Search Results

Search found 68147 results on 2726 pages for 'context sensitive help'.

Page 335/2726 | < Previous Page | 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342  | Next Page >

  • Single Responsibility Principle vs Anemic Domain Model anti-pattern

    - by Niall Connaughton
    I'm in a project that takes the Single Responsibility Principle pretty seriously. We have a lot of small classes and things are quite simple. However, we have an anemic domain model - there is no behaviour in any of our model classes, they are just property bags. This isn't a complaint about our design - it actually seems to work quite well During design reviews, SRP is brought out whenever new behaviour is added to the system, and so new behaviour typically ends up in a new class. This keeps things very easily unit testable, but I am perplexed sometimes because it feels like pulling behaviour out of the place where it's relevant. I'm trying to improve my understanding of how to apply SRP properly. It seems to me that SRP is in opposition to adding business modelling behaviour that shares the same context to one object, because the object inevitably ends up either doing more than one related thing, or doing one thing but knowing multiple business rules that change the shape of its outputs. If that is so, then it feels like the end result is an Anemic Domain Model, which is certainly the case in our project. Yet the Anemic Domain Model is an anti-pattern. Can these two ideas coexist? EDIT: A couple of context related links: SRP - http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/srp.pdf Anemic Domain Model - http://martinfowler.com/bliki/AnemicDomainModel.html I'm not the kind of developer who just likes to find a prophet and follow what they say as gospel. So I don't provide links to these as a way of stating "these are the rules", just as a source of definition of the two concepts.

    Read the article

  • [android] Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

    - by cappuccino
    [Android] Hi, everyone. Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample soucrce(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. any help would be appreciated!!

    Read the article

  • Can an interface define the signature of a c#-constructor

    - by happyclicker
    I have a .net-app that provides a mechanism to extend the app with plugins. Each plugin must implement a plugin-interface and must provide furthermore a constructor that receives one parameter (a resource context). During the instantiation of the plugin-class I look via reflection, if the needed constructor exists and if yes, I instantiate the class (via Reflection). If the constructor does not exists, I throw an exception that says that the plugin not could be created, because the desired constructor is not available. My question is, if there is a way to declare the signature of a constructor in the plugin-interface so that everyone that implements the plugin-interface must also provide a constructor with the desired signature. This would ease the creation of plugins. I don’t think that such a possibility exists because I think such a feature falls not in the main purpose for what interfaces were designed for but perhaps someone knows a statement that does this, something like: public interface IPlugin { ctor(IResourceContext resourceContext); int AnotherPluginFunction(); } I want to add that I don't want to change the constructor to be parameterless and then set the resource-context through a property, because this will make the creation of plugins much more complicated. The persons that write plugins are not persons with deep programming experience. The plugins are used to calculate statistical data that will be visualized by the app.

    Read the article

  • Image Grabbing with False Referer

    - by Mr Carl
    Hey guys, I'm struggling with grabbing an image at the moment... sounds silly, but check out this link :P http://manga.justcarl.co.uk/A/Oishii_Kankei/31/1 If you get the image URL, the image loads. Go back, it looks like it's working fine, but that's just the browser loading up the cached image. The application was working fine before, I'm thinking they implemented some kind of Referer check on their images. So I found some code and came up with the following... $ref = 'http://www.thesite.com/'; $file = 'theimage.jpg'; $hdrs = array( 'http' = array( 'method' = "GET", 'header'= "accept-language: en\r\n" . "Accept:application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*\/*;q=0.5\r\n" . "Referer: $ref\r\n" . // Setting the http-referer "Content-Type: image/jpeg\r\n" ) ); // get the requested page from the server // with our header as a request-header $context = stream_context_create($hdrs); $fp = fopen($imgChapterPath.$file, 'rb', false, $context); fpassthru($fp); fclose($fp); Essentially it's making up a false referrer. All I'm getting back though is a bunch of gibberish (thanks to fpassthru) so I think it's getting the image, but I'm afraid to say I have no idea how to output/display the collected image. Cheers, Carl

