Search Results

Search found 10023 results on 401 pages for 'manage processes'.

Page 339/401 | < Previous Page | 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346  | Next Page >

• svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

  - by roesslerj

  Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

  Read the article

• Is it bad practice to have state in a static class?

  - by Matthew

  I would like to do something like this: public class Foo { // Probably really a Guid, but I'm using a string here for simplicity's sake. string Id { get; set; } int Data { get; set; } public Foo (int data) { ... } ... } public static class FooManager { Dictionary<string, Foo> foos = new Dictionary<string, Foo> (); public static Foo Get (string id) { return foos [id]; } public static Foo Add (int data) { Foo foo = new Foo (data); foos.Add (foo.Id, foo); return foo; } public static bool Remove (string id) { return foos.Remove (id); } ... // Other members, perhaps events for when Foos are added or removed, etc. } This would allow me to manage the global collection of Foos from anywhere. However, I've been told that static classes should always be stateless--you shouldn't use them to store global data. Global data in general seems to be frowned upon. If I shouldn't use a static class, what is the right way to approach this problem? Note: I did find a similar question, but the answer given doesn't really apply in my case.

  Read the article

• Core Data: Overkill for simple, static UITableView-based iPhone App?

  - by David Foster

  Hello! I have a rather simple iPhone app consisting of numerous views containing a single, grouped table view. These views are held together in navigation controllers which are grouped in a tab bar. Simple stuff. My table views do little more than list text (like "Dog", "Cat" and "Weasel") and this data is being served from a collection of plists. It's perhaps worth mentioning too that these tables are 'static' in the sense that their data is pre-determined and will only ever be amended—and if so, very rarely indeed—by the developer (in this case, moi). This rudimentary approach has reached its limits though, and I think I'm going to need something a bit more relational. I have worked a tad with Core Data in the past, but only with apps whose data is determined by user input. I have four closely related questions: Is Core Data overkill for an app consisting mainly of a selection of simple table views? Do you recommend using Core Data to manage data which is predetermine and extremely unlikely to ever change? Can one lock Core Data down so that its data can't change, thereby relinquishing my responsibility as the developer to handle the editing and saving of the managed object context? How do I go about giving Core Data my predetermined data, and in a format I know that it can work with? Thanks a bunch guys.

  Read the article

• Encapsulate update method inside of object or have method which accepts an object to update

  - by Tom

  Hi, I actually have 2 questions related to each other: I have an object (class) called, say MyClass which holds data from my database. Currently I have a list of these objects ( List < MyClass ) that resides in a singleton in a "communal area". I feel it's easier to manage the data this way and I fail to see how passing a class around from object to object is beneficial over a singleton (I would be happy if someone can tell me why). Anyway, the data may change in the database from outside my program and so I have to update the data every so often. To update the list of the MyClass I have a method called say, Update, written in another class which accepts a list of MyClass. This updates all the instances of MyClass in the list. However would it be better instead to encapulate the Update() method inside the MyClass object, so instead I would say foreach(MyClass obj in MyClassList) { obj.update(); } What is a better implementation and why? The update method requires a XML reader. I have written an XML reader class which is basically a wrapper over the standard XML reader the language natively provides which provides application specific data collection. Should the XML reader class be in anyway in the "inheritance path" of the MyClass object - the MyClass objects inherits from the XML reader because it uses a few methods. I can't see why it should. I don't like the idea of declaring an instance of the XML Reader class inside of MyClass and an MyClass object is meant to be a simple "record" from the database and I feel giving it loads of methods, other object instances is a bit messy. Perhaps my XML reader class should be static but C#'s native XMLReader isn't static.? Any comments would be greatly appreciated Thanks Thomas

  Read the article

• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by burnt_hand

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

  Read the article

• Generate and merge data with python multiprocessing

  - by Bobby

  I have a list of starting data. I want to apply a function to the starting data that creates a few pieces of new data for each element in the starting data. Some pieces of the new data are the same and I want to remove them. The sequential version is essentially: def create_new_data_for(datum): """make a list of new data from some old datum""" return [datum.modified_copy(k) for k in datum.k_list] data = [some list of data] #some data to start with #generate a list of new data from the old data, we'll reduce it next newdata = [] for d in data: newdata.extend(create_new_data_for(d)) #now reduce the data under ".matches(other)" reduced = [] for d in newdata: for seen in reduced: if d.matches(seen): break #so we haven't seen anything like d yet seen.append(d) #now reduced is finished and is what we want! I want to speed this up with multiprocessing. I was thinking that I could use a multiprocessing.Queue for the generation. Each process would just put the stuff it creates on, and when the processes are reducing the data, they can just get the data from the Queue. But I'm not sure how to have the different process loop over reduced and modify it without any race conditions or other issues. What is the best way to do this safely? or is there a different way to accomplish this goal better?

