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  • Data synchronization using XMPP

    - by Jason
    Hi: I'm looking for some insight/advice on synchronizing data over XMPP. I've never developed anything for XMPP before so excuse me if some of my questions seem ridiculous. Basically, what I have is a decentralized social network. Each person has it's own Web site (or server) with a unique URI (one domain could host many servers). Each of these servers can have many clients. E.g., a desktop application, mobile application, etc. What I would like to accomplish is near real-time synchronization/communication between client and server, e.g., I update something on my desktop application, I see it change on my Web site. My server and client code is Python. So, I would like to make use of SleekXMPP if possible (it's license seems to have changed to MIT). I was thinking, and here is where I need advice, that each server would register an account at a dedicated XMPP server, e.g., [email protected]. and then I could use different resources for clients [email protected]/client1, [email protected]/client2, etc. If anyone can register any username, then maybe I also need some intermediate service (since it's decentralized, i'm not sure how to control registrations). Another option, I guess, is that each server runs it's own xmpp server. Assuming, that was all worked out, if I want to broadcast messages to all my resources (except the sending one), how do I do that? Do I have to subscribe to myself? This also seems like a good candidate for publish-subscribe, let me know if you think that could work and what the design/flow of that process would be. thanks :)

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  • Code Organization Connundrum: Web Project With Multiple Supporting DLLs?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to get a handle on the best practice for code organization within my project. I have looked around on the internet for good examples and, so far, I have seen examples of a web project with one or multiple supporting class libraries that it references or a web project with sub-folders that follow its namespace conventions. Assuming there is no right answer, this is what I currently have for code organization: MyProjectWeb This is my web site. I am referencing my class libraries here. MyProject.DLL As the base namespace, I am using this DLL for files that need to be generally consumable. For example, my class "Enums" that has all the enumerations in my project lives there. As does class MyProjectException for all exception handling. MyProject.IO.DLL This is a grouping of maybe 20 files that handle file upload and download (so far). MyProject.Utilities.DLL ALl my common classes and methods bunched up together in one generally consumable DLL. Each class follows a "XHelper" convention such as "SqlHelper, AuthHelper, SerializationHelper, and so on... MyProject.Web.DLL I am using this DLL as the main client interface. Right now, the majority of class files here are: 1) properties (such as School, Location, Account, Posts) 2) authorization stuff ( such as custom membership, custom role, & custom profile providers) My question is simply - does this seem logical? Also, how do I avoid having to cross reference DLLs from one project library to the next? For example, MyProject.Web.DLL uses code from MyProject.Utilities.DLL and MyProject.Utilities.DLL uses code from MyProject.DLL. Is this solved by clicking on properties and selecting "Dependencies"? I tried that but still don't seem to be accessing the namespaces of the assembly I have selected. Do I have to reference every assembly I need for each class library? Responses appreciated and thanks for your patience.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 Professional - Problem Unit-Testing Web Services

    - by Ben
    Have created a very simple Web Service (asmx) in Visual Studio 2010 Professional, and am trying to use the auto-generated unit test cases. I get something that seems quite familiar on this site: The web site could not be configured correctly; getting ASP.NET process information failed. Requesting http://localhost:81/zfp/VSEnterpriseHelper.axd return an error: The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260432/500-error-running-visual-studio-asp-net-unit-test I have tried: 1. Running the tests on IIS rather than ASP.NET Development Server 2. Adding and then removing the XML fragment to my Web Service's .config file 3. Giving the MACHINE\ASPNET account Full control to the local folder My current questions: 1. Why am I being bothered with this instrumentation / code coverage DLL, when this doesn't seem to be something that ships with Visual Studio 2010 Professional? Is there any way I can turn it off? 2. I'm placing the node under in Web.config - is that the correct node? 3. Is it possible to bind to a web service without using the webby test attributes? I've seen other people advising making the Web Service as light-weight as possible. I'm trying to call it with jQuery / AJAX / JSON, so being able to debug the actual web service would be really helpful. Best wishes, Ben

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  • Designing code for a duo Website + AIR desktop App