    Read the article

  • Display new image on web page

    - by RuiT
    Hello, I'm uploading images to a folder and I want to display each new image on a web page every time it is saved in the folder. I can display the initial image, which is already in the folder, and I can also detect when a new image is saved into the folder but I don't know how to display the new images. I'm new to web development. Can somebody help me? Here's the code: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string DirectoryPath = "C:\\Users\\Desktop\\PhotoUpload\\Uploads\\"; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { FileSystemWatcher watcher = new FileSystemWatcher(); try { watcher.Path = DirectoryPath; watcher.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(watcher_Created); watcher.EnableRaisingEvents = true; Image image = Image.FromFile(DirectoryPath + "inicial.jpg"); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); image.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); byte[] im = ms.ToArray(); Context.Response.ContentType = "Image/JPG"; Context.Response.BinaryWrite(im); } catch (Exception ex) { } } void watcher_Created(object sender, FileSystemEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("File Created: Name: " + e.Name); try { //How to display new image? } catch (Exception ex) { } } }

    Read the article

  • Questions on method to use: Facebook Business Page with Flash or Facebook Application?

    - by Jay
    Hi there, I'm new to Facebook's Graph API / FBML / etc. So if at any point in my post I make a mistake or wrong assumption, please point them out. One of the projects that I am working on has a need to get data/info from an existing web site in addition to the friends list and such that FB can provide. This is for a platform that allows people from all over the world to help out in small scale projects that will benefit various communities. These projects are usually to help out people in unfortunate / less than ideal situations / living conditions so that their environment improves. You can read about it in detail at http://www.getitdone.org. The initial idea was to develop a Business Page (this is the same as a Fan Page right?) for each Project with a Static FBML tag to do the displaying. However, iframes are not allowed in Pages (as far as I know, iframes are only allowed in an FB Application). So it is no longer possible to get data from the web site to be displayed in the FB Page. So one of the options is to embed a Flash in the Page's Tab. I am fairly certain that the Flash can retrieve data on the User's friends and connections in an Application's context (because of all of those darn FB games that I'm addicted to :p). However, I would like to confirm if it can do the same if it's embedded in a Business Page's Tab. Could someone please confirm on this issue? The other option that we arrived at was (if the earlier options fails) to have an Application built instead. However, this means that we would need to create an Application for each Project. Not an ideal situation. Is there any other option that we have missed that can help us achieve the desired result with as little hassle as possible? Any help that you can provide on this matter is most welcome. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

    Read the article

  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

    Read the article

  • Really annoying bug with Topmost property in Windows Forms

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I have this Windows Forms application where it sits in the notification area. Clicking on the icon brings it up front, clicking it again (or clicking on the app X icon) sends it back. This is the type of app that having the window always on top is important when it's displayed by clicking the icon, but it's optional. Right-clicking the icon brings up a context menu where one can select to enable the "always on top" option or not. When the application first starts up, the app settings are read from an XML file and I'm 99% that this is working as it should, the Topmost properly is properly read (and written). After some time (minutes, hours, days, whatever, I normally hibernate and rarely shutdown) the Topmost stops working. I don't change the option, I don't think anything is changing the option but I click the notification area icon and app is not brought up front. It shows up (it displays on Alt+Tab) but it's on the background, it's not topmost as it should. I bring up the context menu, disable the option (cause it's enabled) and enable it back and it starts to work after that. The app is now topmost. However, it can lose this ability anytime after while. I can't understand why this happens and how this happens. Does anyone have any idea why? If not, any idea how could I try to debug such behavior?

    Read the article

  • 'mvn install' does not work & shows error while attempting to download

    - by Raj
    I am using maven 3.0.2 version. mvn --version works fine on command line but when I try mvn install it does not work & shows following error. Z:\dev\hector rantavmvn install [INFO] Scanning for projects... Downloading: http://repo1.maven.org/maven2/junit/junit/3.8.2/junit-3.8.2.jar [ERROR] The build could not read 1 project - [Help 1] [ERROR] [ERROR] The project me.prettyprint:hector:0.7.0-24-SNAPSHOT (Z:\dev\hector ran tav\pom.xml) has 1 error [ERROR] Unresolveable build extension: Plugin org.apache.maven.scm:maven-scm -manager-plexus:1.3 or one of its dependencies could not be resolved: Could not transfer artifact junit:junit:jar:3.8.2 from/to central (http://repo1.maven.org/ maven2): Error transferring file: repo1.maven.org: Unknown host repo1.maven.org - [Help 2] [ERROR] [ERROR] To see the full stack trace of the errors, re-run Maven with the -e swit ch. [ERROR] Re-run Maven using the -X switch to enable full debug logging. [ERROR] [ERROR] For more information about the errors and possible solutions, please rea d the following articles: [ERROR] [Help 1] http://cwiki.apache.org/confluence/display/MAVEN/ProjectBuildin gException [ERROR] [Help 2] http://cwiki.apache.org/confluence/display/MAVEN/PluginResoluti onException Z:\dev\hector rantav Please let me how I can fix this.

