Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 345/421 | < Previous Page | 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352  | Next Page >

• How to Make a DVCS Completely Interoperable with Subversion?

  - by David M

  What architectural changes would a DVCS need to be completely interoperable with Subversion? Many DVCSs have some kind of bidirectional interface with Subversion, but there are limitations and caveats. For instance, git-svn can create a repository that mirrors Subversion, and changes to that repo can be sent back to Subversion via 'dcommit'. But the git-svn manpage explicitly cautions against making clones of that repository, so essentially, it's a Subversion working copy that you can use git commands on. Bazaar has a bidirectional Subversion capability too, but its documentation notes that Subversion properties aren't supported at all. Here's the end that I'm pursuing. I want a Subversion repository and a DVCS repository that, in the steady state, have identical content. When something is changed on one, it's automatically mirrored to the other. Subversion users interact with the Subversion repository normally. DVCS users clone the DVCS repository, pull changes from it, and push changes back to it. Most importantly, they don't need to know that this special DVCS repository is associated with a Subversion repository. It would probably be nifty if any clone of the special repository is itself a special repository and could commit directly to Subversion, but it might be sufficient if only the special repository directly interacts with Subversion. I think that's what mostly needed is to improve the bidirectional capability so that changes to Subversion properties are translated to changes in the DVCS repository. Some changes in the DVCS repository would be translated to changes to Subversion properties. Or is the answer to create a new capability in Subversion that interacts with a DVCS repository, using the DVCS repository as just a special storage layer such as fsfs or bdb? If there's not a direct mapping between the things that Subversion and a DVCS regard as having versions, does that imply that there's always going to be some activity that cannot be recorded properly on one or the other?

  Read the article

• Can I use manifests to consume a COM server without specifying its version?

  - by sharptooth

  Two of our programs use the same COM server (also made by us) with the same class ids. Each program when installing copies the COM server files into its folder and regsvr32s the COM server. The problem is how to install the COM server so that the user can install either one or both of our programs into different folders in any order and likely of different versions. Clearly it's impossible without changing the class ids and that's lots of hassle with configurations. Ideally we would like to use manifests for that and go without regsvr32. The problem is every time I read about reg-free COM (for example, here) there's the version attribute in the assemblyIdentity. The version number should change every nightly build and I totally don't like the idea of (automatically) adjusting it. I understand why specifying dependency on a specific version is good, but it's completely useless in our scenarion. Is there a way to write manifests for both the COM server and the consumer so that they don't specify versions and just work with whatever version of the file happens to be in the folder? Also is there a way to restrict the search to the same folder as the consumer?

  Read the article

• Using Partitions for a large MySQL table

  - by user293594

  An update on my attempts to implement a 505,000,000-row table on MySQL on my MacBook Pro: Following the advice given, I have partitioned my table, tr: i UNSIGNED INT NOT NULL, j UNSIGNED INT NOT NULL, A FLOAT(12,8) NOT NULL, nu BIGINT NOT NULL, KEY (nu), key (A) with a range on nu. nu ought to be a real number, but because I only have 6-d.p. accuracy and the maximum value of nu is 30000. I multiplied it by 10^8 made it a BIGINT - I gather one can't use FLOAT or DOUBLE values to PARTITION a MySQL table. Anyway, I have 15 partitions (p0: nu<25,000,000,000, p1: nu<50,000,000,000, etc.). I was thinking that this should speed up a typical to SELECT: SELECT * FROM tr WHERE nu>95000000000 AND nu<100000000000 AND A.>1. to something of the order of the same query on a table consisting of only the data in the relevant partition (<30 secs). But it's taking 30mins+ to return rows for queries within a partition and double that if the query is for rows spanning two (contiguous) partitions. I realise I could just have 15 different tables, and query them separately, but is there a way to do this 'automatically' with partitions? Has anyone got any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Trying to set PC clock programmatically just before Daylight Saving Time ends

