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  • Inserting variable into routes - map.resources :posts, :as => X - is this possible?

    - by bgadoci
    Ok, so I am working on a blog application of sorts. Thus far, it allows for a user to sign up for their own account, create posts, tags, comments, etc. I have just implemented the ability to use www.myapp.com/brandon to set @user to find by username and therefore correctly display the users information at each url. So when you go to www.myapp.com/brandon you see all Brandon's posts, tags, and comments associated with those posts, etc. Works great. I'm implementing this URL mapping through the routes.rb file by adding the following: map.username_link '/:username', :controller => 'posts', :action => 'index' And then just setting the @user variable in the PostController and corresponding views to find_by_username. Now the issue is this. Once at www.myapp.com/brandon when you click on a post title, it sends to myapp.com/posts/id without the username in the URL. How do I tell rails to replace the /posts with /username. Is it even possible to insert the user_username variable into this code? map.resources :posts, :as => [what goes here]

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  • Rails - difference between config.cache_store and config.action_controller.cache_store?

    - by gsmendoza
    If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

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  • PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

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  • Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

    - by NachoF
    Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

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  • Webservice complex types and class inheritance

    - by pygorex1
    Using the following Webservice definition using aClientArgs as a complex type: [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Controller : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public void save_client(aClientArgs client) { // Save client data } } Then defining aClientArgs as a sub-class: public class aArgs { public string id = null; public string name = null; } public class aClientArgs : aArgs { public string address = null; public string website = null; } Returns the following WSDL fragment for the save_client args: <save_client xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <client> <address>string</address> <website>string</website> </client> </save_client> When I'm expecting the following: <save_client xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <client> <id>string</id> <name>string</name> <address>string</address> <website>string</website> </client> </save_client> So it appears that the .NET WebService is not treating inherited properties as arguments/variables for purposes of a web service. How do I get .NET to also use the properties of the base class?

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  • Render view to string followed by redirect results in exception

    - by Chris Charabaruk
    So here's the issue: I'm building e-mails to be sent by my application by rendering full view pages to strings and sending them. This works without any problem so long as I'm not redirecting to another URL on the site afterwards. Whenever I try, I get "System.Web.HttpException: Cannot redirect after HTTP headers have been sent." I believe the problem comes from the fact I'm reusing the context from the controller action where the call for creating the e-mail comes from. More specifically, the HttpResponse from the context. Unfortunately, I can't create a new HttpResponse that makes use of HttpWriter because the constructor of that class is unreachable, and using any other class derived from TextWriter causes response.Flush() to throw an exception, itself. Does anyone have a solution for this? public static string RenderViewToString( ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath, ViewDataDictionary viewData, TempDataDictionary tempData) { Stream filter = null; ViewPage viewPage = new ViewPage(); //Right, create our view viewPage.ViewContext = new ViewContext(controllerContext, new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath), viewData, tempData); //Get the response context, flush it and get the response filter. var response = viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response; //var response = new HttpResponseWrapper(new HttpResponse // (**TextWriter Goes Here**)); response.Flush(); var oldFilter = response.Filter; try { //Put a new filter into the response filter = new MemoryStream(); response.Filter = filter; //Now render the view into the memorystream and flush the response viewPage.ViewContext.View.Render(viewPage.ViewContext, viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response.Output); response.Flush(); //Now read the rendered view. filter.Position = 0; var reader = new StreamReader(filter, response.ContentEncoding); return reader.ReadToEnd(); } finally { //Clean up. if (filter != null) filter.Dispose(); //Now replace the response filter response.Filter = oldFilter; } }

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  • Java (Tomcat): how to configure a cookieless subdomain to serve static content