    Read the article

  • UITableViewCell imageView images loading small even when they are the correct size!

    - by Alex Barlow
    Im having an issue whilst loading images into a UITableViewCell after an asynchronous download and placement into an UIImage variable.. The images appear smaller than they actually are! But when scrolled down and scrolled back up to the image, or the whole table is reloaded, they appear at the correct size... Here is a code excerpt... - (void)reviewImageDidLoad:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ThumbDownloader *thumbDownloader = [imageDownloadsInProgress objectForKey:indexPath]; if (thumbDownloader != nil) { UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:thumbDownloader.indexPathInTableView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 0.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; cell.imageView.image = thumbDownloader.review.thumb; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath].imageView.alpha = 1.0; [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Here is an image of the app just after calling this method.. http://www.flickr.com/photos/arbarlow/5288563627/ After calling tableView reloadData or scrolling around the appear correctly, go the the next flickr image, to see the normal result, but im sure you can guess that.. Does anyone have an ideas as to make the images appear correctly? im absolutely stumped?! Regards, Alex iPhone noob

    Read the article

  • quartz.net - Can I not add a callback delegate method to JobExecutionContext?

    - by Greg
    Hi, BACKGROUND - I have a synchroisation function within my MainForm class. It gets called manually when the user pushes the SYNC button. I want to also call this synchroisation function when the scheduler triggers too, so effectively want SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method to be able to call it. QUESTION - How do I access the MainForm.Sychronization() method from within the SchedulerJob:IJob.Execute() method? I tried creating a delegate for this method in the MainForm class and getting it added via jobDetail.JobDataMap. However when I try I'm not sure that JobDataMap has a method to pull out a Delegate type??? private void Schedule(MainForm.SyncDelegate _syncNow) { var jobDetail = new JobDetail("MainJob", null, typeof(SchedulerJob)); jobDetail.JobDataMap["CallbackMethod"] = _syncNow; // Trigger Setup var trigger = new CronTrigger("MainTrigger"); string expression = GetCronExpression(); trigger.CronExpressionString = expression; trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime(); // Schedule Job & Trigger _scheduler.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } public class SchedulerJob : IJob { public SchedulerJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { JobDataMap dataMap = context.JobDetail.JobDataMap; MainForm.SyncDelegate CallbackFunction = dataMap.getDelegate["CallbackMethod"]; **// THIS METHOD DOESN'T EXIST - getDelegate()** CallbackFunction(); } } thanks

    Read the article

  • HttpPostedFile.SaveAs() throws UnauthorizedAccessException even though the file is saved?

    - by jrummell
    I have an aspx page with multiple FileUpload controls and one Upload button. In the click handler I save the files like this: string path = "..."; for (int i = 0; i < Request.Files.Count - 1; i++) { HttpPostedFile file = Request.Files[i]; string fileName = Path.GetFileName(file.FileName); string saveAsPath = Path.Combine(path, fileName); file.SaveAs(saveAsPath); } When file.SaveAs() is called, it throws: System.Web.HttpUnhandledException: Exception of type 'System.Web.HttpUnhandledException' was thrown. --- System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '...' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode) at System.Web.HttpPostedFile.SaveAs(String filename) at Belden.Web.Intranet.Iso.Complaints.AttachmentUploader.btnUpload_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.UI.Page.HandleError(Exception e) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at ASP.departments_iso_complaints_uploadfiles_aspx.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Now here's the fun part. The file is saved correctly! So why is it throwing this exception?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget?