  - by Moe Sisko

  To reproduce : 1) Add Microsoft.VisualBasic assembly to your project reference 2) Change PC timezone to : (GMT+10:00) Canberra, Melbourne, Sydney . Ensure PC is set to automatically adjust clock for daylight savings time. (For this timezone, daylight savings time ends at 3am on 4 Apr 2010.) 3) add following code : public void SetNewDateTime(DateTime dt) { Microsoft.VisualBasic.DateAndTime.Today = dt; // ignores time component Microsoft.VisualBasic.DateAndTime.TimeOfDay = dt; // ignores date component } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime dt = new DateTime(2010, 4, 5, 5, 0, 0); // XX SetNewDateTime(dt); // XX System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); DateTime dt2 = new DateTime(2010, 4, 4, 1, 0, 0); SetNewDateTime(dt2); } 4) When button 1 is clicked, the PC clock eventually shows 2am, whereas 1 am was expected. (If code marked at "XX" is removed, the clock sometimes shows the correct time of 1 am). Any idea what is happening ? (Or is there a more reliable way of setting the PC clock from C# code ?) TIA.

  Read the article

• Automatic music rating based on listening habits

  - by marco92w

  I've created a Winamp-like music player in Delphi. Not so complex, of course. Just a simple one. But now I would like to add a more complex feature: Songs in the library should be automatically rated based on the user's listening habits. This means: The application should "understand" if the user likes a song or not. And not only whether he/she likes it but also how much. My approach so far (data which could be used): Simply measure how often a song was played per time. Start counting time when the song was added to the library so that recent songs don't have any disadvantage. Measure how long a song was played on average (minutes). Starting a song but directly change to another one should have a bad influence on the ranking since the user didn't seem to like the song. ... Could you please help me with this problem? I would just like to have some ideas. I don't need the implementation in Delphi.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

  - by Joris

  Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

  Read the article

• Update "Properties" model when adding a new record in CakePHP

  - by Paul Willy

  Hi, I'm writing an application in CakePHP that, for now, is to be used to make quotes for customers. So Quote is a model. I want to have a separate model/table for something like "Property," which may be used by other models. Each time a user gets to the "Add Quote" action, I basically want to pull a Property called "nextQuoteNumber" or something along those lines, and then automatically increment that property, even if the new Quote isn't saved. So I don't think just using an autoincrement for Quote's id is appropriate here - also, the "quote number" could be different from the row's id. I know this is simple enough to do, but I'm trying to figure out the "proper" CakePHP way of doing it! I'm thinking that I should have a method inside the Property model, say "getProperty($property_name)", which would pull the value to return, and also increment the value... but I'm not sure what the best way of doing that is, or how to invoke this method from the Quotes controller. What should I do? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Problems with ASP.NET, machine-level web.config, and the location element

  - by Daniel Schaffer

  I've got a server running Windows Web Server 2008 R2. The machine-level web.config has the following entries: <location path="Preview"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Preview" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Staging"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Staging" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Production"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Production" /> </appSettings> </location> I have a website that I'd set up in the direction D:\Sites\Preview\, so the full path would be D:\Sites\Preview\WebSite1. If I put a simple aspx file that just outputs the value of ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["Environment"], it displays the value Preview. I'm not clear on exactly how that works, but it does. I'd set this up several weeks ago, and just now tried to duplicate this - I put a second site in the D:\Sites\Preview\ directory, expecting that it would automatically pick up the appropriate appSettings entries, but for some reason it hasn't - the same aspx page doesn't show anything. Additionally, when I go into the IIS manager and open the Configuration Editor, there are no settings in there, whereas there are settings listed for the first site. Any ideas as to what I could be missing? Is the location element intended to work like this, or did I just find some magical fluke with my first site?

  Read the article

• Is JavaEE really portable?