  Read the article

• Idea for a small project, should I use Python?

  - by Robb

  I have a project idea, but unsure if using Python would be a good idea. Firstly, I'm a C++ and C# developer with some SQL experience. My day job is C++. I have a project idea i'd like to create and was considering developing it in a language I don't know. Python seems to be popular and has piqued my interests. I definitely use OOP in programming and I understand Python would work fine with that style. I could be way off on this, I've only read small bits and pieces about the language. The project won't be public or anything, just purely something of my own creation do dabble in at home. So the project would essentially represent a simple game idea I have. The game would consist roughly these things: Data structures to hold specific information (would be strongly typed). A way to output the gamestate for the players. This is completely up in the air, it can be graphical or text based, I don't really care at this point. A way to save off game data for the players in something like a database or file system. A relatively easy way for me to input information and a 'GO' button which processes the changes and obviously creates a new gamestate. The game would function similar to a board game. Really nothing out of the ordinary when I look back at that list. Would this be a fun way to learn Python or should I select another language?

  Read the article

• DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

  - by David Stratton

  I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

  Read the article

• Webfaction apache + mod_wsgi + django configuration issue

  - by Dmitry Guyvoronsky

  A problem that I stumbled upon recently, and, even though I solved it, I would like to hear your opinion of what correct/simple/adopted solution would be. I'm developing website using Django + python. When I run it on local machine with "python manage.py runserver", local address is http://127.0.0.1:8000/ by default. However, on production server my app has other url, with path - like "http://server.name/myproj/" I need to generate and use permanent urls. If I'm using {% url view params %}, I'm getting paths that are relative to / , since my urls.py contains this urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^(\d+)?$', 'myproj.myapp.views.index'), (r'^img/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/img' }), (r'^css/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/css' }), ) So far, I see 2 solutions: modify urls.py, include '/myproj/' in case of production run use request.build_absolute_uri() for creating link in views.py or pass some variable with 'hostname:port/path' in templates Are there prettier ways to deal with this problem? Thank you. Update: Well, the problem seems to be not in django, but in webfaction way to configure wsgi. Apache configuration for application with URL "hostname.com/myapp" contains the following line WSGIScriptAlias / /home/dreamiurg/webapps/pinfont/myproject.wsgi So, SCRIPT_NAME is empty, and the only solution I see is to get to mod_python or serve my application from root. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

  - by Sid

  We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

  Read the article

• .net layered design: return error code to forms indicating which controls have an error

  - by David Casillas

  Let's say I have a simple application. It tries to add a new entry to a database grabing the info from the user. The information is a tipical MasterDetail objetc like an invoice. The Invoice object used to collect the data has some simple atributes (Id, Date, etc...) and a List of InvoiceDetail, consisting of some simple atributes (invoiceId, productId, quantity, etc...) A form in the UI Layer collects the data from the user, creates an instance of Invoice and sends it to the Bussiness Layer. The Bussines layer sends the data to a Validation Module. If any error in the input is detected it has to return some kind of error code. The Bussiness Layer has to send the error code back to the Form to let the user correct the worng information. I want the application to display some kind of warning (a different background color for example) in every form control with an error. ¿What's a good aproach to I manage the errors to be able to inform the form which controls are wrong? ¿Can I create an error object?¿Use delegates?. I'm using VB.net but don't think this is relevant to the solution of the problem. P.D: Please suggest me some tags to this post.

  Read the article

• Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

  - by isme

  I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

  Read the article

• How do I retrieve an automated report and save it to a database?

  - by Mason Wheeler

  I've got a web server that will take scripts in Python, PHP or Perl. I don't know much about any of those languages, but of the three, Python seems the least scary. It has a MySql database set up, and I know enough SQL to manage it and write queries for it. I also have a program that I want to add automated error reporting to. Something goes wrong, it sends a bug report to my server. What I don't know how to do is write a Python script that will sit on the web server and, when my program sends in a bug report, do the following: Receive the bug report. Parse it out into sections. Insert it into the database. Have the server send me an email. From what little I understand, this seems like it shouldn't be too difficult if I only knew what I was doing. Could someone point me to a site that explains the basic principles I'd need to create a script like this?