    - by Webinator
    One of the tip given by both Google and Yahoo! to speed up webpages loading is to configure a cookieless subdomain to server static content. How do you configure a "cookieless subdomain" using Tomcat in standalone mode (this question is not about how to use Apache to serve static content in a cookieless-way, but about how to do it in Tomcat-standalone mode)? Note that I don't care about filters supporting If-Modified-Since nor care about filters supporting gzipping: the static content I'm serving is forever cacheable (or its name will change) and it is already compressed data (so gzip would only slow down the transfer). Do I need two different Tomcat webapps? (one "cookiefull" and one "cookieless") Do I need two different servlets? (as of now I've got only one dispatcher/controller servlet). Why would a "regular" link to, say, a static image be called in a cookiefull way when it would be on the same domain as the main webapp and then be called in a "cookie-less" way when it is on a subdomain? I don't understand exactly what is going on: is it the browser that decides to append or not cookies to the query? If so, why would it not append the cookies to a static query on a "cookieless" subdomain. Any example as to what is going on behind the scene is most welcome :)

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  • asp.net mvc custom model binder

    - by mike
    pleas help guys, my custom model binder which has been working perfectly has starting giving me errors details below An item with the same key has already been added. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added. Source Error: Line 31: { Line 32: string key = bindingContext.ModelName; Line 33: var doc = base.BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) as Document; Line 34: Line 35: // DoBasicValidation(bindingContext, doc); Source File: C:\Users\Bich Vu\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\PitchPortal\PitchPortal.Web\Binders\DocumentModelBinder.cs Line: 33 Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added.] System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) +51 System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) +7462172 System.Linq.Enumerable.ToDictionary(IEnumerable1 source, Func2 keySelector, Func2 elementSelector, IEqualityComparer1 comparer) +270 System.Linq.Enumerable.ToDictionary(IEnumerable1 source, Func2 keySelector, IEqualityComparer1 comparer) +102 System.Web.Mvc.ModelBindingContext.get_PropertyMetadata() +157 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindProperty(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext, PropertyDescriptor propertyDescriptor) +158 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindProperties(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) +90 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexElementalModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext, Object model) +50 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) +1048 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) +280 PitchPortal.Web.Binders.documentModelBinder.BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) in C:\Users\Bich Vu\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\PitchPortal\PitchPortal.Web\Binders\DocumentModelBinder.cs:33 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.GetParameterValue(ControllerContext controllerContext, ParameterDescriptor parameterDescriptor) +257 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.GetParameterValues(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) +109 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) +314 System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() +105 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) +39 System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) +7 System.Web.Mvc.<c_DisplayClass8.b_4() +34 System.Web.Mvc.Async.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0() +21 System.Web.Mvc.Async.<c__DisplayClass81.<BeginSynchronous>b__7(IAsyncResult _) +12 System.Web.Mvc.Async.WrappedAsyncResult1.End() +59 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult asyncResult) +44 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult result) +7 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8677678 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 any ideas guys? Thanks

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  • Unable to access a primitive array inside a custom class from a UIViewController instance

    - by Daniel
    Hello! I have made a subclass of NSObject that is meant to be the model of my application. The class has a few methods and on instance primitive array as such: @interface Cube : NSObject { int cubeState[5][2][2]; } - (id)printContent; @end @implementation Cube - (void)init { if (self = [super init]) { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { cubeState[i][j][k] = i; } } } } return self; } - (void)printContent { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { NSLog(@"[%d] [%d] [%d] = %d", i, j, k, cubeState[i][j][k]); } } } } @end This works fine if instanciated from the delegate as such: #include "Cube.h" @implementation CubeAppDelegate @synthesize window; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { Cube *cube = [[Cube alloc] init]; [cube printContent]; [cube release]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } However, the application crashes if I try to create a subclass of UIViewController with a Cube *cube property and later try to access the Cube instance object through the view controller's property as such: @interface CustomController : UIViewController { Cube *cube; } @property (nonatomic, retain) Cube *cube; @end @implementation CustomController @synthesize cube; - (void)dealloc { [cube release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and in the delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { viewController = [[CustomController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; viewController.cube = [[[Cube alloc] init] autorelease]; [viewController.cube printContent]; // Application crashes here } Any ideas?

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  • The ViewData item that has the key 'MY KEY' is of type 'System.String' but must be of type 'IEnumerable<SelectListItem>'.