    - by faB
    I want to use AIR to create an OFFLINE version of a "webapp" kind of website (lots of ajax, front end code). Haven't been much further than the HelloWorld example, I keep wondering: how do you design your code, to maximize code reuse between the website (say in php or Java or .Net), and the AIR app ? Can you actually re-use 100% of the front end code, provided that it is designed to account for the AIR app ? How would you go about doing that ? For example, the website makes many Ajax calls which have latency, and uses listeners. The AIR app doesn't need listeners it could run database requests synchronously, and it doesn't need to run ajax calls right? Would you write an abstraction layer for that ? So that the same calls on the AIR app will not do a xmlhttp but instead implement the server-side code with AIR; and call the listener ? So you don't have to rewrite the front end code patterns ? Does this make sense ? It's really hard to search on Google. I'm thinking there must be a good article somewhere of somebody who went through and perhaps a framework to do that ?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

    - by Peter Meyer
    So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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  • Regex for removing certain variable numeric values from some text

    - by stephemurdoch
    I want to substitute all 4 instances of the number 300 from the code below, with 470. <div> <object width="300" height="300"> <embed src="link-removed" width="300" height="300"></embed> </object> <p> <a href="another-link">link</a> </p> </div> The width and height of the code being pasted might not always be 300 by 300. So I figure I probably need a regular expression that subs any numeric value that follows the strings "width=" and "height=", whilst remembering to account for the quotations marks that surround the number. Can anyone tell me if that's the best way, and if so, what would be the best regex? In case it matters, the code being pasted is stored as "text" in the db rather than as a string, as it's quite lengthy (i've removed a few hundred chars from what you see pasted here)...

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  • How does MVC ViewData work?

    - by Matt
    I am toying around with an MVC application just to learn the technology. I am mocking up a check register application that keeps track of a checking account, what has cleared the bank and what has not. I am using EF for my model and everything seems to be working correctly insofar as Edit, Create, etc. However, I have a couple of totals at the top. One to show the bank's balance and another to show the actual balance. It works most of the time but when I do Edit's it does not always accurately reflect the new total and I need it to update everytime a change is made (i.e when something clears the bank): [Authorize(Roles = "admin, checkUser")] public ActionResult Index() { var resultSet = from myChecking in chk.tblCheckings orderby myChecking.id descending select myChecking; ViewData.Model = resultSet.Take(45).ToList(); //for balances var actualBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; var bankBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings where theChecking.cleared == true select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; //get bank balance ViewData["bankBalance"] = bankBalance.Sum(); //get actual balance ViewData["actualBalance"] = actualBalance.Sum(); return View(); } I am showing the actual and other balance in the Index view as follows: <td colspan="9" style="text-align: center; font-size: 11pt; color: white;"> <%= string.Format("Bank Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["bankBalance"]) %> ------ <%= string.Format("Actual Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["actualBalance"]) %> </td>

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  • Validation control issue

    - by Mael
    Hello, I have a multiview that simulates a menu with different kind of options. Each view within the multiview control holds a bunch of controls (listbox, label, etc..) Everything worked just fine, until i wanted to implement Validation control(s). For example when i click on my menu viewA gets displayed with its controls. There i wish to implement a RequiredFieldValidator. But the problem is, if i click on a other menu option (which is in fact a other view in my multiview) then it gives the error message 'Please enter a message" which is the errorMessage of the first RequiredFieldValidator of the first menu option (first view). All my controls are named with a unique name, so there is no mixup amongst the ControlToValidate="" Offcourse this is not suitable, cause those menu choices are indepentant. And its not the intention i have to fill in everything, cause its a menu afterall, and not a form where i have to enter everything at once. How can i have a RequiredFieldValidator on my views that do not take each other in account? Some code on how my active view is handled protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { View activeView = (View)this.mvMultiview.FindControl(this.getViewFromRequest()); if (!(activeView == null)) { this.mvMultiview.SetActiveView(activeView); } } } Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET retrieve Average CPU Usage

    - by Sam
    Last night I did a load test on a site. I found that one of my shared caches is a bottleneck. I'm using a ReaderWriterLockSlim to control the updates of the data. Unfortunately at one point there are ~200 requests trying to update the data at approximately the same time. This also coincided with CPU usage spikes. The data being updated is in the ASP.NET Cache. What I'd like to do is if the CPU usage is around 75%, I'd like to just skip the cache and hit the database on another machine. My problem is that I don't know how expensive it is to create a new performance counter to check the cpu usage. Also, if I would probably like the average cpu usage over the last 2 or 3 seconds. However, I can't sit there and calculate the cpu time as that would take longer than it's taking to update the cache currently. Is there an easy way to get the average CPU usage? Are there any drawbacks to this? I'm also considering totaling the wait count for the lock and then at a certain threshold switch over to the database. The concern I had with this approach would be that changing hardware might allow more locks with less of a strain on the system. And also finding the right balance for the threshold would be cumbersome and it doesn't take into account any other load on the machine. But it's a simple approach, and simple is 99% of the time better.