  Read the article

• How to run setInterval() on multiple canvases simultaneously?

  - by Alex

  I have a page which has several <canvas> elements. I am passing the canvas ID and an array of data to a function which then grabs the canvas info and passes the data onto a draw() function which in turn processes the given data and draws the results onto the canvas. So far, so good. Example data arrays; $(function() { setup($("#canvas-1"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); setup($("#canvas-2"), [[110,110,100], [180,180,50], [220,280,80]]); }); setup function; function setup(canvas, data) { ctx = canvas[0].getContext('2d'); var i = data.length; var dimensions = { w : canvas.innerWidth(), h : canvas.innerHeight() }; draw(dimensions, data, i); } This works perfectly. draw() runs and each canvas is populated. However - I need to animate the canvas. As soon as I replace line 8 of the above example; draw(dimensions, data, i); with setInterval( function() { draw(dimensions, data, i); }, 33 ); It stops working and only draws the last canvas (with the others remaining blank). I'm new to both javascript and canvas so sorry if this is an obvious one, still feeling my way around. Guidance in the right direction much appreciated! Thanks.

  Read the article

• Raw types and subtyping

  - by Dmitrii

  We have generic class SomeClass<T>{ } We can write the line: SomeClass s= new SomeClass<String>(); It's ok, because raw type is supertype for generic type. But SomeClass<String> s= new SomeClass(); is correct to. Why is it correct? I thought that type erasure was before type checking, but it's wrong. From Hacker's Guide to Javac When the Java compiler is invoked with default compile policy it performs the following passes: parse: Reads a set of *.java source files and maps the resulting token sequence into AST-Nodes. enter: Enters symbols for the definitions into the symbol table. process annotations: If Requested, processes annotations found in the specified compilation units. attribute: Attributes the Syntax trees. This step includes name resolution, type checking and constant folding. flow: Performs data ow analysis on the trees from the previous step. This includes checks for assignments and reachability. desugar: Rewrites the AST and translates away some syntactic sugar. generate: Generates Source Files or Class Files. Generic is syntax sugar, hence type erasure invoked at 6 pass, after type checking, which invoked at 4 pass. I'm confused.

  Read the article

• managing html rich text selections

  - by swami

  Hi, I am writing a component for a web app which will display some html, and let me capture and manipulate the selection boundaries (of the text selected by the user). I have done this successfully (for Mozilla) with a simple div element using window.getSelection(). However, the browser selection API is different for IE. If I were to use a textarea instead (for interacting with the selection api), is there a uniform API across the browsers? Then I would need to overlay a DIV on top of this to display the styled text, and presumably I'd need to manage the cursor etc... Basically I want a rich text editor - but without editing. Does anyone have any advice on the best way to go about this, which is quick, simple and cross browser compatible. I don't want to spend ages reinventing the wheel... (If anyone's interested - this is for an online xml editor. I capture the users selection on a html version of the xml doc and then send the selection offsets info to the server, where the real xml doc gets marked up). Kind Regards Swami

  Read the article

• Can shared memory be read and validated without mutexes?

  - by Bribles

  On Linux I'm using shmget and shmat to setup a shared memory segment that one process will write to and one or more processes will read from. The data that is being shared is a few megabytes in size and when updated is completely rewritten; it's never partially updated. I have my shared memory segment laid out as follows: ------------------------- | t0 | actual data | t1 | ------------------------- where t0 and t1 are copies of the time when the writer began its update (with enough precision such that successive updates are guaranteed to have differing times). The writer first writes to t1, then copies in the data, then writes to t0. The reader on the other hand reads t0, then the data, then t1. If the reader gets the same value for t0 and t1 then it considers the data consistent and valid, if not, it tries again. Does this procedure ensure that if the reader thinks the data is valid then it actually is? Do I need to worry about out-of-order execution (OOE)? If so, would the reader using memcpy to get the entire shared memory segment overcome the OOE issues on the reader side? (This assumes that memcpy performs it's copy linearly and ascending through the address space. Is that assumption valid?)

