, the TeX typesetter will execute this at the beginning of the next paragraph and thus remove the indentation: \everypar{\setbox0\lastbox} So this is what I do, but to no effect (following paragraph is still indented): \newenvironment{example} {\begin{list} {} {\setlength\leftmargin{2em}}} {\end{list}\everypar{\setbox0\lastbox}} I have studied LaTeX's internals as well as I could manage. It seems that the \end routine says \endgroup and \par at some point, which may be the reason LaTeX ignores my \everypar setting. \global doesn't help either. I know about \noindent but want to do this automatically. Example document fragment: This is paragraph text. This is paragraph text, too. \begin{example} \item This is the first item in the list. \item This is the second item in the list. \end{example} This is more paragraph text. I don't want this indented, please. Internal routines and switches of interest seem to be \@endpetrue, \@endparenv and others. Thanks for your help.

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• Not indent the first paragraph of a LaTeX document

  - by Andrew

  In the standard LaTeX article class (and probably others as well), paragraph indentation follows standard American publishing norms of not indenting the first paragraph after a section{} or subsection{}. I've redefined \maketitle in a LaTeX document and put the actual title left-aligned as the last line, fairly close to the actual text (kind of like this) Author Date Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Section title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Since the title is left-aligned and so close to the text, I'd like the first paragraph of the document to not be indented, just like with the headings ... Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor... ... I've attempted to use @afterindentfalse, which is what the section commands use, inside my renewed commands, but it doesn't work. \makeatletter \def\noindentation{\let\@afterindentfalse} \newcommand{\mytitle}[1]{% \vskip 2em {\bf\sffamily\LARGE #1} \noindentation} \renewcommand{\@maketitle}{ \begin{flushleft}{ % Author \@author \par % Date \@date \par % Title \mytitle{\@title} } \end{flushleft} } \makeatother By default the first paragraph in the article class is indented, so this question is applicable whether or not I renew \maketitle. So, what's the best way to automatically not indent the first paragraph of the document? Thanks!

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