    - by JBibbs
    I am trying to populate a dropdown list from a database mapped with Linq 2 SQL, using ASP.NET MVC 2, and keep getting this error. I am so confused because I am declaring a variable with the type IEnumerable<SelectListItem> on the second line, but the error makes me think this is not the case. I feel like this should be very simple, but I am struggling. Any help is appreciated. Here are the interesting bits of my controller: public ActionResult Create() { var db = new DB(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> basetypes = db.Basetypes.Select(b => new SelectListItem { Value = b.basetype, Text = b.basetype }); ViewData["basetype"] = basetypes; return View(); } And here are the interesting bits of my view: <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("basetype") %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> Here is the Post action when submitting the Form // POST: /Meals/Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Meal meal) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here var db = new DB(); db.Meals.InsertOnSubmit(meal); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(meal); } } else { return View(meal); } } Thanks.

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  • An unhandled exception of type 'System.StackOverflowException' occurred in mscorlib.dll

    - by mazhar
    Ok the thing is that I am using asp.net mvc with linq to sql. I have a scenario where there are two tables group and features with many to many relationship with the third table groupfeatures. I have drag and drop all three table in the dbml file. The thing is that it runs fine with group but when I call the Feature things the above error occured and the compilers stops at this line in ((())). public partial class EgovtDataContext : System.Data.Linq.DataContext { private static System.Data.Linq.Mapping.MappingSource mappingSource = new AttributeMappingSource(); #region Extensibility Method Definitions partial void OnCreated(); partial void InsertGroup(Group instance); partial void UpdateGroup(Group instance); partial void DeleteGroup(Group instance); partial void InsertFeature(Feature instance); partial void UpdateFeature(Feature instance); partial void DeleteFeature(Feature instance); partial void InsertGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void UpdateGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void DeleteGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); #endregion (((public EgovtDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["egovtsConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource)))) The code in both the controller Group and features file is ditto copied. Note the group things are working, the features things are not. FeaturesRepository.cs public IQueryable<Feature> FindAllFeatures() { return db.Features; } FeaturesController.cs FeaturesRepository FeatureRepository = new FeaturesRepository(); public ActionResult Index() { var Feature = FeatureRepository.FindAllFeatures(); return View(Feature); } So what could be wrong?

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  • DDD principlers and ASP.NET MVC project design

    - by kaivalya
    Two part questions I have a product aggregate that has; Prices PackagingOptions ProductDescriptions ProductImages etc I have modeled one product repository and did not create individual repositories for any of the child classes. All db operations are handled through product repository. Am I understanding the DDD concept correctly so far? Sometimes the question comes to my mind that having a repository for lets say packaging options could make my life easier by directly fetching a the packaging option from the DB by using its ID instead of asking the product repository to find it in its PackagingOptions collection and give it to me.. Second part is managing the edit create operations using ASP.MVC frame work I am currently trying to manage all add edit remove of these child collections of product through product controller(sound right?). One challenge I am now facing is; If I edit a specific packaging option of product through mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/10 I have access to the id of the packaging option But I don't have the ID of the product it self and this forces me to write a query to first find the product that has this specific packaging option then edit that product and the revelant packaging option. I can do this as all packaging option have their unique ID but this would fail if I have collections that don't have unique ID. That feels very wrong.. The next option I thought of is sending both the product and packaging option IDs on the url like; mydomain/product/editpackagingoption/3/10 But I am not sure if that is a good design either. So I am at a point that I am a bit confused. might be having fundamental misunderstandings around all of this... I would appreciate if you bear with the long question and help me put this together. thanks!

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  • AdMob ad in iPhone app makes App content disappear when "done" is pressed!

    - by nephilite
    Hello All, When I return from an adMob ad by hitting "done" the content of my app has disappeared ! All that remains is a background image I had attached directly to the main window. Oddly I can still hear the result of my touch events from my main screen (which is now gone). This may be related to the issue some people have had regarding a 20 pixel move involving the toolbar...I see something to that effect as the ad starts to overlay. I have admob in another app that is working fine, and I notice when the ad opens in that app the ad content fills the whole screen EXCEPT the top toolbar (it starts right under it). In the new app I'm working on right now this isn't the case. When the ad starts to open I see the tool bar vanish, then the add comes in and fills the entire screen (including the area where the tool bar was); then when I click done and the the ad goes away everything under it is gone as well. It may be worth noting that the App I had working was 2.x and the current app is 3.x (and thus using the admob 3.0 libraries). This is very odd and deal-breaking; I need help ASAP The relevant part of my view hierarchy is as follows: AppDelegate - ViewController - MainView (Ad is in here) There are also some other Views that are children of the ViewController and a UITabbar is also a subview of the ViewController (programmatically declared, not a UITabBar Controller). Any help you can offer would be extremely appreciate...I need to resolve this issue ASAP, release in two days! Thanks!!