  Read the article

• Correct way to generate order numbers in SQL Server

  - by Anton Gogolev

  This question certainly applies to a much broader scope, but here it is. I have a basic ecommerce app, where users can, naturally enough, place orders. Said orders need to have a unique number, which I'm trying to generate right now. Each order is Vendor-specific. Basically, I have an OrderNumberInfo (VendorID, OrderNumber) table. Now whenever a customer places an order I need to increment OrderNumber for a particuar Vendor and return that value. Naturally, I don't want other processes to interfere with me, so I need to exclusively lock this row somehow: begin tranaction declare @n int select @n = OrderNumber from OrderNumberInfo where VendorID = @vendorID update OrderNumberInfo set OrderNumber = @n + 1 where OrderNumber = @n and VendorID = @vendorID commit transaction Now, I've read about select ... with (updlock rowlock), pessimistic locking, etc., but just cannot fit all this in a coherent picture: How do these hints play with SQL Server 2008s' snapshot isolation? Do they perform row-level, page-level or even table-level locks? How does this tolerate multiple users trying to generate numbers for a single Vendor? What isolation levels are appropriate here? And generally - what is the way to do such things?

  Read the article

• How to change a Linux user password from python

  - by Vaulor

  I'm having problems with changing a Linux user's password from python. I've tried so many things, but I couldn't manage to solve the issue, here is the sample of things I've already tried: sudo_password is the password for sudo, sudo_command is the command I want the system to run, user is get from a List and is the user who I want to change the password for, and newpass is the pass I want to assign to 'user' user = list.get(ANCHOR) sudo_command = 'passwd' f = open("passwordusu.tmp", "w") f.write("%s\n%s" % (newpass, newpass)) f.close() A=os.system('echo -e %s|sudo -S %s < %s %s' % (sudo_password, sudo_command,'passwordusu.tmp', user)) print A windowpass.destroy() 'A' is the return value for the execution of os.system, in this case 256. I tried also A=os.system('echo %s|sudo -S %s < %s %s' % (sudo_password, sudo_command,'passwordusu.tmp', user)) but it returns the same error code. I tried several other ways with 'passwd' command, but whithout succes. With 'chpasswd' command I 've tried this: user = list.get(ANCHOR) sudo_command = 'chpasswd' f = open("passwordusu.tmp", "w") f.write("%s:%s" % (user, newpass)) f.close() A=os.system('echo %s|sudo -S %s < %s %s' % (sudo_password, sudo_command,'passwordusu.tmp', user)) print A windowpass.destroy() also with: A=os.system('echo %s|sudo -S %s:%s|%s' % (sudo_password, user, newpass, sudo_command)) @;which returns 32512 A=os.system("echo %s | sudo -S %s < \"%s\"" % (sudo_password, sudo_command, "passwordusu.tmp")) @;which returns 256 I tried 'mkpasswd' and 'usermod' too like this: user = list.get(ANCHOR) sudo_command = 'mkpasswd -m sha-512' os.system("echo %s | sudo -S %s %s > passwd.tmp" % (sudo_password,sudo_command, newpass)) sudo_command="usermod -p" f = open('passwd.tmp', 'r') for line in f.readlines(): newpassencryp=line f.close() A=os.system("echo %s | sudo -S %s %s %s" % (sudo_password, sudo_command, newpassencryp, user)) @;which returns 32512 but, if you go to https://www.mkpasswd.net , hash the 'newpass' and substitute for 'newpassencryp', it returns 0 which theoretically means it has gone right, but so far it doesn't changes the password. I've searched on internet and stackoverflow for this issue or similar and tried what solutions exposed, but again,without success. I would really apreciate any help, and of course, if you need more info i'll be glad to supply it! Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

  Read the article

• Android, phone call audio stream via wlan

  - by moppel

  I am planning on developing my specific voip app for android. Here's the scenario: when a phone call occurs I want to hear the person who's calling on my local pc speakers and I want to speak to him via my own pc microphone / headset. So I need to send the audio stream of both me and the person I am talking to via the wlan network. Something like this: ... onCallStateChanged(int state, String phoneNumber){ while(state == PhoneListener.CALL_STATE_OFFHOOK){ //while phone call is happaning //send incoming speech via wlan to pc //receive audiostream from pc microphone and direct it to the phone call } } ... Is this possible with the current Android API? (Actually it should be since voip apps are available in the market) I did some research in the Android API and all I found was the AudioManager which has constant named public static final int STREAM_VOICE_CALL; //The audio stream for phone calls But I don't know how to use it our how it should give me access to the actual audiostreams which I can send via network. How do I manage to do this? The connection would be realised by TCP sockets.

