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Debugging IDAPython Scripts outside of IDAPro

- by YaronK

I'm kinda new to scripting for IDA - nevertheless, I've written a complex script I need to debug, as it is not working properly. It is composed of a few different files containing a few different classes. Writing line-by-line in the commandline is not effective for obvious reasons. Running a whole script from the File doesn't allow debugging. Is there a way of using the idc, idautils, idaapi not from within IDA? I've written the script on PyDev for Eclipse, I'm hoping for a way to run the scripts from within it. A similar question is, can the api classes I have mentioned work on idb files without IDA having them loaded? Thanks.

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htaccess/htpasswd in hierarchical folder structure

- by chessweb

I have a folder (folder_1) that is protected by htaccess/htpasswd files. Inside that folder is another folder (folder_2) that is protected by another couple of htaccess/htpasswd files. When a php-script in folder_1 or folder_2 is called, the user has to authenticate herself using the correct username and password as specified in the respective htaccess/htpasswd files. This works as intended. However, as soon as the php-script in folder_2 tries to refer to another script or a css-file that is located in folder_1, the user must enter username and password for folder_1 as well. Is there a way to avoid this that does not involve copying scripts and css-files from folder_1 to folder_2? Regards, Ralf

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javascript change innerhtml

- by David

ok im new at javascript, but im trying to change the innerhtml of a div tag, heres my script and its not working: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function var1() { document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = 'hi'; } window.onLoad = var1(); </script> </head> <body> <div id="test">change</div> </body> it should work but for some reason its not, any help?

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jQuery: 'async: false' Not Working With IE7 / IE6

- by Norbert

I created a simple tracking script which adds the users info to a database when the page is unloaded. It works on all browsers except IE7 and IE6. IE7 gives me errors, but I can't open the "debugger" because I'm using the standalone version (or at least that's what I think the problems is). I removed the async: false, from the script below and I didn't get any errors, but I need async set to false in order for the script to work. Any ideas? $(window).unload(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "add.php", data: "ip=" + jIp + "&date=" + jDate + "&time=" + jTime, }); }); Update: I got IE7 to display the error, kinda. When I click OK on the dialog on top, it closes both dialogs. Ugh!

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Passing a parameter so that it cannot be changed – C#

- by nmarun

I read this requirement of not allowing a user to change the value of a property passed as a parameter to a method. In C++, as far as I could recall (it’s been over 10 yrs, so I had to refresh memory), you can pass ‘const’ to a function parameter and this ensures that the parameter cannot be changed inside the scope of the function. There’s no such direct way of doing this in C#, but that does not mean it cannot be done!! Ok, so this ‘not-so-direct’ technique depends on the type of the parameter – a simple property or a collection. Parameter as a simple property: This is quite easy (and you might have guessed it already). Bulent Ozkir clearly explains how this can be done here. Parameter as a collection property: Obviously the above does not work if the parameter is a collection of some type. Let’s dig-in. Suppose I need to create a collection of type KeyTitle as defined below. 1: public class KeyTitle 2: { 3: public int Key { get; set; } 4: public string Title { get; set; } 5: } My class is declared as below: 1: public class Class1 2: { 3: public Class1() 4: { 5: MyKeyTitleList = new List<KeyTitle>(); 6: } 7: 8: public List<KeyTitle> MyKeyTitleList { get; set; } 9: public ReadOnlyCollection<KeyTitle> ReadonlyKeyTitleCollection 10: { 11: // .AsReadOnly creates a ReadOnlyCollection<> type 12: get { return MyKeyTitleList.AsReadOnly(); } 13: } 14: } See the .AsReadOnly() method used in the second property? As MSDN says it: “Returns a read-only IList<T> wrapper for the current collection.” Knowing this, I can implement my code as: 1: public static void Main() 2: { 3: Class1 class1 = new Class1(); 4: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 1, Title = "abc" }); 5: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 2, Title = "def" }); 6: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 3, Title = "ghi" }); 7: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 4, Title = "jkl" }); 8: 9: TryToModifyCollection(class1.MyKeyTitleList.AsReadOnly()); 10: 11: Console.ReadLine(); 12: } 13: 14: private static void TryToModifyCollection(ReadOnlyCollection<KeyTitle> readOnlyCollection) 15: { 16: // can only read 17: for (int i = 0; i < readOnlyCollection.Count; i++) 18: { 19: Console.WriteLine("{0} - {1}", readOnlyCollection[i].Key, readOnlyCollection[i].Title); 20: } 21: // Add() - not allowed 22: // even the indexer does not have a setter 23: } The output is as expected: The below image shows two things. In the first line, I’ve tried to access an element in my read-only collection through an indexer. It shows that the ReadOnlyCollection<> does not have a setter on the indexer. The second line tells that there’s no ‘Add()’ method for this type of collection. The capture below shows there’s no ‘Remove()’ method either, there-by eliminating all ways of modifying a collection. Mission accomplished… right? Now, even if you have a collection of different type, all you need to do is to somehow cast (used loosely) it to a List<> and then do a .AsReadOnly() to get a ReadOnlyCollection of your custom collection type. As an example, if you have an IDictionary<int, string>, you can create a List<T> of this type with a wrapper class (KeyTitle in our case). 1: public IDictionary<int, string> MyDictionary { get; set; } 2: 3: public ReadOnlyCollection<KeyTitle> ReadonlyDictionary 4: { 5: get 6: { 7: return (from item in MyDictionary 8: select new KeyTitle 9: { 10: Key = item.Key, 11: Title = item.Value, 12: }).ToList().AsReadOnly(); 13: } 14: } Cool huh? Just one thing you need to know about the .AsReadOnly() method is that the only way to modify your ReadOnlyCollection<> is to modify the original collection. So doing: 1: public static void Main() 2: { 3: Class1 class1 = new Class1(); 4: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 1, Title = "abc" }); 5: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 2, Title = "def" }); 6: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 3, Title = "ghi" }); 7: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 4, Title = "jkl" }); 8: TryToModifyCollection(class1.MyKeyTitleList.AsReadOnly()); 9: 10: Console.WriteLine(); 11: 12: class1.MyKeyTitleList.Add(new KeyTitle { Key = 5, Title = "mno" }); 13: class1.MyKeyTitleList[2] = new KeyTitle{Key = 3, Title = "GHI"}; 14: TryToModifyCollection(class1.MyKeyTitleList.AsReadOnly()); 15: 16: Console.ReadLine(); 17: } Gives me the output of: See that the second element’s Title is changed to upper-case and the fifth element also gets displayed even though we’re still looping through the same ReadOnlyCollection<KeyTitle>. Verdict: Now you know of a way to implement ‘Method(const param1)’ in your code!