    - by cappuccino
    Is it possible to receive SMS message on appWidget? I saw android sample source(API Demos). In API Demos, ExampleAppWidgetProvider class extends AppWidgetProvider, not Activity. So, I guess it is impossible to regist SMS Receiver like this, rcvIncoming = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Log.i("telephony", "SMS received"); Bundle data = intent.getExtras(); if (data != null) { // SMS uses a data format known as a PDU Object pdus[] = (Object[]) data.get("pdus"); String message = "New message:\n"; String sender = null; for (Object pdu : pdus) { SmsMessage part = SmsMessage.createFromPdu((byte[])pdu); message += part.getDisplayMessageBody(); if (sender == null) { sender = part.getDisplayOriginatingAddress(); } } Log.i(sender, message); } } }; registerReceiver(rcvIncoming, new IntentFilter("android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED")); My goal is to receive SMS message on my custom appWidget. Any help would be appreciated!!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Thread-safe data structure design

    - by Inso Reiges
    Hello, I have to design a data structure that is to be used in a multi-threaded environment. The basic API is simple: insert element, remove element, retrieve element, check that element exists. The structure's implementation uses implicit locking to guarantee the atomicity of a single API call. After i implemented this it became apparent, that what i really need is atomicity across several API calls. For example if a caller needs to check the existence of an element before trying to insert it he can't do that atomically even if each single API call is atomic: if(!data_structure.exists(element)) { data_structure.insert(element); } The example is somewhat awkward, but the basic point is that we can't trust the result of "exists" call anymore after we return from atomic context (the generated assembly clearly shows a minor chance of context switch between the two calls). What i currently have in mind to solve this is exposing the lock through the data structure's public API. This way clients will have to explicitly lock things, but at least they won't have to create their own locks. Is there a better commonly-known solution to these kinds of problems? And as long as we're at it, can you advise some good literature on thread-safe design? EDIT: I have a better example. Suppose that element retrieval returns either a reference or a pointer to the stored element and not it's copy. How can a caller be protected to safely use this pointer\reference after the call returns? If you think that not returning copies is a problem, then think about deep copies, i.e. objects that should also copy another objects they point to internally. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Serialize Forms into memory

    - by serhio
    Background: In a desktop MDI application we have a lot of forms. Task: Save the controls contents of closed forms(textbox texts, checkbox checks etc). Limitations: A saved form for (DB/Windows) user? For (DB/Windows) group of users? Both variants may be possible. Question: a) What is the best way? b) if I want do not use files, how to serialize the form into a MemoryStream and then recuperate it if the opening form was been once opened and serialized? StartingPoint: Implemented a form that implements ISerializable. Deserialize the form on opening, serialize onclosing: Public Sub GetObjectData(ByVal info As System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationInfo, ByVal context As System.Runtime.Serialization.StreamingContext) Implements System.Runtime.Serialization.ISerializable.GetObjectData info.AddValue("tbxExportFolder", tbxExportFolder.Text, GetType(String)) info.AddValue("cbxCheckAliasUnicity", cbxCheckAliasUnicity.Checked, GetType(Boolean)) End Sub Public Sub New(ByVal info As SerializationInfo, ByVal context As StreamingContext) Me.New() Me.tbxExportFolder.Text = info.GetString("tbxExportFolder") Me.cbxCheckAliasUnicity.Checked = info.GetBoolean("cbxCheckAliasUnicity") End Sub Private Sub SerializeMe() Dim binFormatter As New Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter Dim fileStream As New FileStream(SerializedFilename, FileMode.Create) Try binFormatter.Serialize(fileStream, Me) Catch Throw Finally fileStream.Close() End Try End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnClosing(ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.CancelEventArgs) SerializeMe() MyBase.OnClosing(e) End Sub

    Read the article

  • How to keep your unit test Arrange step simple and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

    Read the article

  • Making an owner-draw button transparent against its arbitrary background in WINCE