  - by Bozho

  I'm just implementing a JavaEE assignment I was given on an interview. I have some prior experience with EJB, but nothing related to JMS and MDBs. So here's what I find through the numerous examples: application servers bind their topics and queues to different JNDI names - for example topic/queue, jms the activationConfig property is required on JBoss, while in the Sun tutorial it is not. after starting my application, jboss warns me that my topic isn't bound (it isn't actually - I haven't bound it, but I expect it to be bound automatically - in fact, in an example for JBoss 4.0 automatic binding does seem to happen). A suggested solution is to map it in some jboss files or even use jboss-specific annotations. This might be just JBoss, but since it is certified to implement to spec, it appears the spec doesn't specify these these things. And there all the alleged portability vanishes. So I wonder - how come it is claimed that JavaEE is portable and you can take an ear and deploy it on another application server and it magically runs, if such extremely basic things don't appear to be portable at all. P.S. sorry for the rant, but I'm assume I might be doing/getting something wrong, so state your opinions.

  Read the article

• Will Apple bundle the Mono Touch runtime with every iPhone?

  - by Zoran Simic

  It strikes me as a good idea for Apple to negotiate with Novell and bundle the Mono Touch runtime (only the runtime of course) into every iPhone and iPod Touch. Perhaps even make it a "one time install" that automatically gets downloaded from the App Store the first time one downloads an app build with Mono Touch, making every subsequent Mono Touch app much lighter to download (without the runtime). Doing so would be similar in a way to adding Bootcamp to OS X: it would make it easier for C# developers to join the party, but that wouldn't mean these developers will all stick to C#... What convinced me to buy a Mac is Bootcamp - I figured I could always install Windows if I didn't like OS X (and I liked the hardware, so no problem there). 6 months later, I'm using OS X full time... Would there be any technical issues in doing so? I see only advantages for all parties, not one disadvantage to anyone (except maybe for the few unfortunate Apple employees who would have to test the crap out of the Mono Touch runtime before bundling it): Novell wins because Mono Touch becomes much more viable (Mono Touch apps become much lighter all of the sudden) Developers win because now there's one more tool in the tool belt Many C# Developers would be very interested by this Apple wins because that would bring even more attention to the platform, more revenue in developer fees, more potential great apps, etc Users win because less space is used by different Apps having copies of the same runtime accumulating on their devices Would there be a major technical obstacle in bundling Mono Touch to iPhone OS? Edit: Changed the title from "Should" to "Will Apple bundle the runtime?", I think the consensus on predicting that means a lot to those considering going with Mono Touch.

  Read the article

• Suppressing PostSharp Multicast with Attribute

  - by Dan Bryant

  I've recently started experimenting with PostSharp and I found a particularly helpful aspect to automate implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged. You can see the example here. The basic functionality is excellent (all properties will be notified), but there are cases where I might want to suppress notification. For instance, I might know that a particular property is set once in the constructor and will never change again. As such, there is no need to emit the code for NotifyPropertyChanged. The overhead is minimal when classes are not frequently instantiated and I can prevent the problem by switching from an automatically generated property to a field-backed property and writing to the field. However, as I'm learning this new tool, it would be helpful to know if there is a way to tag a property with an attribute to suppress the code generation. I'd like to be able to do something like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public class MyClass { public double SomeValue { get; set; } public double ModifiedValue { get; private set; } [SuppressNotify] public double OnlySetOnce { get; private set; } public MyClass() { OnlySetOnce = 1.0; } }

  Read the article

• Making text align equally in both IE and Chrome

  - by bobo

  <style type="text/css"> h2{ font-size:13px; line-height:16px; color:#000000; margin:0; padding:6px 22px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; } div{ border:1px solid black; } </style> <div> <h2> ????????</h2> </div> Pasting the above codes here: http://htmledit.squarefree.com/ You will see that the text stays a little bit higher in the div in IE than in Chrome, I would like to make them consistent. By adding a &nbsp; after the text within the <h2>in IE, the text will automatically move up, which is consistent with Chrome. But I don't quite like this hack, so I would like to know if anybody knows what problem this is and recommends a better way to fix it if possible. Many thanks to you all. Note: this problem does not appear if the text is english only.

  Read the article

• Nested ListBox in DataGrid? Inherit style?