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jQuery.post dynamic data callback function

- by FFish

I have a script that requires quite e few seconds of processing, up to about minute. The script resizes an array of images, sharpens them and finally zips them up for the user to download. Now I need some sort of progress messages. I was thinking that with jQuery's .post() method the data from the callback function would progressively update, but that doesn't seem to work. In my example I am just using a loop to simulate my script: $(document).ready(function() { $('a.loop').click(function() { $.post('loop.php', {foo:"bar"}, function(data) { $("div").html(data); }); return false; }); }); loop.php: for ($i = 0; $i <= 100; $i++) { echo $i . "<br />"; } echo "done";

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datetime command line argument in python 2.4

- by Ike Walker

I want to pass a datetime value into my python script on the command line. My first idea was to use optparse and pass the value in as a string, then use datetime.strptime to convert it to a datetime. This works fine on my machine (python 2.6), but I also need to run this script on machines that are running python 2.4, which doesn't have datetime.strptime. How can I pass the datetime value to the script in python 2.4? Here's the code I'm using in 2.6: parser = optparse.OptionParser() parser.add_option("-m", "--max_timestamp", dest="max_timestamp", help="only aggregate items older than MAX_TIMESTAMP", metavar="MAX_TIMESTAMP(YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MM)") options,args = parser.parse_args() if options.max_timestamp: # Try parsing the date argument try: max_timestamp = datetime.datetime.strptime(options.max_timestamp, "%Y-%m-%d %H:%M") except: print "Error parsing date input:",sys.exc_info() sys.exit(1)

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ASP.NET: Why is my JavaScript object set to null?