  Read the article

• simplify a preload image function in jQuery

  - by robertdd

  after i spent 2 day searching a preload function in jQueryi with no succes, i manage to do this: after i upload the image on server, in a list i get this: <li id="upimagesDYGONI"> <div class="percentage">100%</div> <div class="uploadifyProgress"> <div align=" center" class="uploadifyProgressBar" id="upimagesDYGONIProgressBar" style="width: 100%;"> <!--Progress Bar--> </div> </div> </li> with this function, i preload the image: $.getlastimage = function(id) { $.getJSON('operations.php', {'operation':'getli', 'id':id,}, function(lastimg){ $("#upimages" + id + " .percentage").text('processing'); $("#upimages" + id).append('<a href=""><img id="' + id + '" src="" alt="" /></a>') .parent().attr({"href":"uploads/"+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime()}); $("#"+id).hide().attr({"src":"uploads/"+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime(), "alt":lastimg}) .load(function() { $(this).show(); $("#upimages" + id + " .percentage").remove(); $("#upimages" + id + " .uploadifyProgress").remove(); }); }); } })(jQuery) and i get this: <li id="upimagesLRBHYN" style="" class=""> <a href="uploads/0002.jpg?1271901177027"> <img alt="0002.jpg" src="uploads/0002.jpg?1271901177028" id="LRBHYN" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> how i can simplify the function? i want to use the full power of jQuery!! any idea?

  Read the article

• Trap SIGPIPE when trying to write without reader

  - by Matt

  I am trying to implement a named-pipe communication solution in BASH between two processes. The first process runs a script which echo something in a named-pipe: send(){ echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } And the second script is supposed to read the named-pipe via another script which contains: while true;do if read line < $NAMEDPIPE;do someCommands fi done Not that the named pipe has been previously created using the traditional command mkfifo $NAMEDPIPE My problem is that the reader script is not always running so that if the writer script try to write in the named-pipe it stay blocked until a reader connect the pipe. I want to avoid this behavior, and a solution would be to trap a SIGPIPE signal. Indeed, according to man 7 signal is supposed to be send when trying to write in a pipe with no reader. So I changed my red function by: read(){ trap 'echo "SIGPIPE received"' SIGPIPE echo 'something' > $NAMEDPIPE } But when I run the reader script, the script stay blocked, and not "SIGPIPE received" appears... Am I mistaking on the signal mechanism or is there any better solution to my problem ? Thank you for your help.

  Read the article

• How can I use JSONP to download client-side javascript objects?

  - by Alex Mcp

  I'm trying to get client-side javascript objects saved as a file locally. I'm not sure if this is possible. The basic architecture is this: Ping an external API to get back a JSON object Work client-side with that object, and eventually have a "download me" link This link sends the data to my server, which processes it and sends it back with a mime type application/json, which (should) prompt the user to download the file locally. Right now here are my pieces: Server Side Code <?php $data = array('zero', 'one', 'two', 'testing the encoding'); $json = json_encode($data); //$json = json_encode($_GET['']); //eventually I'll encode their data, but I'm testing header("Content-type: application/json"); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="backup.json"'); echo $_GET['callback'] . ' (' . $json . ');'; ?> Relevant Client Side Code $("#download").click(function(){ var json = JSON.stringify(collection); //serializes their object $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.myURL.com/api.php?callback=?", //this is the above script dataType: "jsonp", contentType: 'jsonp', data: json, success: function(data){ console.log( "Data Received: " + data[3] ); } }); return false; }); Right now when I visit the api.php site with Firefox, it prompts a download of download.json and that results in this text file, as expected: (["zero","one","two","testing the encoding"]); And when I click #download to run the AJAX call, it logs in Firebug Data Received: testing the encoding which is almost what I'd expect. I'm receiving the JSON string and serializing it, which is great. I'm missing two things: The Actual Questions What do I need to do to get the same prompt-to-download behavior that I get when I visit the page in a browser (much simpler) How do I access, server-side, the json object being sent to the server to serialize it? I don't know what index it is in the GET array (silly, I know, but I've tried almost everything)

  Read the article

• MySql Query lag time?

  - by Click Upvote

  When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346  | Next Page >