  - by Chris

  I have a DataGrid with multiple columns. The data grid has a style that changes the forecolor of text on a row where the mouse is over or the row has been selected. So the text color will change from black to white, for example. In one of the columns in the data grid, I have a ListBox. Is it possible for the items in the list box to have the foreground change to that of the data grid row, when you do mouse over or select the data grid row? I don't want to have a style for the list box that is specific to mouse over for the list items, I just want the foreground of the list items to change automatically to the forground of the data grid row when the mouse is over the row or selected the row. So even if the user moves their mouse over a different column (that doesn't contain the listbox) - I would want the foreground for the listbox to change. How can I go about doing this? ValueConverter? Thanks. Chris

  Read the article

• pylab.savefig() and pylab.show() image difference

  - by Jack1990

  I'm making an script to automatically create plots from .xvg files, but there's a problem when I'm trying to use pylab's savefig() method. Using pylab.show() and saving from there, everything's fine. Using pylab.show() Using pylab.savefig() def producePlot(timestep, energy_values,type_line = 'r', jump = 1,finish = 100): fc = sp.interp1d(timestep[::jump], energy_values[::jump],kind='cubic') xnew = numpy.linspace(0, finish, finish*2) pylab.plot(xnew, fc(xnew),type_line) pylab.xlabel('Time in ps ') pylab.ylabel('kJ/mol') pylab.xlim(xmin=0, xmax=finish) def produceSimplePlot(timestep, energy_values,type_line = 'r', jump = 1,finish = 100): pylab.plot(timestep, energy_values,type_line) pylab.xlabel('Time in ps ') pylab.ylabel('kJ/mol') pylab.xlim(xmin=0, xmax=finish) def linearRegression(timestep, energy_values, type_line = 'g'): #, jump = 1,finish = 100): from scipy import stats import numpy #print 'fuck' timestep = numpy.asarray(timestep) slope, intercept, r_value, p_value, std_err = stats.linregress(timestep,energy_values) line = slope*timestep+intercept pylab.plot(timestep, line, type_line) def plottingTime(Title,file_name, timestep, energy_values ,loc, jump , finish): pylab.title(Title) producePlot(timestep,energy_values, 'b',jump, finish) linearRegression(timestep,energy_values) import numpy Average = numpy.average(energy_values) #print Average pylab.legend(("Average = %.2f" %(Average),'Linear Reg'),loc) #pylab.show() pylab.savefig('%s.jpg' %file_name[:-4], bbox_inches= None, pad_inches=0) #if __name__ == '__main__': #plottingTime(Title,timestep1, energy_values, jump =10, finish = 4800) def specialCase(Title,file_name, timestep, energy_values,loc, jump, finish): #print 'Working here ...?' pylab.title(Title) producePlot(timestep,energy_values, 'b',jump, finish) import numpy from pylab import * Average = numpy.average(energy_values) #print Average pylab.legend(("Average = %.2g" %(Average), Title),loc) locs,labels = yticks() yticks(locs, map(lambda x: "%.3g" % x, locs)) #pylab.show() pylab.savefig('%s.jpg' %file_name[:-4] , bbox_inches= None, pad_inches=0) Thanks in advance, John

  Read the article

• Uiimport does not save variable to base workspace

  - by Tim

  I tried using uiimport to load a file to the base workspace.....It worked first time....but after trying again after a while...I wasnt seeing the variable in the base work space. I used the default variable name which is given by 'uiimport". This was the command I used: uiimport(filename) And two variables where created by default..."data" and "textdata"(which is the header)....but now when i run it is no longer saved in the base workspace I do not want to assign a variable to the uiimport like so... K = uiimport(filename) assignin(base,'green',K) I do not want to do that because My dataset has a text header and the data itself, and doing this would assign both "textdata" and "data" to "green" variable How would I be able to get the dimensions of ONLY the "data" in green and how would I pass only "data"(which is in the green variable in the workspace.."rmbr"...the green variable holds both "data" and "textdata") to another function. I was able to do all this when the uiimport automatically saved the variables in the base workspace....but somehow now it doesn't. I would appreciate any help or tips on this matter

  Read the article

• Problem with date_select when using :discard option. (Rails)