- by Giffyguy

I have a <script> that contains this line: var tbl = document.getElementById("<%= this.tblSelection.ClientID %>"); ... but tbl always ends up being set to null. The table is declared like this: <asp:Table ID="tblSelection" runat="server" CellPadding="2" CellSpacing="0" cols="1" style="position: absolute; top: 0%; right: 0%"> Both the script and the table are in the same master page file. What could be causing this? EDIT: I should mention that this script is executed on onload

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fb:comments does not showing Log out link

- by mahfuz05

fb.comments does not showing Log out link here is my code < fb:comments xid="mahfuz" canpost="true" candelete="false" > < /fb:comments> here is JS SDK code <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'my app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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Problems with sp_addlinkedserver in MSSQL 2000

- by manneorama

Hi! I'm having a bit of a problem with moving specific data from one server running MSSQL 2000 (A) and another running MSSQL 2008 (B). I'm writing a script according to customer specifications which is to be executed on A, populating tables in B with data. However, I can't seem to get the server link to work. -- Bunch of declarations here EXEC sp_addlinkedserver @server = @ServerName, @srvproduct = @ServerProduct, @provider = @ProviderString, @datasrc = @RemoteHost -- Data migration stuff here EXEC sp_dropserver @ServerName Now if I run the script in its entirety I get an error saying: Msg 7202, Level 11, State 2, Line 55 Could not find server 'remoteServer' in sysservers. Execute sp_addlinkedserver to add the server to sysservers. However, if I higlight only the sp_addlinkedserver-part and execute that, there is no error and I can highlight the rest of the script and run it. What am I missing here? Please help! PS. If backup-restore was an option, I would have done that already.

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jquery ajax success problem

- by oshirowanen

Why is it that the following script works clientside by removing the relievant html entity: $(".ui-delete").click(function() { $.ajax({ url: 'delete.aspx', type: 'POST', data: { strWidgetID:$(this).parents(".widget").attr("id") }, error: function() { alert('Error'); }, success: function() { alert('Success'); } }); $(this).parents(".widget:first").remove(); }); But the following query which is "more proper", does not work by removing the html entity? $(".ui-delete").click(function() { $.ajax({ url: 'delete.aspx', type: 'POST', data: { strWidgetID:$(this).parents(".widget").attr("id") }, error: function() { alert('Error'); }, success: function() { alert('Success'); $(this).parents(".widget:first").remove(); } }); }); The first script does both clientside and serverside correctly, the second script does serverside correctly, but on clientside, it just displays an alert "success", but does not remove the html entity "widget" Any ideas?

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Praat scripting

- by Binaryrespawn

Hi all, I am trying to write a praat script to do preprocessing on hundreds of speach samples. I need to extract speech features from each sample and feed these as imputs into a feed-forward neural network. I have already constructed the network using math-lab. However, learing to script in praat is proving to be quite a challenge given my time constraints. Some of my samples are 0.01 to 0.03 seconds in length, I was looking at standardising the duration for all samples using Pitch Synchronous OverLap-Add(PSOLA). However this will be very tedious if I were to do this for every sample. Is there any script that can read in all of my files and perform the operations in a batch mode? Any guidance will be surelly appreaciated. Regards.

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Shipping GNU/Linux Firefox plugin with shared libraries (for installation with no root access)

- by Vi

The application is a Firefox plugin (loaded from $HOME/.mozilla/plugins), so wrapper script that sets LD_LIBRARY_PATH is not an easy option. RPATH, as far as I know, cannot refer to $HOME and can be only absolue path. Firefox tries to dlopen it's plugin from ~/.mozilla/plugins but fails (because it depends on shared libraries installed somewhere in the user home directory). Modifying Firefox menu item to provide a wrapper (with LD_LIBRARY_PATH) around Firefox is too hacky. What should installer script do (without root access) to make standard firefox load plug-ins that depends on out shared library? Should I just try to make embed everything into that .so to remove dependencies? Should I try to make installer script to finish linking or patch RPATH during the installation phase?

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MySQL INSERT data does not get stored in proper db, only temporary?

- by greye

I'm having trouble with MySQL or Python and can't seem to isolate the problem. INSERTs only seem to last the run of the script and are not stored in the database. I have this script: import MySQLdb db = MySQLdb.connect(host="localhost", user="user", passwd="password", db="example") dbcursor = db.cursor() dbcursor.execute("select * from tablename") temp = dbcursor.fetchall() print 'before: '+str(temp) dbcursor.execute('INSERT INTO tablename (data1, data2, data3) VALUES ("1", "a", "b")') dbcursor.execute("select * from tablename") temp = dbcursor.fetchall() print 'after: '+str(temp) The first time I run it I get the expected output: >>> before: () after: ((1L, 'a', 'b'),) The problem is that if I run it again, the before comes out empty when it should already have the entry in it and the after doesn't break (data 1 is primary key). >>> before: () after: ((1L, 'a', 'b'),) >>> before: () after: ((1L, 'a', 'b'),) >>> before: () after: ((1L, 'a', 'b'),) If I try running the insert command twice in the same script it will break ("Duplicate entry for PRIMARY KEY") Any idea what might be happening here?