    - by EndsOfInvention
    Hi I am trying to place an owner-draw button transparently onto a background. I have no trouble doing this when the background is a solid colour but if the background is an image I cannot seem to get the correct HDC (handle to device context) to Bitblt() the area that button covers. The HDC that is passed as part of the DRAWITEMSTRUCT gives me a button-default-grey area. If I attempt to get the parent of the HWND and then the device context of that i.e pdc = GetDC(GetParent(hWnd)); then the background that gets BitBlt'd is the background of the last painted window. I hope this question makes sense. this is the code I have: pdis = (LPDRAWITEMSTRUCT)(lParam); hdc = pdis->hDC; button = pdis->CtlID - IDC_BUTOFFSET; //pdc = GetDC((hWnd)); pdc = GetDC(GetParent(hWnd)); hbm = CreateCompatibleBitmap(pdc, Buttons_[button]->bc.Size.cx, Buttons_[button]->bc.Size.cy); SelectObject(hdc, hbm); BitBlt(hdc, 0, 0, Buttons_[button]->bc.Size.cx, Buttons_[button]->bc.Size.cy, pdc, Buttons_[button]->bc.Position.x, Buttons_[button]->bc.Position.y, SRCCOPY); TIA Best regards Ends

    Read the article

  • Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

    - by bdk
    My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

    Read the article

  • Reoccurring error "The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to

    - by tuseau
    Hi, I keep receiving this error in my ASP.NET web app (below). I give the Network Service account rights to the specified folder, it runs fine for a while, but then within a day or two the error reoccurs, as the Network Service account has been removed from the rights for the folder. Adding it again fixes it, but why does it keep reocurring? Could it be anything to do with using Interop components (such as WMI)? Here's the full error: Server Error in '/DriveMonitor' Application. The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [HttpException (0x80004005): The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.SetUpCodegenDirectory(CompilationSection compilationSection) +8918190 System.Web.HttpRuntime.HostingInit(HostingEnvironmentFlags hostingFlags) +152 [HttpException (0x80004005): The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to 'C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.] System.Web.HttpRuntime.FirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +8890735 System.Web.HttpRuntime.EnsureFirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +85 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestInternal(HttpWorkerRequest wr) +259

    Read the article

  • Unable to store NSNumber in core data

    - by Kamlesh
    Hi all, I am using Core Data in my application.I have an attribute named PINCode which has property Int64. Now,in my app I take the PIN code from a text field,convert it into NSNumber and try to store as an attribute value for an entity.But I am unable to do so.The exception that it shows on the console is:- Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unacceptable type of value for attribute: property = "PINCode"; desired type = NSNumber; given type = NSCFString; value = 121.' Here is the code:- (Conversion to NSNumber):- NSString *str= txtPINCode.text; NSNumber *num = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; int tempNum = [str intValue]; num = [NSNumber numberWithInt:tempNum]; (Storing in core data entity):- NSManagedObjectContext *context = [appDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSManagedObject *newContact; newContact = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MemberTable" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newContact setValue:num forKey:@"PINCode"]; The app crashes at this point.I am unable to find the reason of crash.I have also tried to check the conversion by the following code:- NSNumber *testNumber = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; id test = num; BOOL testMe = [test isKindOfClass:(Class)testNumber]; Can anybody help me with this?? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to keep your unit tests simple and isolated and still guarantee DDD invariants ?

    - by ian31
    DDD recommends that the domain objects should be in a valid state at any time. Aggregate roots are responsible for guaranteeing the invariants and Factories for assembling objects with all the required parts so that they are initialized in a valid state. However this seems to complicate the task of creating simple, isolated unit tests a lot. Let's assume we have a BookRepository that contains Books. A Book has : an Author a Category a list of Bookstores you can find the book in These are required attributes : a book has to have an author, a category and at least a book store you can buy the book from. There's likely to be a BookFactory since it is quite a complex object, and the Factory will initialize the Book with at least all the mentioned attributes. Now we want to unit test a method of the BookRepository that returns all the Books. To test if the method returns the books, we have to set up a test context (the Arrange step in AAA terms) where some Books are already in the Repository. If the only tool at our disposal to create Book objects is the Factory, the unit test now also uses and is dependent on the Factory and inderectly on Category, Author and Store since we need those objects to build up a Book and then place it in the test context. Would you consider this is a dependency in the same way that in a Service unit test we would be dependent on, say, a Repository that the Service would call ? How would you solve the problem of having to re-create a whole cluster of objects in order to be able to test a simple thing ? How would you break that dependency and get rid of all these attributes we don't need in our test ? By using mocks or stubs ? If you mock up things a Repository contains, what kind of mock/stubs would you use as opposed to when you mock up something the object under test talks to or consumes ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342  | Next Page >