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  • nested attributes with polymorphic has_one model

    - by Millisami
    I am using accepts_nested_attributes_for with the has_one polymorphic model in rails 2.3.5 Following are the models and its associations: class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :city, :address1, :address2 belongs_to :addressable, :polymorphic => true validates_presence_of :address1, :address2, :city end class Vendor < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :address_attributes has_one :address, :as => :addressable, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end This is the view: - form_for @vendor do |f| = f.error_messages %p = f.label :name %br = f.text_field :name - f.fields_for :address_attributes do |address| = render "shared/address_fields", :f => address %p = f.submit "Create" This is the partial shared/address_fields.html.haml %p = f.label :city %br= f.text_field :city %span City/Town name like Dharan, Butwal, Kathmandu, .. %p = f.label :address1 %br= f.text_field :address1 %span City Street name like Lazimpat, New Road, .. %p = f.label :address2 %br= f.text_field :address2 %span Tole, Marg, Chowk name like Pokhrel Tole, Shanti Marg, Pako, .. And this is the controller: class VendorsController < ApplicationController def new @vendor = Vendor.new end def create @vendor = Vendor.new(params[:vendor]) if @vendor.save flash[:notice] = "Vendor created successfully!" redirect_to @vendor else render :action => 'new' end end end The problem is when I fill in all the fileds, the record gets save on both tables as expected. But when I just the name and city or address1 filed, the validation works, error message shown, but the value I put in the city or address1, is not persisted or not displayed inside the address form fields? This is the same case with edit action too. Though the record is saved, the address doesn't show up on the edit form. Only the name of the Client model is shown. Actually, when I look at the log, the address model SQL is not queried even at all.

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  • How to bind form collection back to custom model object that uses 2 custom objects in asp.net mvc?

    - by baijajusav
    What I'm trying to do is rather basic, but I might have my facts mixed up. I have a details page that has a custom class as it's Model. The custom class uses 2 custom objects with yet another custom object a property of one of the 2. The details page outputs a fair amount of information, but allows the user to post a comment. When the user clicks the post button, the page gets posted to a Details action that looks something like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Details(VideoDetailModel vidAndComment) { ....} The only fields on the form that is posted are CommentText and VideoId. Here is what the VideoDetailModel looks like. public class VideoDetailModel { public VideoDetailModel() { Video = new VideoDTO(); Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDetailModel(VideoDTO vid) { Video = vid; Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDTO Video { get; set; } public CommentDTO Comment { get; set; } } VideoDTO has a few properties, but the ones I need are VideoId. CommentDTO's pertinent properties include CommentText (which is posting correctly) and a UserDTO object that contains a userId property. Everything other than the CommentText value is not being posted. I also have the following line on the ascx page, but the model value never gets posted to the controller. Html.Hidden("Model.Video.VideoId", Model.Video.VideoId); I'm really not sure what I'm missing here. I suppose if I added more form fields for the properties I need, they would get posted, but I only need 1 form entry field for the CommentText. If I could get the same Model objects value that were sent to the page to post with the page, that would help. I'll be happy to make any clarifications needed here. I'm just at loss as to what's going on.