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Automatic logout in python web app

- by Ali

I have a web application in python wherein the user submits their email and password. These values are compared to values stored in a mysql database. If successful, the script generates a session id, stores it next to the email in the database and sets a cookie with the session id, with allows the user to interact with other parts of the sight. When the user clicks logout, the script erases the session id from the database and deletes the cookie. The cookie expires after 5 hours. My concern is that if the user doesnt log out, and the cookie expires, the script will force him to login, but if he has copied the session id from before, it can still be validated. How do i automatically delete the session id from the mysql database after 5 hours?

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AutoHotkey ControlSend problem on one machine

- by Illotus

I have this AutoHotkey script that has a weird problem. It is used in 3 workstations, but in one the ControlSend doesn't seem to work as the hotkey doesn't work in program A. All three machines have Windows XP and are Pentium 4 level machines with mostly same software, the script is in exe form. I've tried a lot of different ways to send the hotkey to Program A, but nothing seems to work. The idea of the script is simply to catch a hotkey and click in another window in addition to its normal function. The normal function just doesn't work. Any ideas what could be the root of the problem and where I should look for it? #IfWinActive, Program A ^H:: IfWinActive, Program A { ControlFocus, MDIClient1, Program A, , , ControlSend, , ^H, Program A, , , ControlClick, X46 Y135, Program B, , LEFT , 1 return }

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How to stop Javascript from showing default image and only text for link?

- by tokyowp

The Javascript below has a default image, but I would like display text "only text url" for this link instead of this button at this link http://developer.mixi.co.jp/wp-content/uploads/2010/09/bt_check_1.gif that this script defaults to. Is this possible? <div> <a href="http://mixi.jp/share.pl" class="mixi-check-button" data-key="some-data-key" data-url="http://someurl.com">only text url </a> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.mixi.jp/js/share.js"></script> </div>

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Python namespace in between builtins and global?

- by Paul

Hello, As I understand it python has the following outermost namespaces: Builtin - This namespace is global across the entire interpreter and all scripts running within an interpreter instance. Globals - This namespace is global across a module, ie across a single file. I am looking for a namespace in between these two, where I can share a few variables declared within the main script to modules called by it. For example, script.py: import Log from Log import foo from foo log = Log() foo() foo.py: def foo(): log.Log('test') # I want this to refer to the callers log object I want to be able to call script.py multiple times and in each case, expose the module level log object to the foo method. Any ideas if this is possible? It won't be too painful to pass down the log object, but I am working with a large chunk of code that has been ported from Javascript. I also understand that this places constraints on the caller of foo to expose its log object. Thanks, Paul

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Git Status Across Multiple Repositories on a Mac

- by eapen

I have been searching for a solution to this for a while and have not found quite what I need. I have several Git Repositories in a folder on my Mac (OSX 10.6) and would like a script or tool that will loop through all the repositories and let me know if any of them needs "commit"-ing. This is my structure Sites /project1 /project2 /project3 I want the tool to do a "git status" in Sites/project1, Sites/project2, Sites/project3 and let me know if Sites/project2 and Sites/project3 have changes or new files and needs to be Staged/committed The closest script I found that might be hackable is here: http://gist.github.com/371828 but even that script wouldn't run and I get an error: "syntax error near unexpected token `do" which might have been written for *nix.

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Folder cleanup with PowerShell

- by 280Z28

I'd like to clean up some directories after my script runs by deleting certain folders and files from the current directory if they exist. Originally, I structured the script like this: if (Test-Path Folder1) { Remove-Item -r Folder1 } if (Test-Path Folder2) { Remove-Item -r Folder2 } if (Test-Path File1) { Remove-Item File1 } Now that I have quite a few items listed in this section, I'd like to clean it up. How can I do so? Side note: The items are cleaned up before the script runs, since they are left over from the previous run in case I need to examine them.