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  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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  • Rails: Multi-Step New User Signup Form (FSM?)

    - by neezer
    I've read the "Create Multi-Step Wizard" in Advanced Rails Recipes. I've also read and re-read the documentation for the updated FSM I'm using called Workflow, and looked here and here. The Advanced Rails Recipe focuses on records (quizzes) that already exist, and doesn't cover creating new ones. The Workflow docs don't cover any code for controllers or views, so I've no idea what to do with all this model magic, and the last two links barely touch on implementation either. From the aforementioned resources, I have a good understanding of what a FSM in Rails is and how to play with it in the console or IRB, but I've got very little direction or understanding how to implement one into my Rails app. What I would like is this: a simple, multi-step user signup process. Step 1: User enters in their critical details (with validations). Step 2: User enters in their search criteria, for their profile (with validations). Step 3: User agrees to the Terms of Service (with validations). Step 4: User is greeted by a confirmation page, including a link that takes them to their newly created account. I'd also like full navigation between the steps and full capture (saves to the database) with each transition. Can someone please give me a clear implementation of something similar to this? I would LOVE an example app that includes a multi-step signup process where I can look at the code (FULL source code--models AND controllers and views) under the hood, but I've been unable to find anything like that. Any guidance would be appreciated! EDIT: Please help make this a Railscast! Ryan B. (a.k.a. Superman), if you're reading this, we need you! http://feedback.railscasts.com/forums/77-episode-suggestions/suggestions/35553-multi-step-forms-and-wizards

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  • Ruby open_id_authentication with Google OpenID

    - by Patrick Daryll Glandien
    I am in my first steps of implementing OpenID in my Rails app. open_id_authentication appeared to be a fairly easy-to-use plugin, which is why I decided to use it. Logging in with my Google account seems to work perfectly, however I do not get the sreg/AX fields that I require. My code is currently as follows: class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new; end def create open_id_authentication end protected def open_id_authentication authenticate_with_open_id(params[:openid_identifier], :required => ["http://axschema.org/contact/email"]) do |result, identity_url, registration| if result.successful? p registration.data @current_user = User.find_by_identity_url(identity_url) if @current_user successful_login else failed_login "Sorry, no user by that identity URL exists (#{identity_url})" end else failed_login result.message end end end private def successful_login session[:user_id] = @current_user.id redirect_to(root_url) end def failed_login(message) flash[:error] = message redirect_to(new_session_url) end end I have already read various discussions about Google OpenID and all only say that you need to require the AX schema instead of the sreg field email, but even when I am doing so (as you can see in the code above), registration.data will remain empty ({}). How do I effectively require the email from most OpenID providers with open_id_authentication?

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  • Getting Feedburner Subscriber With CURL

    - by Eray Alakese
    I'm using FeedBurner Awareness API. XML data like this : <rsp stat="ok"> - <!-- This information is part of the FeedBurner Awareness API. If you want to hide this information, you may do so via your FeedBurner Account. --> - <feed id="9n66llmt1frfir51p0oa367ru4" uri="teknoblogo"> <entry date="2011-01-15" circulation="11" hits="18" reach="0"/> </feed> </rsp> I want to get circulation data (11) . I'm using this code: $whaturl="https://feedburner.google.com/api/awareness/1.0/GetFeedData?uri=teknoblogo"; //Initialize the Curl session $ch = curl_init(); //Set curl to return the data instead of printing it to the browser. curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); //Set the URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $whaturl); //Execute the fetch $data = curl_exec($ch); //Close the connection curl_close($ch); $xml = new SimpleXMLElement($data); $fb = $xml->feed->entry['circulation']; echo $fb; echo "OK"; But, returned data is blank. There isn't any error. Only return OK . How can i solve this ? EDIT : echo $data; returning blank, too.