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  • NSMutableArray to NSString and Passing NSString to Another View IOS5.1

    - by Space Dust
    I have an NSMutableArray of names. I want the pass the data (selected name) inside of NSMutableArray as text to another view's label. FriendsController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; arrayOfNames=[[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; arrayOfIDs=[[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; userName=[[NSString alloc] init]; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { long long fbid = [[arrayOfIDs objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]longLongValue]; NSString *user=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%llu/picture",fbid]; [facebook requestWithGraphPath:user andDelegate:self]; userName=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[arrayOfNames objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; FriendDetail *profileDetailName = [[FriendDetail alloc] initWithNibName: @"FriendDetail" bundle: nil]; profileDetailName.nameString=userName; [profileDetailName release]; } - (void)request:(FBRequest *)request didLoad:(id)result { if ([result isKindOfClass:[NSData class]]) { transferImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData: result]; FriendDetail *profileDetailPicture = [[FriendDetail alloc] initWithNibName: @"FriendDetail" bundle: nil]; [profileDetailPicture view]; profileDetailPicture.profileImage.image= transferImage; profileDetailPicture.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:profileDetailPicture animated:YES]; [profileDetailPicture release]; } } In FriendDetail.h NSString nameString; IBOutlet UILabel *profileName; @property (nonatomic, retain) UILabel *profileName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *nameString; In FriendDetail.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; profileName.text=nameString; } nameString in second controller(FriendDetail) returns nil. When i set a breakpoint in firstcontroller I see the string inside of nameString is correct but after that it returns to nil somehow.

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  • Serializing Complex ViewModel with Json.Net Destabilization Error on Latest Version

    - by dreadlocks1221
    I just added the latest Version of JSON.Net and I get the System.Security.VerificationException: Operation could destabilize the runtime error when trying to use a controller (while running the application). I read in other posts that this issue should have been fixed in release 6 but I still have the problem. I even added *Newtonsoft.* to the ignore modules in the intellitrace options, which seems to have suppressed the error, but the post will just run forever and not return anything. Any help I can get would be greatly appreciated. [HttpPost] public string GetComments(int ShowID, int Page) { int PageSize = 10; UserRepository UserRepo = new UserRepository(); ShowCommentViewModel viewModel = new ShowCommentViewModel(); IQueryable<Comment> CommentQuery = showRepository.GetShowComments(ShowID); var paginatedComments = new PaginatedList<Comment>(CommentQuery, Page, PageSize); viewModel.Comments = new List<CommentViewModel>(); foreach (Comment comment in CommentQuery.Take(10).ToList()) { CommentViewModel CommentModel = new CommentViewModel { Comment = comment, PostedBy = UserRepo.GetUserProfile(comment.UserID) }; IQueryable<Comment> ReplyQuery = showRepository.GetShowCommentReplies(comment.CommentID); int ReplyPage = 0; var paginatedReplies = new PaginatedList<Comment>(ReplyQuery, ReplyPage, 3); CommentModel.Replies = new List<ReplyModel>(); foreach (Comment reply in ReplyQuery.Take(3).ToList()) { ReplyModel rModel = new ReplyModel { Reply = reply, PostedBy = UserRepo.GetUserProfile(reply.UserID) }; CommentModel.Replies.Add(rModel); } CommentModel.RepliesNextPage = paginatedReplies.HasNextPage; CommentModel.RepliesPeviousPage = paginatedReplies.HasPreviousPage; CommentModel.RepliesTotalPages = paginatedReplies.TotalPages; CommentModel.RepliesPageIndex = paginatedReplies.PageIndex; CommentModel.RepliesTotalCount = paginatedReplies.TotalCount; viewModel.Comments.Add(CommentModel); } viewModel.CommentsNextPage = paginatedComments.HasNextPage; viewModel.CommentsPeviousPage = paginatedComments.HasPreviousPage; viewModel.CommentsTotalPages = paginatedComments.TotalPages; viewModel.CommentsPageIndex = paginatedComments.PageIndex; viewModel.CommentsTotalCount = paginatedComments.TotalCount; return JsonConvert.SerializeObject(viewModel, Formatting.Indented); }

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  • Paperclip wont save image in rails app