  - by MikeH

  I'm using a date_select with the option :discard_year => true If a user selects a date in the date select, and then he comes back and returns the select to the prompt values of Month and Day, Rails automatically sets the select values to January 1. I know this is the intended functionality if a month is selected and a day is left blank, but that's not the case here. In my example, the user sets both the month and day back to the prompt. By Rails forcing January 1, I'm getting bad results. I've tried every parameter available in the api. :default = nil, :include_blank = true. None of those change the behavior I'm describing. I've isolated the root of the problem, which is this: Because I'm discarding the :year parameter, when the user tries to return the month and day to the prompt values, Rails doesn't see an empty prompt select. It perhaps sees a year selected with empty month and day, which it then sets to January 1. This is the case because the :discard_year parameter does in fact set a date in the database, it just removes it from the view. How can I code around this problem?

  Read the article

• JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

  - by Ash

  Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

  Read the article

• Is there a way to customize how the value for a custom Model Field is displayed in a template?

  - by Jordan Reiter

  I am storing dates as an integer field in the format YYYYMMDD, where month or day is optional. I have the following function for formatting the number: def flexibledateformat(value): import datetime, re try: value = str(int(value)) except: return None match = re.match(r'(\d{4})(\d\d)(\d\d)$',str(value)) if match: year_val, month_val, day_val = [int(v) for v in match.groups()] if day_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,day_val),'%b %e, %Y') elif month_val: return datetime.datetime.strftime(datetime.date(year_val,month_val,1),'%B %Y') else: return str(year_val) Which results in the following outputs: >>> flexibledateformat(20100415) 'Apr 15, 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100400) 'April 2010' >>> flexibledateformat(20100000) '2010' So I'm wondering if there's a function I can add under the model field class that would automatically call flexibledateformat. So if there's a record r = DataRecord(name='foo',date=20100400) when processed in the form the value would be 20100400 but when output in a template using {{ r.date }} it shows up as "April 2010". Further clarification I do normally use datetime for storing date/time values. In this specific case, I need to record non-specific dates: "x happened in 2009", "y happened sometime in June 1996". The easiest way to do this while still preserving most of the functionality of a date field, including sorting and filtering, is by using an integer in the format of yyyymmdd. That is why I am using an IntegerField instead of a DateTimeField. This is what I would like to happen: I store what I call a "Flexible Date" in a FlexibleDateField as an integer with the format yyyymmdd. I render a form that includes a FlexibleDateField, and the value remains an integer so that functions necessary for validating it and rendering it in widgets work correctly. I call it in a template, as in {{ object.flexibledate }} and it is formatted according to the flexibledateformat rules: 20100416 - April 16, 2010; 20100400 - April 2010; 20100000 - 2010. This also applies when I'm not calling it directly, such as when it's used as a header in admin (http://example.org/admin/app_name/model_name/). I'm not aware if these specific things are possible.

  Read the article

• SharePoint Item Event Receivers and Site Creation

  - by Michael Edwards

  I have created an Item Event Receiver for a document library and I have test that the logic works correctly and it all does. The next thing I wanted to do is automatically create the list when a site is created so I added the list to the ONET.xml file for the site: <Lists> <List Title="Documents" Description="Documents " url="MyDocumentLibrary" Type="10002" FeatureId="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" QuickLaunchUrl="Docs/AllItems.aspx" /> </Lists> And I ensure that the feature for this list is also activated be adding the feature to the <WebFeatures> <Feature ID="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" /> </WebFeatures> The problem occurs after I create the site, when I add a document to the list the Item Event Receiver does not run. However if I manually for to the web site features and deactivate and then reactivate the feature the Item Event Receiver does run. It seems that when creating a list through the ONET.xml and activating the feature it does not bind the Item Event Receiver to the list. What is the work around for this? Is this a bug?