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  • share the same cookie between two website using PHP cURL extension

    - by powerboy
    I want to get the contents of some emails in my gmail account. I would like to use the PHP cURL extension to do this. I followed these steps in my first try: In the PHP code, output the contents of https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth. In the browser, the user input username and password to login. In the PHP code, save cookies in a file named cookie.txt. In the PHP code, send request to https://mail.google.com/ along with cookies retrieved from cookie.txt and output the contents. The following code does not work: $login_url = 'https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth'; $gmail_url = 'https://mail.google.com/'; $cookie_file = dirname(__FILE__) . '/cookie.txt'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookie_file); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $login_url); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $gmail_url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookie_file); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch);

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  • Appropriate SQL Server Permissions for Developers

    - by BJ Safdie
    After a couple of Google searches and a quick look at questions here, I cannot seem to find what I thought would be a cookbook answer for SQL Server permissions. As I often see in small shops, most developers here were using an admin account for SQL Server while developing. I want to set up roles and permissions that I can assign to developers so that we can get our jobs done, but also do so with the minimum permissions required. Can anyone offer advice on what SQL Server permissions to assign? Components: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2008 Platforms: Production Staging/QA Development/Integration We are running "Mixed Mode" security because of some legacy apps and networks, but are moving to Windows Auth. I am not sure if that really affects the role set up. I plan to set up access for Developers to Prod and Staging/QA DBs as Read-Only. However, I still want developers to retain the ability to run Profiling. We need Deployment accounts with higher privilege levels. We are currently trying to figure out exactly what privileges we need for SSIS package deployments. Within the Development Server, Developers need broad privileges. However, I am not sure that just making them all admins is really the best choice. It's hard to believe that no one has published a decent example script that sets up these kinds of roles with a good set of appropriate permissions for developers and deployers. We can probably figure this all out by locking things down and then adding permissions as we discover the need, but that will be way too big a PITA for everyone. Can anyone point me to, or provide, a good exemplar for permissions for these kinds of roles on these kinds of platforms?

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  • Python and a "time value of money" problem.

    - by jamieb
    (I asked this question earlier today, but I did a poor job of explaining myself. Let me try again) I have a client who is an industrial maintenance company. They sell service agreements that are prepaid 20 hour blocks of a technician's time. Some of their larger customers might burn through that agreement in two weeks while customers with fewer problems might go eight months on that same contract. I would like to use Python to help model projected sales revenue and determine how many billable hours per month that they'll be on the hook for. If each customer only ever bought a single service contract (never renewed) it would be easy to figure sales as monthly_revenue = contract_value * qty_contracts_sold. Billable hours would also be easy: billable_hrs = hrs_per_contract * qty_contracts_sold. However, how do I account for renewals? Assuming that 90% (or some other arbitrary amount) of customers renew, then their monthly revenue ought to grow geometrically. Another important variable is how long the average customer burns through a contract. How do I determine what the revenue and billable hours will be 3, 6, or 12 months from now, based on various renewal and burn rates? I assume that I'd use some type of recursive function but math was never one of my strong points. Any suggestions please? Edit: I'm thinking that the best way to approach this is to think of it as a "time value of money" problem. I've retitled the question as such. The problem is probably a lot more common if you think of "monthly sales" as something similar to annuity payments.

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • SQL 2008 Querying Soap XML

    - by Vince
    I have been trying to process this SOAP XML return using SQL but all I get is NULL or nothing at all. I have tried different ways and pasted them all below. Declare @xmlMsg xml; Set @xmlMsg = '<soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <SendWarrantyEmailResponse xmlns="http://Web.Services.Warranty/"> <SendWarrantyEmailResult xmlns="http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult"> <WarrantyNumber>120405000000015</WarrantyNumber> <Result>Cannot Send Email to anonymous account!</Result> <HasError>true</HasError> <MsgUtcTime>2012-06-07T01:11:36.8665126Z</MsgUtcTime> </SendWarrantyEmailResult> </SendWarrantyEmailResponse> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; declare @table table (data xml); insert into @table values (@xmlMsg); select data from @table; WITH xmlnamespaces ('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap], 'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as SendWarrantyEmailResponse, 'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as SendWarrantyEmailResult) SELECT Data.value('(/soap:Envelope[1]/soap:Body[1]/SendWarrantyEmailResponse[1]/SendWarrantyEmailResult[1]/WarrantyNumber[1])[1]','VARCHAR(500)') AS WarrantyNumber FROM @Table ; ;with xmlnamespaces('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap],'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as SendWarrantyEmailResponse,'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as SendWarrantyEmailResult) --select @xmlMsg.value('(/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult/WarrantyNumber)[0]', 'nvarchar(max)') --select T.N.value('.', 'nvarchar(max)') from @xmlMsg.nodes('/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult') as T(N) select @xmlMsg.value('(/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult/HasError)[1]','bit') as test ;with xmlnamespaces('http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/' as [soap],'http://Web.Services.Warranty' as [SendWarrantyEmailResponse],'http://Web.Services.SendWarrantyResult' as [SendWarrantyEmailResult]) SELECT SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('WarrantyNumber[1]','varchar(max)') AS WarrantyNumber, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('Result[1]','varchar(max)') AS Result, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('HasError[1]','bit') AS HasError, SendWarrantyEmailResult.value('MsgUtcTime[1]','datetime') AS MsgUtcTime FROM @xmlMsg.nodes('/soap:Envelope/soap:Body/SendWarrantyEmailResponse/SendWarrantyEmailResult') SendWarrantyEmailResults(SendWarrantyEmailResult)