    - by Micke
    Hello stackoverflow. I am trying to use Paperclip with my rails app to add an avatar to a user but it wont save my image when creating the user. This is what the model looks like: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :avatar And the registerform in haml: - form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "signup" }, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| ... ... %li %div{:class => "header"} Profilepicture %div{:class => "input"} = f.file_field :avatar And when i look in the log this is what is being passet to the "signup" action: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save", "action"=>"signup", "controller"=>"user/register", "user"=>{"name"=>"Micke Lisinge", "birthmonth"=>"07", "password_confirmation"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"lisinge", "avatar"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100426-3076-1x04oxy-0>, "gen"=>"m", "birthday"=>"23", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "birthyear"=>"1992", "email"=>"[email protected]"}} [paperclip] Saving attachments. Paperclip says it is saving the template but when i look in the public folder in my app it has created a system but the system folder is empty. So it seems like it isnt saving the picture to the folder. It gets handled by the form and saved in my /tmp folder. Maybe you guys have any tips or know what this problem might be? Thanks in advance, Micke.

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  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

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  • Spring MVC parameter validation

    - by Don
    Hi, I've defined a controller, validator and command class for a Spring 2.5 MVC application like this: public class ResourceController extends AbstractCommandController { private MessageRetriever messageRetriever; protected ModelAndView handle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception { ResourceCommand resourceCommand = (ResourceCommand) command; // I NEED TO CHECK HERE IF COMMAND IS VALID? } public static class ResourceCommand { private String module; private String site; private String lang; // GETTERS AND SETTERS OMITTED } public static class ResourceValidator implements Validator { public boolean supports(Class clazz) { return ResourceCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } public void validate(Object obj, Errors errors) { ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "module", "MODULE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "site", "SITE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "lang", "LANG_REQUIRED"); } } } I have wired these all together in the application context: <bean id="resourceController" class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController"> <property name="commandClass" value="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceCommand"/> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceValidator"/> </property> </bean> However, I can't figure out how to actually check whether the command is valid or not - I assume the framework calls the validator, but how do I get access to the result? Incidentally, I'm using Java 1.4, so can't use any solutions that require annotations or other Java 1.5 features. Thanks, Don

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  • Windows 7 64 Bit - ODBC32 - Legacy App Problem

    - by Arturo Caballero
    Good day StackOverFlowlers, I´m a little stuck (really stuck) with an issue with a legacy application on my organization. I have a Windows 7 Enterprise 64 Bit machine, Access 2000 Installed and the Legacy App (Is built with something like VB but older) The App uses System ODBC in order to connect to a SQL 2000 DataBase on a Remote Server. I created the ODCB using C:\Windows\SysWOW64\odbcad32.exe app in order to create a System DSN. I did not use the Windows 7 because it is not visible to the Legacy App. I tested the ODBC connection with Access and worked ok, I can access the remote database. Then I run the legacy App as Administrator and the App can see the ODBC, but I´m getting errors on credential validation and I´m getting this error: DIAG [08001] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. (17) DIAG [01000] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]ConnectionOpen (Connect()). (53) DIAG [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed (0) I use Trusted Connection on the ODBC in order to validate the user by Domain Controller. I think that the credentials are not being sent by the Legacy App to the ODBC, or something like that. I don´t have the source code of the Legacy App in order to debug the connection. Also, I turned off the Firewall. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

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  • Setting corelocation results to NSNumber object parameters

    - by Dan Ray
    This is a weird one, y'all. - (void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate = newLocation.coordinate; self.mark.longitude = [NSNumber numberWithDouble:coordinate.longitude]; self.mark.latitude = [NSNumber numberWithDouble:coordinate.latitude]; NSLog(@"Got %f %f, set %f %f", coordinate.latitude, coordinate.longitude, self.mark.latitude, self.mark.longitude); [manager stopUpdatingLocation]; manager.delegate = nil; if (self.waitingForLocation) { [self completeUpload]; } } The latitude and longitude in that "mark" object are synthesized parameters referring to NSNumber iVars. In the simulator, my NSLog output for that line in the middle there reads: 2010-05-28 15:08:46.938 EverWondr[8375:207] Got 37.331689 -122.030731, set 0.000000 -44213283338325225829852024986561881455984640.000000 That's a WHOLE lot further East than 1 Infinite Loop! The numbers are different on the device, but similar--lat is still zero and long is a very unlikely high negative number. Elsewhere in the controller I'm accepting a button press and uploading a file (an image I just took with the camera) with its geocoding info associated, and I need that self.waitingForLocation to inform the CLLocationManager delegate that I already hit that button and once its done its deal, it should go ahead and fire off the upload. Thing is, up in the button-click-receiving method, I test see if CL is finished by testing self.mark.latitude, which seems to be getting set zero...