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Good coding style to do case-select in XSLT

- by Scud

I want to have a page display A,B,C,D depending on the return value from XML value (1,2,3,4). My approaches are by javascript or XSLT:choose. I want to know which way is better, and why? Can I do this case-select in .cs code (good or bad)? Should I javascript code in XSLT? Can the community please advise? Thanks. Below are the code. Javascript way (this one works): <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" xmlns:js="urn:custom-javascript"> <xsl:template match="page"> <msxsl:script language="JavaScript" implements-prefix="js"> <![CDATA[ function translateSkillLevel(level) { switch (level) { case 0: return "Level 1"; case 1: return "Level 2"; case 2: return "Level 3"; } return "unknown"; } ]]> </msxsl:script> <div id="skill"> <table border="0" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1"> <tr> <th>Level</th> </tr> <xsl:for-each select="/page/Skill"> <tr> <td>  <script type="text/javascript"> document.write(translateSkillLevel(<xsl:value-of select="@level"/>)); </script> </td> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </div> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Javascript way (this one doesn't work, getting undefined js tag): <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" xmlns:js="urn:custom-javascript"> <xsl:template match="page"> <msxsl:script language="JavaScript" implements-prefix="js"> <![CDATA[ function translateSkillLevel(level) { switch (level) { case 0: return "Level 1"; case 1: return "Level 2"; case 2: return "Level 3"; } return "unknown"; } ]]> </msxsl:script> <div id="skill"> <table border="0" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1"> <tr> <th>Level</th> </tr> <xsl:for-each select="/page/Skill"> <tr> <td>  <xsl:value-of select="js:translateSkillLevel(string(@level))"/> </td> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </div> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> XSLT way: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="page"> <div id="skill"> <table border="0" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1"> <tr> <th>Level</th> </tr> <xsl:for-each select="/page/Skill"> <tr> <td> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@level = 0"> Level 1 </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="@level = 1"> Level 2 </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="@level = 2"> Level 3 </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> unknown </xsl:otherwisexsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </td> </tr> </xsl:for-each> </table> </div> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> EDIT: Also, I have some inline javascript functions for form submit. <input type="submit" onclick="javascript:document.forms[0].submit();return false;"/>

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Problem with referencing CSS and Javascript files relatively

- by Markus

I have an IIS web site. This web site contains other web sites so the structure is like this. \ MainWebSite\ App1\ App2\ All sites are Asp.net MVC Webapplications. In the MasterPage of App1, I reference the script files like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js"> </script> The Problem is that he now tries to find the File at http:\server\MainWebSite\Scripts.... how can i work around that? Should I put all my Scripts and CSS files into the root directory, is that a preferred solution?

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How could I stop PHP from returning headers when executed from commandline?

- by JonnyLitt

This may be a ridiculous question, but it's been bothering me for a while. I have a mail forwarder piped to a PHP script, it receives perfectly, however I have the following error mailed back to me instantly: A message that you sent could not be delivered to one or more of its recipients. This is a permanent error. The following address(es) failed: pipe to |/home/[webroot]/public_html/external/mobile/email.php generated by mobile@[mydomain] The following text was generated during the delivery attempt: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.13 Content-type: text/html As you can see, Exim thinks the header response an error from the script I have. The script can receive the Email perfectly from php://stdin but Exim is quick-replying with the error. Plus, It's running from console, not Apache so HTAccess or configuring Apache most likely would do nothing. I can not find any solution, or anyone with the same problem. So my question is: How to I get rid of those two headers? Thanks, ~Jonny

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align WMD editor's preview HTML with server-side HTML validation (e.g. no embedded javascript)

- by Justin Grant

There are many SO questions (e.g. here and here) about how to do server-side scrubbing of Markdown produced by the WMD editor to ensure the HTML generated doesn't contain malicious script, like this: <img onload="alert('haha');" src="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/images/srpr/logo1w.png" /> This doesn't affect the WMD client's preview box. I doubt this is a big deal since if you're scrubbing the HTML on the server, an attacker can't save the bad HTML so no one else will be able to see it later and have their cookies stolen or sessions hijacked by the bad script. But it's still kinda odd to allow an attacker to run any script in the context of your site, and it's probably a bad idea to allow the client preview window to allow different HTML than your server will allow. StackOverflow has clearly plugged this hole. How did they do it? [NOTE: I already figured this out but it required some tricky javascript debugging, so I'm answering my own question here to help others who may want to do ths same thing]

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[PHP] - Output buffer based progress bar

- by KPL

Hello people, I have been trying to get the following code working. It's a progress bar trick which uses ob_get_clean() function. Don't know why but this script just don't work! Only the initial percent - 1% comes up and nothing after that. <?php error_reporting(8191); function flush_buffers(){ @ob_end_flush(); @ob_flush(); @flush(); @ob_start(); } $ini = 2; echo '<script>document.getElementById(\'lpt\').style.width=\'1%\';</script><br>'; for($i=1;$i<=100;$i++) { $k=$ini-1; $str=str_replace("width=\'$k%\'","width=\'$i%\'",ob_get_clean()); $ini++; echo $str; flush_buffers(); } ?>

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