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  • SVN supports historical merges so how is Mercurial better?

    - by radman
    Hi, I'm a long time SVN user and have been hearing a lot of brou ha ha with regard to mercurial and decentralised version control systems in general. The main touted feature that I am aware of is that merging in Mercurial is much easier because it records information for each merge so each successive merge is aware of the previous ones. Now as stated in the red book, in the section to do with merging, SVN already supports this with mergeinfo. Now I have not actually used this feature (although I wanted to, our repo version wasn't recent enough) but is this SVN feature particularly different to what Mercurial offers? For anyone who is not aware the suggested work flow for historical merging in svn is this: branch from the development trunk to do your own thing. Regularly merge changes from trunk into your branch to stay up to date. Merge back when your done with the mergeinfo to smooth the process. Without historical data merging this is a nightmare because the comparison is strictly on the differences in the files and does not take into account the steps taken on the way. So each change in the development trunk puts you further into possible conflict when you merge back. Now what I would like to know is: Does merging using Mercurial provide a significant advantage when compared with mergeinfo in SVN or is this just a lot of hot air about nothing? Has anyone used the mergeinfo feature in SVN and how good is it actually in practice?

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  • Vectors rotations 3D camera tiliting

    - by TallGuy
    Hopefully easy answer, but I cannot get it. I have a 3D render engine I have written. I have the camera position, the lookat position and the up vector. I want to be able to "tilt" the camera left, right, up and down. Like a camera on a fixed tripod that you can grab the handle and tilt it it up, down, left right etc. The maths stumps me. I have been able to do forwards/backwards dolly and up/down/left/right panning, but cannot work out the vector math to get it to tilt. For left and right tilt I want to rotate the lookat position around the camera position, but I need to take into account the up vector, otherwise the rotation doesn't know which axis to to turn around. The maths/algorithm I need is along the lines of... Camera=(cx,cy,cz) Lookat=(lx,ly,lz) Up=(ux,uy,uz) RotatePointAroundVector(lx,ly,lz,ux,uy,uz,amount) Can anyone assist with the maths involved? Many thanks.

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  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

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  • PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

    - by andy-score
    I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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  • How to migrate primary key generation from "increment" to "hi-lo"?

    - by Bevan
    I'm working with a moderate sized SQL Server 2008 database (around 120 tables, backups are around 4GB compressed) where all the table primary keys are declared as simple int columns. At present, primary key values are generated by NHibernate with the increment identity generator, which has worked well thus far, but precludes moving to a multiprocessing environment. Load on the system is growing, so I'm evaluating the work required to allow the use of multiple servers accessing a common database backend. Transitioning to the hi-lo generator seems to be the best way forward, but I can't find a lot of detail about how such a migration would work. Will NHibernate automatically create rows in the hi-lo table for me, or do I need to script these manually? If NHibernate does insert rows automatically, does it properly take account of existing key values? If NHibernate does take care of thing automatically, that's great. If not, are there any tools to help? Update NHibernate's increment identifier generator works entirely in-memory. It's seeded by selecting the maximum value of used identifiers from the table, but from that point on allocates new values by a simple increment, without reference back to the underlying database table. If any other process adds rows to the table, you end up with primary key collisions. You can run multiple threads within the one process just fine, but you can't run multiple processes. For comparison, the NHibernate identity generator works by configuring the database tables with identity columns, putting control over primary key generation in the hands of the database. This works well, but compromises the unit of work pattern. The hi-lo algorithm sits inbetween these - generation of primary keys is coordinated through the database, allowing for multiprocessing, but actual allocation can occur entirely in memory, avoiding problems with the unit of work pattern.

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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