  Read the article

• Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

  - by eblume

  I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

  Read the article

• Associate "Code/Properties/Stuff" with Fields in C# without reflection. I am too indoctrinated by J

  - by AlexH

  I am building a library to automatically create forms for Objects in the project that I am working on. The codebase is in C#, and essentially we have a HUGE number of different objects to store information about different things. If I send these objects to the client side as JSON, it is easy enough to programatically inspect them to generate a form for all of the properties. The problem is that I want to be able to create a simple way of enforcing permissions and doing validation on the client side. It needs to be done on a field by field level. In javascript I would do this by creating a parallel object structure, which had some sort of { permissions : "someLevel", validator : someFunction } object at the nodes. With empty nodes implying free permissions and universal validation. This would let me simply iterate over the new object and the permissions object, run the check, and deal with the result. Because I am overfamilar with the hammer that is javascript, this is really the only way that I can see to deal with this problem. My first implementation thus uses reflection to let me treat objects as dictionaries, that can be programatically iterated over, and then I just have dictionaries of dictionaries of PermissionRule objects which can be compared with. Very javascripty. Very awkward. Is there some better way that I can do this? Essentially a way to associate a data set with each property, and then iterate over those properties. Or else am I Doing It Wrong?

  Read the article

• Implementing scroll view that is much larger than the screen view with random images

  - by pulegium

  What I'm trying to do is to implement something like the fruit machine scroll view. Basically I have a sequence of images (randomly generated on the fly) and I want to allow the users to scroll through this line. There can fit approx 10 images on the screen, but the line is virtually unlimited. My question is what would be the best approach in implementing this? So far I've thought of having a UIImageView going across the screen (with width equal to the sum of 10 images) and the image associated with it would be a combination of 12 or so images, with two images falling out of the visible area, this would allow for smooth scrolling. If the user scrolls further, then I would reconstruct the image associated with the view so the new images are appended and the old one's are discarded. This image reconstruction business sounds bit complicated, so I was wondering if there's a more logical way to implement this. There's one more thing, I want to have two lines crossing each other with images, bit like conveyor belts crossing. If that makes any sense... Bit like below: V1 V2 H1 H2 H3 H4 H5 V4 V5 So if the vertical belt is moved it'd be like: V2 H3 H1 H2 V4 H4 H5 V5 V6 H1-H5, V1-V6 being automatically generated images. I'm not asking for the implementation code, just the thoughts on the principles how to implement this. Thanks!! :)

  Read the article

• C Run-Time library part 2

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I was suggested when I have some further questions on my older ones, to create newer Question and reffer to old one. So, this is the original question: What is the C runtime library? OK, from your answers, I now get thet statically linked libraries are Microsoft implementation of C standart functions. Now: If I get it right, the scheme would be as follow: I want to use printf(), so I must include which just tels compiler there us functio printf() with these parameters. Now, when I compile code, becouse printf() is defined in C Standart Library, and becouse Microsoft decided to name it C Run Time library, it gets automatically statically linked from libcmt.lib (if libcmt.lib is set in compiler) at compile time. I ask, becouse on wikipedia, in article about runtime library there is that runtime library is linked in runtime, but .lib files are linked at compile time, am I right? Now, what confuses me. There is .dll version of C standart library. But I thought that to link .dll file, you must actually call winapi program to load that library. So, how can be these functions dynamically linked, if there is no static library to provide code to tell Windows to load desired functions from dll? And really last question on this subject - are C Standart library functions also calls to winapi even they are not .dll files like more advanced WinAPI functions? I mean, in the end to access framebuffer and print something you must tell Windows to do it, since OS cannot let you directly manipulate HW. I think of it like the OS must be written to support all C standart library functions same way across similiar versions, since they are statically linked, and can differently support more complex WinAPI calls becouse new version of OS can have adjustements in the .dll file.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to group records belonging to an entity in dbunit?

  - by Joshua

  Our JPA entity model auto-generates primary key identifiers for user, user_address tables. Would it be possible to group these entities given below via dbunit, so that I don't need to provide neither the primary key as well as the foreign key reference from user_address.user_id. It is getting very hard to maintain these keys (i.e. I would prefer to group the primary record 'user' and the child records 'user_address' so that dbunit can group them automatically by looking up the entity metadata). Is it achievable? <user id="1" first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address id="1" user_id="1" address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> I would prefer something like this <!-- First user --> <user first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> <!-- Second user --> <user first_name="Mary" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Taylors St" city="San Jose"/>

  Read the article

• Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

  - by rksprst

  I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352  | Next Page >