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  • ASP.NET MVC - PartialView not refreshing

    - by Billy Logan
    Hello Everyone, I have a view that uses a javascript callback to reload a partial view. For whatever reason the contents of the partial class do not refresh even though i can step through the entire process and see the page being recalled and populated. Any reason why the page would not display? Code is as follows: <div id="big_image_content"> <% Html.RenderPartial("ZoomImage", Model); %> </div> This link should reload the div above: <a href="javascript:void(0)" onclick="$('#big_image_content').load('/ShopDetai/ZoomImage);" title="<%= shape.Shape %>" alt="<%= shape.Shape %>"> <img src="http://images.rugs-direct.com/<%= shape.Image.ToLower() %>" width="40" alt="<%= shape.Shape %>"> </a> partial view(ZoomImage.ascx) simplified for now, but still doesn't load: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<RugsDirect.Data.ItemDetailsModel>" %> <%= Model.Category.ToLower()%> And finally the controller side of things: public ActionResult ZoomImage() { try { ItemDetailsModel model = GetMainImageContentModel(); return PartialView("ZoomImage", model); } catch (Exception ex) { //send the error email ExceptionPolicy.HandleException(ex, "Exception Policy"); //redirect to the error page return RedirectToAction("ViewError", "Shop"); } } Again, i can step through this entire process and all seems to be working accept for the page not reloading. I can even break on the <%= Model.Category.ToLower()% of the partial view, but it will not be displayed. Thanks in advance, Billy

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  • popViewController does not autorotate back to allowed orientation

    - by JoeGaggler
    I have two UIViewControllers, "A" and "B", where "A" overrides the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation to return YES for UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait, and "B" returns YES for all orientations. In my example "A" is the root navigation view controller, and I then use pushViewController for "B". After that I rotate the device into landscape, which successfully autorotates "B", then I pop "B" (back button or via popViewController) to return to "A". When targetting iPhone OS 3.1.3, "A" returns to the portrait orientation as expected. When targetting iPhone OS 3.2, I have two side-effects: "A" is displayed in landscape. The navigation bar does not update even though "A" is now displayed. The navigation bar still shows the items for "B". Only after trying to go back/pop one more time will the navigation bar animate to show the items for "A". If I instead attempt to push "B" again and go back, I have to pop twice before the navigation bar animates to show the items for "A". During these "intermediate pops" the view for "A" remains displayed. While researching this issue, I have seen other answers suggesting performing the rotation manually ([UIDevice setOrientation] or via a tranformation), however this does not help understand what the problem is, especially why it behaves differently between the two OS's. So my question is: must all of my UIViewControllers on the UINavigationController stack support exactly the same orientations going forward? And if not, then is there something that I need to do to make it behave as it did for OS 3.1.3?

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  • Seperation of notification confirmation+storage and handling notification asp.net mvc

    - by bastijn
    After a payment from my web application to a 3rd party the 3rd party sends, next to the direct confirmation message, a notification message. This notification message is stored in my database for future use and I have to send a notification confirmed back. For this purpose I currently use a: return Content("received") Which is standard protocol for the service. Currently, I process the incoming notification by first storing it, than handling it (updating account credits etc in my application) and in the end sending a response. This all works well. But I want to seperate handling the notification and storing+responding to the webservice. The problem is that the "return Content()" is ending my controller method and therefore I cannot simply first send the confirmation message back to the webservice and than call my handle_Notification() method. So the solution would be to replace the return Content() part with something equal which doesn't involve a "return", is this possible, as I do not now the complete URL calling I cannot easily create a simple HTTP POST web request (I tried, might have made an error but did not work). Another solution would be to have some kind of timer or listener which either periodically checks for new notifications in the Database which have to be handled or a listener listening to DB new notifications or something. What is the standard procedure on this, if any?

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